河南省焦作市2022-2023学年高二下期期中考试英语试卷

这是一份河南省焦作市2022-2023学年高二下期期中考试英语试卷，共14页。试卷主要包含了15等内容，欢迎下载使用。

绝密★启用前
焦作市普通高中2022—2023学年(下)高二年级期中考试
英 语
考生注意：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是C。
1. Where are the speakers probably?
A. At home. B. At the airport. C. In a taxi.
2. What's the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Boss and clerk.
3. What does the man think of his new shoes?
A. They are comfortable.
B. They help him run faster.
C. They are expensive.
4. How long has the woman's brother been a smoker?
A. Three years. B. Thirteen years. C. Thirty years.
5. What's the man doing?
A. Offering help. B. Accepting an invitation. C. Seeking advice.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man's problem?
A. He has a bad cough. B. He has difficulty sleeping. C. He has a backache.
7. What does the woman suggest the man do?
A. Exercise more. B. Chew gum. C. See a doctor.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. How did the woman like the exhibition?
A. It was thrilling. B. It was relaxing. C. It was inspiring.
9. Which section did the woman like best about the exhibition?
A. The live models. B. Clothes recycling. C. The designer wear.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How long has the woman speaker lived there?
A. About two days. B. About two years. C. About six years.
11. Where does the man work probably?
A. At a repair shop. B. At a hospital. C. At a college.
12. Why does the woman speaker have to leave?
A. To have her truck repaired.
B. To visit her cousin.
C. To give a class.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why didn't the man enjoy his weekend?
A. His son got sick.
B. He argued with his wife.
C. He missed his son's football game.
14. What will the man do over lunch?
A. Respond to some emails.
B. Talk with Valerie Dumonde.
C. Deal with the Peterson account.
15. Who is the woman speaker probably?
A. The man's teacher. B. The man's customer. C. The man's secretary.
16. When does the man regularly meet with managers?
A. At 10:00 am. B. At 12:30 pm. C. At 3:00 pm.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What important social skills does playing games help children gain?
A. Counting and reading. B. Reasoning and thinking. C. Taking turns.
18. What is the advantage of playing cards for children?
A. Developing their brains.
B. Gaining self-confidence.
C. Clearing their minds.
19. Why should parents often play games with their kids?
A. To improve their own memory.
B. To get on well with their children.
C. To teach their kids more about games.
20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?
A. The benefits of playing games.
B. How to play games with children.
C. The relationship between parents and children.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Keep your child's mind and body active this summer with Starport's hybrid STEAM & Recreational Camps. We've teamed up with American Robotics Academy, Mad Science of Houston, and SPDF Kids to provide a camp experience that is the perfect combination of learning and fun.
Week1
The Robot Olympics
Robots Built by Design
June 27~July 1 7:30 am~4:30 pm
American Robotics Academy
Week2
Wizards of Science
Master Builders Robotastic Adventure
July 4~July 8 7:30 am~4:30 pm
American Robotics Academy
Week3
Lights, Camera, Action!
Eureka!
July 11~July 157:30 am~4:30 pm
Mad Science of Houston
Week4
Where the Wild Things Are
Adventures in the Wild
July 18~July 227:30 am~4:30 pm
Mad Science of Houston
Week5
Nice to “Sea” You
STEAM at the Beach
July 25~July 29 7:30 am~4:30 pm
SPDF Kids
Pricing
Early Bird Price—until May 15, 2023:$350.00
Regular—beginning May 16, 2023:$385.00
Group discount:$10.00 off each additional child
Camp Schedule
Below is a generalized activity schedule.
Drop-off(7:30 am~8:55 am)
Recreational Activity(7:45 am~8:55 am)
Outdoor Play(9:00 am~9:45 am)
STEAM Curriculum(10:00 am~11:00 am)
Lunch( 11 :00 am ~11 :30 am)
STEAM Curriculum(11:30 am~1:30 pm)
Arts/Crafts, games, sports, and/or other recreational activities(1:30 pm~3:00 pm)
Snack(3:00 pm~3:15 pm)
Movie(3:15 pm~4:30 pm)
Pick-up (4:30 pm)
Lunch
Campers will need to bring their own lunch each day. Please do not send lunches that need to be reheated or refrigerated. Lunches will be kept in a climate-controlled environment. A snack will be provided in the afternoon.
