四川省大数据精准教学联盟 2020 级高三第一次统一监测 英语试卷 (pdf+word+听力材料+答案)
展开注意事项:
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3.考试结束后由监考老师将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:Hw much is the shirt?
A. £19. 15. B. £9. 18. C. £9. 15.
答案是 C。
1. Where is the wman frm?
A. Russia. B. America. C. France.
2. When des the bus leave n Saturday?
A. 6:30 a.m.. B. 9:00 a.m.. C. 7:00 a.m..
3. What’s the pssible relatinship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Clleagues. C. Brther and sister.
4. What can we knw abut the by?
A. He ran a fever. B. He felt quite well. C.He began t cugh this mrning.
5. Why is the man late?
A. The trains were delayed.
B. He culdn’t find a bus stp.
C. His friend’s mtrbike didn’t wrk.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. When did the man learn a little Chinese?
A. When he went t China.
B. When he was in cllege.
C. When he was in a kindergarten.
7. What trubles the man mst in learning Chinese?
A. Grammar and vcabulary. B. Idims and culture. C. Tnes and characters.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. What des the man think f New Green?
A. It is clsed. B. It is a little small. C. It is cld.
9. Where will the students pssibly g?
A. Oceanside. B. Hney Huse.C. Big Dave.
10. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. Selecting a restaurant.
B. Having a birthday party.
C. Chsing sme delicius fd.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Hw ften is an activity held in the club?
A. Once a mnth. B. Once a week. C. Every ther week.
12. What des the wman usually d after reading a bk?
A. Put ff a meeting.
B. Recmmend it t thers.
C. Share thughts with thers.
13. What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
A. The bks they are ging t read.
B. A bk club the wman recmmends.
C. The meeting the wman will attend.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. Where did the wman ften park her car?
A. In her garage. B. In the parking lt. C. Near her neighbrhd.
15. Which f the fllwing is nt mentined in the cnversatin?
A. Her living address. B. Her friend’s name. C. Her telephne number.
16. Why des the wman knw the city well?
A. She is a Chinese citizen.
B. She wrks in a Chinese cmpany.
C. She has been wrking there fr twenty years.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. What sprt did the speaker cach?
A. Gymnastics. B. Running. C. Swimming.
18. What des the speaker think f herself in 1990?
A. Easy-ging. B. Unfriendly. C. Generus.
19. Hw can mtivatin be prmted accrding t the speaker?
A. By praise. B. By teamwrk. C. By trust.
20. What des the speaker try t express in the talk?
A. Prcess f winning is mre imprtant than the result.
B. We need t win at all csts.
C. Winning always equals success.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Chicag has all the fferings yu wuld expect frm a majr city. If yu plan t spend a wnderful time here, just see the fllwings:
Museum f Science and Industry
5700 S. Lake Shre Drive
Price: $21 fr adults; $12 fr kids 3-17
Chicag’s Museum f Science and Industry shws mre than 35,000 artifacts and a variety f hands-n exhibits. Displays here cater t all types f curius minds: feel the physics f a trnad in “Science Strms” and see baby chicks at the Genetics, etc.
Art Institute f Chicag
111 S. Michigan Ave
Price: $25 fr adults; $19 fr kids 3-17
Hme t ne f the cuntry’s mst impressive cllectins f impressinist art, the Art Institute f Chicag features nearly 300,000 wrks frm all ver the wrld in its cllectin. Highlights include pieces frm famus artists like Van Ggh and Mnet.
Skydeck Chicag at the Willis Twer
233 S. Wacker Drive
Price: $30 fr adults; $22 fr kids 3-17
On the 103rd flr f the 110-stry Willis Twer, the third-tallest building in Nrth America, Skydeck Chicag is famus fr breathtaking views f the city. Visit n a sunny day and yu may be able t see 4 states.
Navy Pier
600 E. Grand Ave
Price: Free
Navy Pier ffers a family-friendly entertainment. Kids enjy their rides n a drp twer while grwn-ups catch a shw at the Chicag Shakespeare Theater r grab a drink at the Navy Pier Beer Garden. Beautiful firewrks displays light up the skies n Wednesday and Saturday nights.
21. Where can impressinist art fans g t appreciate wrks?
A. 5700 S. Lake Shre Drive. B. 111 S. Michigan Ave.
C. 233 S. Wacker Drive. D. 600 E. Grand Ave.
22. Hw much will a cuple with a child aged 6 pay if they enjy a bird view f Chicag?
A. $60. B. $64. C. $69. D. $82.
23. What can peple d at Navy Pier?
A. Enjy a beer. B. Make firewrks.
C. Observe baby chicks. D. Discver secrets f trnades.
B
I’m a 22-year-ld yung man and came t China 4 mnths ag fr the same reasns mst peple f my age d. They want t see the wrld and expand their minds. T explre mre abut China, I am currently teaching English in Guangdng.
China hasn’t been the expected. Befre I came, I was unaware f the level f nging develpment within the cuntry. High-rise buildings, flat screen televisins, well-equipped fund myself pleasantly surprised. Like ther freigners, I saw the funny side f the language barrier and tasted the chicken feet. I gave in t the flw f Chinese culture and haven’t lked back since, but it wasn’t until tday that I realized hw naturally similar it is t my wn.
When the Chinese take a phtgraph, they wn’t say “Cheese!” like we d back hme in the U.K.. Instead, they say the wrd “Eggplant! (茄子).” Amused at first, I suddenly realized that I had n reasn t be critical. Cheese? Eggplant? Any difference?
China is hme t ne f the ldest and greatest cultures in the wrld. It is in this cuntry that I have witnessed sme f the mst beautiful scenes that the human race can ffer. We all share a way f life, n matter where we’re frm r where we g. It’s my cnclusin that thugh we shut randm fds at a camera, at least, we’re all shuting wrds frm the same categry. Hw different can we really be?
S, instead f grasping nt yur wn culture, take a break and allw the culture f anther cuntry t embrace yu. Yu may be surprised at the amunt f similarities yu find, just as I was this afternn in sunny, suthern China.
24. Why did the writer cme t China?
A. T cpy thers. B. T make a living.
C. T learn Chinese. D. T satisfy his curisity.
25. What makes a pleasant surprise fr the writer in China?
A. The rich culture.
B. The way f taking phts.
C. The unexpected mdern life.
D. The funny scenes in cmmunicatin.
26. What lessn did the writer learn thrugh his experience in China?
A. When in Rme, d as Rmans d.
B. Peple shuld all shut “Cheese” at a camera.
C. Peple f different cultures share sme similarities.
D. The mre yu travel, the mre yu appreciate hme.
27. Which can be a suitable title fr the text?
A. English r Chinese?B. Cheese and Eggplants.
C. The Imprtance f Travel. D. The Lng Culture f China.
C
A team f researchers at Jhannes Kepler University has fund that the skin f a certain kind f mushrm can be used as a bidegradable (可生物降解的) base fr cmputer chips. In their paper published in the jurnal Science Advances, the grup describes hw well it wrked and hw easily it culd be cleanly gt rid f after the chip was n lnger useful.
Mst chips used t make electrnic devices are set n a base f plastic. Hwever, unfrtunately, the type f plastic used isn’t at all recyclable, which means mst cmputer chips end up in landfills (垃圾填埋场) arund the wrld. Previus research has suggested that this leads t 100 millin tns f electrnic waste added t landfills each year.
After searching fr plenty f alternatives, the team in Austria came acrss Ganderma lucidum, a type f mushrm that grws n dead hardwd trees. They nted that it grws a skin t cver its rt-like part.
After remving sme f the skin frm several samples, the researchers fund that it was flexible and was able t stand high temperatures. They als nted that if kept away frm light and wetness, the skin wuld last a lng time. On the ther hand, if it were expsed t such cnditins intentinally, it wuld quickly decmpse. These are all features that the team thught wuld make fr a very gd chip base.
The team develped a means fr placing metal electrnic cmpnents nt the skin. Testing f the result shwed that the skin wrked nearly as well as the traditinal plastic base and that it culd remain undamaged after being bent repeatedly. They als fund the skin culd be used t make battery cmpnents. Mre wrk is required t ensure that the skin wrks as hped in an industrial setting. Als, a clean prcess fr remving the skin frm the chips still needs t be fund.
28. What d we learn abut mst cmputer chips?
A. They end up as electrnic waste. B. They are made f plastic.
C. They are easily wrn ut. D. They can be cmpletely recycled.
29. What is the furth paragraph mainly abut?
A. Hw researchers carried ut tests.
B. What a gd chip base was like.
C. Why researchers tested n mushrm skin.
D. What qualities were fund abut mushrm skin.
30. What fllw-up research might researchers d?
A. The skin’s ptential in the same setting.
B. The skin’s perfrmance as battery cmpnents.
C. A cnvenient way t put electrnics n the skin.
D. A clean prcess t get the skin away frm chips.
31. What’s the writing purpse f the text?
A. T reprt a new discvery f mushrms.
B. T picture the future f cmputer chips.
C. T shw the features f mushrms.
D. T call fr nature-friendly cmputer chips.
D
Califrnia start-up OpenAI has released a chatbt (chat rbt) able t answer a variety f questins, but its impressive perfrmance has repened the debate n the risks linked t AI technlgies.