21. How much should Tom and his two brothers pay if they sign up for the camps in June?
A.$1 , 030.00. B.$1 , 050.00. C.$1, 135.00. D.$1 , 155.00.
22. What can campers do at the camps every day?
A. Play outdoors for an hour. B. See a film for over an hour.
C. Enjoy snacks for half an hour. D. Have four hours of STEAM education.
23. Which of the following is a requirement for campers?
A. Arriving before 7:30 am. B. Bringing their own snacks.
C. Keeping their lunches in the fridge. D. Preparing lunches for themselves.
B
World-famous music and movie star Olivia Newton-John died at her home in southern California. She sold over 100 million record albums during her career. From 1973 to 1983, she was among the world's most popular entertainers. She had 14 top 10 singles in the United States alone and won four Grammys.
Newton-John is most remembered for her performance in 1978's wildly popular musical movie Grease. She stars as high school student Sandy. “I was worried that at 29 I was too old to play a high school girl, ”Newton-John told The Telegraph in 2017.“Everything about making the film was fun, but if I had to pick a favorite moment, it was the transformation from what I call Sandy 1 to Sandy 2. I got to play a different character and wear different clothes, and when I put on that tight black outfit to sing You're the One That I Want, I got a very different reaction from the guys on the site.”
Physical. Newton-John's biggest single, came out in 1981. It was hugely popular, holding the number one position on Billboard's hit list for 10 weeks straight. Later, it was named the song of the year. A video linked to it won a Grammy as well.
In 1992, Newton-John's father died and she suffered from breast cancer. Three years later, she and actor Matt Lattanzi ended their marriage. And, a years-long relationship with cameraman Patrick McDermott ended mysteriously when he went missing during a 2005 fishing trip in California. “He was lost at sea, and nobody really knows what happened. But those are the things in life you have to accept and let go, ”she said.
Newton-John was born in Britain to Irene Born and Brin Newton-John. The Newton-Johns moved to Australia when Olivia was 5, but she returned to England in her teens and lived with her mother after her parents divorced. She had early dreams of becoming an animal doctor. After winning singing competitions in high school, she decided on a career in music instead.
24. The figures listed in the first paragraph are mainly intended to show Newton- John's .
A. wide influence B. high productivity
C. diverse abilities D. great achievements
25. How did Newton-John feel when she was invited to play high school student Sandy?
A. Unconfident. B. Thrilled. C. Uninterested. D. Proud.
26. What made Newton-John choose music as her career?
A. Her unhappy childhood life. B. Her mother's deep influence.
C. Her high school experience. D. Her natural-born interest in music.
27. What can be inferred about Newton-John from the text?
A. She fought against cancer bravely like her mother.
B. She suffered one misfortune after another during her lifetime.
C. It was a fishing trip that ended her marriage with Matt Lattanzi.
D. She remained the world's most popular entertainer throughout her career.
C
The international outbreak of monkeypox(猴痘), which began in May 2022, has caused the WHO to declare a global health emergency.
Monkeypox got its name in 1958, when it was found for the first time in several laboratory monkeys. It's a zoonotic viral disease, which means it can be transmitted(传染)from animals to humans. It can also pass from human to human. Human monkeypox was first identified in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo(DRC)in a 9-month-old boy. In 2003, the first monkeypox outbreak outside Africa was reported in the USA and was linked to contact with infected(感染的)pet dogs.
Monkeypox is mostly found in the rainforests of central and western Africa, where animals that can carry the virus are native. In these countries, it's increasingly appearing in urban areas. Sometimes it can also be found elsewhere, in people who could have been infected after visiting these countries.
People infected with monkeypox usually have a fever, severe headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy, swollen lymph nodes, and skin rashes(皮疹)or lesions. In severe cases, they can have skin infections, pneumonia, and eye infections that can lead to vision loss. The rash usually begins on the first or third day of the onset of fever. The lesions may be flat or slightly raised, filled with clear or yellowish fluid, then crust over(结痂), dry up, and fall off. The number of lesions varies, from a few to several thousand. The rash tends to appear on the face, the palms of the hands, and the soles of the feet. They can also be found in the mouth and eyes.
In most cases, the symptoms of monkeypox go away on their own within a few weeks but, in between three and six percent of cases reported in countries where it's constantly present, it can lead to medical complications and even death. Newborn babies, children, and people with other health problems may be at risk of more severe symptoms and death from the disease.
28. What does the text say about monkeypox?
A. It is a new disease found outside Africa.
B. It started to break out worldwide in May 2022.
C. It has been a global health emergency for decades.
D. It is mostly found in the rainforests of northern Africa.
29. How did the disease get the name monkeypox?
A. From its discoverer. B. From its birthplace.
C. From its spread patterns. D. From its first discovered hosts.
30. What does paragraph 4 mainly talk about?
A. Treatments for monkeypox. B. Symptoms of monkeypox.
C. Preventative measures against monkeypox. D. Potential victims of monkeypox.
31. Which of the following is a characteristic of monkeypox?
A. It isn't deadly at all. B. It doesn't spread among people.
C. Most sufferers can recover automatically. D. It mainly targets at the elderly people.
D
Coral reefs(珊瑚礁)are full of varieties of sea life, including fish. Some fish are more attractive to humans than others, and their semblance could be influencing how we decide which species to protect.
To understand the relationship between fish beauty standards and conservation needs, researchers showed 481 photographs of reef fishes to 13, 000 members of the public. With that data, they then trained a computer model to make following predictions for an additional 4, 400photographs of 2, 417 of the most common reef fish species. They next compared the aesthetic(美感)rating of each species with other characteristics, including evolutionary history, distinctiveness from other fish, “ecological originality”(which includes traits such as diet, habitat, body size and behaviors), conservation status and importance to fisheries.
After processing the numbers, researchers found that the fish humans rated as the most beautiful—those with bright, colorful, round bodies—were also less ecologically and evolutionarily distinct. Prettier fish were also more likely to be listed as species of “least concern” on the International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN)Red List. On the contrary, the fish that humans found to be the least attractive were the most ecologically and evolutionarily distinct, and they were more likely to be listed as “threatened” on the IUCN Red List. Unattractive species also tended to be more important to commercial fisheries, which puts them at higher risk for overfishing.
At a time when conservation funding and energy is limited, uglier fish are likely being overshadowed by more beautiful fish, which could have serious consequences for coral reef ecosystems. “The less attractive species have the highest ecological distinctiveness, and thus provide the highest diversity of ecological functions, ”they write in the paper. “We thus conclude that the raised extinction risk of the less attractive fish species might also have great effects on reef ecosystem functioning. To minimize the influence of aesthetic biases(偏见), scientists, conservation groups and policymakers may need to change how they communicate about wildlife. Raising awareness of the important roles that uglier fish play in reef ecosystems could help them obtain more support.”
32. The underlined word “ semblance ” in the first paragraph most probably means “ ”.
A. living style B. growth speed C. size D. appearance
33. How did the researchers carry out their study?
A. By analyzing aesthetic ratings of fish. B. By observing fish among coral reefs.
C. By referring to previous similar studies. D. By conducting an online questionnaire.
34. What do the researchers suggest we do?
A. Make laws to punish those who overfish.
B. Build natural reserves worldwide for uglier fish.
C. Go all out to have people's aesthetic levels improved.
D. Educate people on the ecological importance of uglier fish.
35. What's the best title for the text?
A. Ugly Fish Also Need Love B. Appearance Matters Most to Fish
C. Ugly Fish Live Shorter Lives D. Coral Reefs Rely Heavily on Fish
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Living comfortably requires more than just money. Things like jobs and family undoubtedly also play a part in how we handle the world around us, as well as how much we enjoy it. Here are some tips on living our best lives:
· 36
Change is hard. It's also unavoidable. Being able to adapt yourself to difficult situations ensures that you respond to different situations with the most productive behaviors, leaving you more satisfied with the results.