Psted n Twitter by fascinated users, the cnversatins with the chatbt called ChatGPT shw a kind f mniscient (无所不知的) machine, frm explaining scientific cncepts t writing scenes fr a play, university essays r even functinal lines f cmputer cde.
“Its answer t the questin ‘what t d if smene has a heart attack’ was incredibly clear and relevant,” Claude de Lupy, an expert in autmatic text generatin tld AFP. “When yu start asking very specific questins, ChatGPT’s respnse can be ff the mark, but its verall perfrmance remains ‘really impressive’ with a ‘high level.’” he said.
A few years ag, chatbts had the vcabulary f a dictinary and the memry f a gldfish. Nw Chatbts are getting much better at the “histry prblem” where they act in a manner cnsistent with the histry f respnses. The chatbts have graduated frm gldfish status.
Hwever, like ther prgrams relying n deep learning, ChatGPT has ne majr weakness: it desn’t have access t meaning. The sftware cannt justify its chices, such as explaining why it picked the wrds that make up its respnses.
AI technlgies able t cmmunicate are increasingly wrrying sme bservers. They vice cncern that these technlgies culd be misused t trick peple. What des ChatGPT think f the risk? “There are ptential dangers in building highly cmplex chatbts, particularly if they are designed t be indistinguishable frm humans in their language and behavir.” the chatbt said.
OpenAI CEO Sam Altman shared his ideas n the debates surrunding AI. “Interesting watching peple start t debate whether pwerful AI systems shuld behave in the way users want r their creatrs intend,” he wrte, “The questin f whse values we adjust these systems t will be ne f the mst imprtant debates sciety ever has.”
32. Hw des paragraph 2 shw ChatGPT’s wnderful perfrmance?
A. By using figures. B. By listing examples.
C. By giving definitins. D. By making cmparisns.
33. What des the underlined phrase “ff the mark” in paragraph 3 prbably mean?
A. Creative. B. Inaccurate. C. Immediate. D. Objective.
34. What is the majr prblem with ChatGPT?
A. It has pr memry. B. It has limited vcabularies.
C. It fails t accunt fr its chices. D. It lacks pwer t stick t its respnses.
35. Which statement is Sam Altman mst likely t agree with?
A. The value that AI fllws remains t be discussed.
B. Advanced AI shuld g after creatrs’ intentin.
C. The functin f AI relies entirely n users.
D. Debates n the applicatin f AI are unnecessary.
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2 分,满分10 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It has been prved that self-care helps peple lwer stress and get healthier. And anther interesting finding has been revealed recently. 36 As a typical frm f caring abut thers, vlunteering has been prved t be beneficial t us in the fllwing ways.
Vlunteering makes us happier.
Thrughut histry, cperatin and cmmunity have been essential parts f human survival. One reasn we feel s rewarded when helping thers is that the happiness f thse arund us has taken rt in ur survival instinct. Accrding t ne study, peple wh vlunteered at least nce a mnth reprted better mental health than thse wh didn’t. 37
Vlunteering increases ur sense f purpse.
Typically, the act f vlunteering invlves taking actin and engaging with thers. These are tw mental health needs shared by mst humans, especially peple feeling aimless and discnnected. 38 As a result, they can have clearer gals in their wn life and increase the sense f respnsibility.
Vlunteering helps manage depressin.
39 That’s because taking psitive actin helps t change the negative thughts — whether by interacting with ther peple r realizing yu have useful skills t share with the wrld. Based n that, sme researchers even suggest including vlunteering as an apprach t treating depressin.
40
Sme researchers have discvered a link between vlunteering and a lwer risk f early death. This effect cmes in part frm hw vlunteering can reduce stress and depressin, which in turn prmtes life span, imprved physical health, and better management f chrnic (慢性的) diseases.
A. Vlunteering cures many diseases.
B. Vlunteering impacts ur physical health.
C. Caring attentin twards thers als imprves ur health.
D. Vlunteering als helps reduce sadness r hpelessness.
E. Peple wh always hld a psitive attitude is unlikely t get depressed.
F. Sme even said vlunteering made them as happy as having an extra $1,100.
G. When vlunteering, peple learn new skills and develp mre scial cnnectins.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分 45 分)
第一节(共 20 小题:每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Ida Nelsn was ging t sleep when she heard the nise f a small airplane circling the nearby airprt. It was already 11:30 p.m. in a small village f Alaska, and, as she tld a lcal newspaper, “When a plane flies ver that 41 , yu knw there is smething 42 .”