●Consider your purpose
Put simply, living comfortably means being happy. And part of happiness is believing you have a purpose, a reason to exist. 37 . Make a commitment to do everything in your power to achieve it. Faith, family, career, politics, social justice: it can be anything that brings meaning to your life and provides a reason for you to wake up each morning with renewed interest in living it.
●Stick to a budget
Of course, to live comfortably, you do have to live within your means. While you don't necessarily need a lot of money, you do need to have enough to provide a way to protect and support yourself. Therefore, manage your money wisely. 38 .
●Be creative
Whether it's your home, your wardrobe, your work or some other area of your life, seek out ways to be creative. Research shows that creativity contributes to improved well-being, renewing energy and lowering stress for people who take the time to experience, work together and create. 39 . Anything that makes use of the imagination is a tool for growth.
●Cultivate relationships
Find people who provide comfort and encouragement and who love you in spite of your faults. 40 . According to lots of research, friendships enrich your life, reducing the risk of many health problems and improving your level of contentment so that you truly can live comfortably!
A. Slow down
B. Be flexible
C. Creativity isn't limited to physical art
D. Offer the same to them in return
E. Think about what you want out of life
F. Try to live your life with a healthy body and mind
G. Only in that way can you make sure that you always have enough to survive
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)
第一节(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
One morning when I was seven years old, I woke up to find my mother was gone. I was terrified, running to 41 her.
That morning, my father was coming to pick me up to spend a week with him and my stepmother. When he arrived, he 42 an envelope on my mother's bed. It read, “ Jeff, I’ ve carried the 43 for the last seven years. Now it's your 44 .I need a life of my own.”
After reading the letter, my father said, “Mom’s very 45 and she’s gone on a vacation, so you’ll be 46 with me and Melanie for a while, OK?”
I nodded, but I knew the 47 --my mother had abandoned me. I was 48 all the way to my dad's house and entered my room without a word. I thought Melanie might be unhappy because of my 49 . But I was 50 . Over the following months, Melanie tried her best to make me feel 51 and loved. 52 I discovered that I loved Melanie a lot.
When I turned 18, my dad and Melanie gave me a car and wanted to throw me a party, but I just wasn't in the mood(心情) for 53 . We were in the garage 54 my birthday present when a postman handed me an envelope. Inside it was a letter from my mother! It read, “My dearest Steve, you turn 18 and become a man today. I know you must be very 55 with me, but please 56 me. Six weeks before I left, I was diagnosed(诊断) with cancer. I'd suffered the 57 of my mother at 10, and I knew how painful it was. I 58 that if I left you with your father and you believed I'd started a new life, it'd 59 you less. I'm writing this and leaving it with my lawyer, and it'll be posted to you on your eighteenth birthday.”
Tears streamed down my cheeks. It was then that I realized her 60 was not abandonment but love.
41. A. call on B. learn from C. glance at D. look for
42. A. noticed B. left C. expected D. remembered
43. A. guilt B. favor C. burden D. reputation
44. A. turn B. chance C. right D. honor
45. A. busy B. selfish C. popular D. tired
46. A. working B. fighting C. staying D. communicating
47. A. trial B. truth C. deal D. plan
48. A. regretful B. silent C. independent D. relaxed
49. A. arrival B. return C. request D. comment
50. A. ashamed B. awkward C. wrong D. determined
51. A. occupied B. welcome C. cautious D. calm
52. A. Generally B. Unluckily C. Strangely D. Gradually
53. A. inspirations B. achievements C. prizes D. celebrations
54. A. choosing B. assessing C. admiring D. preparing
55. A. bored B. angry C. patient D. concerned
56. A. forgive B. remind C. comfort D. praise
57. A. loss B. prejudice C. failure D. blame
58. A. clarified B. repeated C. decided D. promised
59. A. hurt B. scare C. limit D. transform
60. A. explanation B. departure C. misfortune D. ambition
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
Neighbors can make or break your experience of living in an area. Being a good neighbor helps us build solid and long- lasting relationships. Neighbors are like 61 ( umbrella) on a rainy day, 62 ( lend)a helping hand in times of emergency.
About twenty years ago, people 63 ( tend) to participate in lots of activities together with their neighbors. Nowadays, with busy schedules and technological advancements, we never really care much about or show interest in the family next door. This is 64 people live next to each other for years and still aren't familiar.
National Good Neighbor Day was first celebrated in 65 early 1970s by Becky Mattson, 66 wanted to connect with her neighbors in Montana. It 67 ( official) became a holiday in 1978, when President Jimmy Carter signed an act to set up the holiday. A resolution was passed by the Senate, as it was recognized that there was little meaningful 68 ( communicate) among people and there was a need to bring them together for them to communicate with each other. Thus, a fixed date 69 ( set) for Good Neighbor Day. Now, we celebrate National Good Neighbor Day on September 28, sparing special time 70 (care)for our neighbors and form or keep friendships.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(^)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意： 1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Last month, our family took trip to Hong Kong. When we reach Hong Kong International Airport at night, we took a taxi to the hotel we had been booked online. The next morning we went on a city tour. Then they had lunch in an Indian restaurant. Afterwards we went to Disneyland, in what I saw Snow White, Mickey, Donald Duck and many other characters. And I was lucky enough to taking photographs with all of them. We played with water or watched a Mickey Mouse 3D show as well. In the evening we watched a wonderfully fireworks show near one of the castle there.
On a word, I will never forget this trip in my life.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华，你班交换生Felix因进行体育锻炼时扭伤左脚而无法走路。请你就此事给他写一封电子邮件，内容包括：
1.表示安慰；
2.主动提供帮助；
3.提出关于锻炼的建议。
注意:1.词数100左右;
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
焦作市普通高中2022—2023学年(下)高二年级期中考试
英语·答案
听力原文
Text 1
W: We're moving so slowly. The streets are really crowded. Is there any way around the traffic?
M: We can try another route. I promise you won't miss your flight, madam.
Text 2
W: Excuse me, sir, but I need to leave early today.
M: What seems to be the problem?
W: I'm not feeling well. I have to go home and take some medicine. I'll be back in time for class tomorrow.
Text 3
W: Wow, you've bought a pair of new shoes. How much are they?
M: They are on sale for just $80.
W: Do they help you run faster?
M: No, but my feet don't hurt any more.
Text 4
W: My brother smokes three packs of cigarettes a day.
M: How can he do that?
W: When he is almost finished with one cigarette, he uses it to light another. He's been a chain smoker since he started smoking 30 years ago.
Text5
M: Good morning, Anne. Get in. I'll take you for a drive.
W: Wonderful. Would you please drive me to the beach?
M: No problem.
Text 6
W: What's wrong with you, Tom?
M: I've been coughing very badly recently and I feel pain in the chest.
W: I've told you to quit smoking for a thousand times. But you never listen.
M: Come on, it's easier said than done. I've tried a few times but always failed.
W: Why not try chewing gum instead?
M: OK, I'll try it, for the last time.
Text 7
M: That was a cool exhibition.
W: I knew you would like it! I believe it will help us with our school cloth project. I've got lots of ideas now.
M: I was really interested in the designer wear section. It was totally special.
W: Yes, it would be great to wear something so special. But what impressed me most was the part that showed us how to recycle clothes.
M: Yeah, but I couldn't see myself wearing any of my dad's old things just now! I didn't expect the show to be so interesting.
W: I enjoyed seeing the live models, though I'm not sure whether it lived up to my expectations.
Text 8
M: Please allow me to introduce myself. My name is Jim Green.
W: Pleased to meet you. My name is Mary Smith. Did you just move in next door?
M: Yes, I did. I moved in the day before yesterday. Have you lived here long?
W: Me? I guess so. I've lived here for about 6 years now. Have you lived in America very long?
M: No. Not really. When I left Vietnam and came to America I lived with my cousin in Dallas for 2 years. Where do you work , Mary?
W: I teach mathematics at Willow Springs College. What do you do?