Nelsn rushed t the windw and saw the 43 : The airprt’s runway lights were ut. She pulled n sme clthes, 44 int her ATV (全地形车) , and drve it t the airprt, where she fund a lcal pilt trying t 45 the lights with his hands.
“ 46 , if yu push the buttn 10 r 15 times, the lights will just light up,” Nelsn said. But nt this time. Meanwhile, she 47 the plane was a medevac (医疗直升机) which had a(n) 48 missin — t transprt a seriusly ill lcal girl t the nearest 49 280 miles away.
Nelsn had a 50 . Driving her ATV t the end f the runway, she shne her headlights fr the plane t 51 . Great idea, but it wasn’t 52 . Mre light was needed, s a neighbr 53 nearly every hme in the village.
Within 20 minutes, 20 vehicles arrived, many f the drivers still in 54 . Fllwing the pilt’ 55 , the cars lined up n ne side f the runway. 56 by the headlights, the plane finally landed safely. The yung 57 was laded nt the aircraft, and the plane 58 tk ff again.
In a wrld filled with uncertainty, the little cmmunity’s 59 actin was a big deal. Hwever, fr Nelsn, as she said, cming tgether “is just kind f a 60 deal.”
41. A. late B. lw C. slwly D. smthly
42. A. wrng B. mysterius C. unrecgnizableD. impressive
43. A. influence B. cnsequence C. factr D. prblem
44. A. lked B. jumped C. brke D. ran
45. A. put up B. lk fr C. turn n D. hld nt
46. A. Usually B. Frtunately C. Particularly D. Obviusly
47. A. remembered B. admitted C. learned D. annunced
48. A. fixed B. urgent C. imprper D. last
49. A. schl B. village C. hspital D. airprt
50. A. target B. cmment C. desire D. plan
51. A. run B. circle C. climb D. fllw
52. A. apprpriate B. legal C. sufficient D. imprtant
53. A. warned B. reminded C. cmfrted D. called
54. A. nightclthes B. raincats C. unifrms D. cstumes
55. A. preparatins B. directins C. predictins D. regulatins
56. A. Guided B. Frced C. Cntrlled D. Pwered
57. A. pilt B. patient C. neighbr D. driver
58. A. quietly B. suddenly C. immediately D. cnstantly
59. A. strange B. psitive C. lyal D. exciting
60. A. fair B. great C. tugh D. nrmal
第二节(共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In recent years, with the prmtin f green cities, many cities in China have been building urban greenways accrding t 61 (they) wn lcal cnditins. Up t nw, China 62 (build) mre than 80,000 kilmetres urban greenways.
In Chengdu, the sights and scenes are cnnected by a 100-kilmetre-lng greenway. Peple’s 63 (cycle) alng the greenway has becme a ppular activity. Yu can nt nly enjy the beautiful views f 78 bridges, 64 yu can als travel thrugh 121 eclgical parks such as the Qinglng Lake. The Panda Internatinal Turism Resrt (旅游胜地) , 65 huses 40 pandas, is als alng the rad.
1,000 kilmetres away frm Chengdu, there is als a greenway f the same 66 (lng) in Wuhan. It’s the East Lake Greenway. With winding rads 67 (cnnect) the varius islands, it links mre than 100 scenic spts. Yu can visit the different natural sights as well as the 68 (culture) attractins left by ancient Chinese pets.
1,000 kilmetres suth f Wuhan, a castal greenway sits n the bay area f Shenzhen. This greenway lks like a winding ribbn (丝带) linking the city 69 the frests and the sea. Every winter, thusands f birds travel t the mangrve frest ( 红树林 ) here. And the greenway prvides 70 (extreme) gd spts t bserve these birds.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 35 分)
第一节 短文改错(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改同桌写的以下作文。文中共有 10 处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改 10 处,多者(从第 11 处起)不计分。
Early this mrning, I was riding my bike t my schl while suddenly it hit a parked car. Frightening and guilty, I saw a scratch (划痕) n the car. At first, I thught abut run away. But when I remembered the quality f hnesty taught by my parents, I decided t d nthing better. Hwever, I wrte a nte with my aplgy and persnal infrmatins. Then I placed it n the windw f the car and leave fr my schl. Surprising, in the afternn the wner came t praise fr me in frnt f my classmates. What unfrgettable day!
第二节 书面表达(满分 25 分)
假定你是李华。学校上周五在东湖公园组织了一次 Plgging(跑步捡垃圾)志愿活动。请你写一则短文向学校英语报投稿,简单介绍此次活动。内容包括:
1.活动目的;
2.活动过程;
3.你的收获。
注意:
1.词数 100 左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
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