M: I am a mechanic at Allied Diesel. I repair truck engines. And my wife works as an assistant nurse at Whitfield County Hospital.
W: Well, Jim, it was good to meet you. But I have to go now. I have a class this evening and need to get to the college in 30 minutes.
M: It was good to meet you, too, Mary.
W: See you!
M: Goodbye, Mary!
Text 9
W:Good morning, Mr. Evans. Did you have a nice weekend?
M: Not really. My wife and my daughter were arguing the whole weekend about God knows what, and my son came down with the flu, so we had to miss a really important football game that I had gotten tickets to.
W: Oh, that's too bad. Is your son feeling any better now?
M: A little bit. He’ll be fine in a few days. So, what’s on the agenda for today?
W: You've got a 10:00 am meeting about the Peterson account. And you're having lunch with Valerie Dumonde. She wanted to talk to you before she leaves for Paris this evening.
M: Right. What time is the reservation?
W: 12:30. The car will pick you up downstairs at noon and take you over to her office. It shouldn't take more than ten minutes to get there, and another five from her office to Charmaine’s. You still have plenty of time.
M: All right. What about the afternoon?
W: Well, so far, it looks like you just have the regular 3:00 pm managers’ meeting and some emails to respond to.
M: That's a relief. Maybe I'll even make it out of here on time today!
W: Well, that would be a first, Mr. Evans, but I'll keep my fingers crossed!
Text 10
W: Playing games helps children learn important social skills like taking turns. They also learn how to be a good winner or loser. Games also prepare children for school by helping them to learn colors and shapes and to count and read. As they grow older, children play more important games. These games help them reason better and develop their thinking skills. Playing cards helps teens gain self-confidence and build relationships with kids of their own age. Playing sports games develops their bodies and teaches fair play and team spirits.
Adults enjoy playing games to clear their minds and relax themselves. Both the social communication and the laughter that accompany playing games help to lower stress. When the elderly play games, their minds stay healthier and their memory improves.
Parents who play games with their kids build better relationships with them. Parents can also see how their children think and behave. It helps them get to know their children.
Whether you are young or old, playing games makes you smarter and adds fun to your life.
(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
1—5CBACA 6—10 ABCBC 11—15 ACABC 16—20 CCBBA
(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
21—25 CBDDA 26—30 CBBDB 31—35 CDADA 36—40 BEGCD
(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
41—45 DACAD 46—50 CBBAC 51—55 BDDCB 56—60 AACAB (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
61. umbrellas 62. lending 63. tended 64. why 65. the
66. who 67. officially 68. communication 69. was set 70. to care
短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
Last month, our family took ∧trip to Hong Kong. When we reach Hong Kong International Airport at night,
a reached
we took a taxi to the hotel we had been booked online. The next morning we went on a city tour. Then they had lunch in an
we
Indian restaurant. Afterwards we went to Disneyland, in what I saw Snow White, Mickey, Donald Duck and many other
which
characters. And I was lucky enough to taking photographs with all of them. We played with water or watched a
take and
Mickey Mouse 3D show as well. In the evening we watched a wonderfully fireworks show
wonderful
near one of the castle there.
castles
On a word, I will never forget this trip in my life.
In
书面表达(满分25分)
One possible version:
Dear Felix,
I'm terribly sorry to hear that your left ankle was so badly twisted during your workout yesterday that you couldn't even walk. But don't worry about missing classes during the next few days. Every morning I ’ll go and pick you up at about 7:00. Then I’ll take you to school by e-bike. When school is over, I’ll send you back again.
To prevent such accidents from happening again, you can never be too careful when you're working out. Additionally, do keep in mind that you must always do warm-up exercises before workout. That way you can greatly reduce the possibilities of getting hurt.
I hope that you'll soon get well again!
Yours,
Li Hua
作文评分标准
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数少于80和多于120的，从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如因书写较差而影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
7.内容要点可用不同方式表达，对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
【各档次的给分范围和要求】
第五档(很好):(21—25分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好):(16—20分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(适当):(11—15分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(较差):(6—10分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(差):(1—5分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分:(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。