四川省内江市威远中学校2022-2023学年高三上学期第一次阶段性考试英语试题（含答案）

这是一份四川省内江市威远中学校2022-2023学年高三上学期第一次阶段性考试英语试题（含答案），共13页。

四川省威远中学校2023届第五学期第一阶段试题
英 语
注意事项: 1. 本试卷分第I卷(选择题)和第II卷(非选择题)两部分；
2. 答题前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡相应的位置；
3. 全部答案在答题卡上完成, 答在本试卷上无效。

第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从试题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who speaks Spanish the fastest?
A. Sally. B. Ryan. C. Howard.
2. Where is the man’s son studying?
A. In Vancouver. B. In New York. C. In Seattle.
3. What is the woman doing?
A. Shopping for clothes. B. Coloring a painting. C. Hanging a mirror.
4. How will the woman probably go to the airport?
A. By taxi. B. By bus. C. By subway.
5. What does the woman want to know about New Scientist?
A. Whether it is interesting. B. Whether it is hard to follow. C. Whether it is issued every week.
第二节 (共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独自。每段对话或独自后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独自读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man want to do now?
A. Go to sleep. B. Take a hot bath. C. Have his room cleaned.
7. At what time will the woman clean the room tomorrow?
A. 7:30 am. B. 8:00 am. C. 8:30 am.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What industry is the boy interested in?
A. Food. B. Skateboarding. C. Clothes.
9. What does the woman ask the boy to do first?
A. Make his own T-shirts. B. Write a business plan. C. Talk with his father.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Why do most pubs have signs hanging outside?
A. To help travelers find them easily.
B. To attract more customers to come in.
C. To make the pubs look more beautiful.
11. What’s special about the man’s pub?
A. It offers free drinks. B. It sells a variety of beers. C. It produces its own beer.
12. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a wine company. B. In a pub. C. In a talk show.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is Gregorio?
A. A snake trainer. B. A snake doctor. C. A snake catcher.
14. What color jacket does Gregorio wear?
A. Purple. B. Green. C. Yellow.
15. In what sport did Georgina become world champion?
A. Tennis. B. Arm wrestling. C. Yo-Yo.
16. Where is Brian Melford sitting?
A. Next to the fireplace. B. By the window. C. At the table.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. When were the Beatles formed?
A. In 1956. B. In 1962. C. In 1968.
18. What kind of music did the Beatles play?
A. Jazz. B. Indian. C. Pop.
19. Who was the drummer of the group?
A. George Harrison. B. Ringo Starr. C. John Lennon.
20. What is the word “Beatlemania” used to describe?
A. The fans. B. The movies. C. The fashion.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2分, 满分30分)
阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中, 选出最佳选项。
A
Point your cameras toward the sky as February’s full moon, nicknamed the snow moon, will make its appearance from midnight Tuesday to midnight Thursday, according to NASA.
The snow moon will be at its brightest on February 16 at 11:57 a.m. American East Time, but the best time to view it will be after sunset. As a bonus, the moon will be above the east-northeastern horizon on Wednesday evening, which will place it near Regulus, a bright star.
February’s full moon will be generally visible in areas around the world that do not have dense cloud coverage. It will be below the horizon at the South Pole, though, and therefore not viewable from that area.
A large storm system forecast for the central and eastern United States is expected to bring cloud cover, making moon-gazing difficult Wednesday night into Thursday morning, especially for anyone east of the Rockies, according to CNN Meteorologist Haley Brink.
The best places in the US to view the full moon will be portions of the Southwest and California, where clearer skies are expected.
There are 10 full moons left in 2022, with two of them qualifying as super moons. Here is a list of the remaining moons for 2022, according to the Farmers’ Almanac:
• March 18: Worm moon • April 16: Pink moon
• May 16: Flower moon • June 14: Strawberry moon
• July 13: Buck moon • August 11: Sturgeon moon
• September 10: Harvest moon • October 9: Hunter’s moon
• November 8: Beaver moon • December 7: Cold moon
While these are the popularized names associated with the monthly full moons, the significance of each one may vary across Native American tribes.
21. Where can people watch the snow moon most suitably this year?
A. At the South Pole. B. In the east of Rockies.
C. In the Central United States. D. In the Southwest of United States.
22. Which day is available for appreciating the Harvest moon?
A. April 16. B. September 10. C. October 9. D. December 7.
23. Who are most interested in the passage?
A. Space amateurs. B. Tourism lovers. C. Fashion seekers. D. Sports enthusiasts.
B
In 2020, people around the world were impressed by the chess genius Beth Harmon in The Queen’s Gambit. However, there’s a similar “queen of chess” in real life – 28-year-old Hou Yifan.
Hou started playing chess at 5 years old in 1999. At that time, her parents took Hou to try different brain games at a training center. “With the interesting shapes, I was attracted by the chess and decided to take it up,” said Hou.
After playing for two years as a hobby, Hou met her coach – grandmaster Tong Yuanming – and took up professional training.
“Chess is a mind game full of uncertainties. Even when there are only five or six pieces left on the board, you cannot calculate all the variations,” said Hou. “So instead of too much focus on theories, we should rely more on practice and strategy.”
Learning strategies from previous competitions and practicing chess quickly became her daily life.
Luckily, her efforts were soon rewarded. At 13, she became China’s youngest ever National Women's Champion and then became the youngest chess champion in the world at 16.
Although a famous chess star known all over the globe, Hou always stayed vigilant. “I'm happy to win these titles, but I know this is a coin with two sides,” Hou added. “As you gain public attention, your faults are amplified (放大). So I should shrug (抛开) the honors off and stay motivated to keep improving.”
Having focused on international chess for a long time, Hou then decided to study in the college. In 2012, she studied international relations at Peking University and then went to the University of Oxford.
“I have to know more,” she said. “I have to open my eyes to see the whole world.”
Now, the 28-year-old has become a teacher at Shenzhen University. She wants to “integrate the methods she learned in China and the West and allow international chess to reach more young Chinese people”.
24. What inspired Hou to take up international chess?
A. Her parents’ encouragement. B. The appearance of the pieces.
C. Her desire to test her brain. D. Her admiration for Tong Yuanming.
25. What do we know about Hou from paragraphs 4-6?
A. She learned different theories to enhance her skills.
B. She managed to develop an original set of strategies.
C. She became a world chess champion at 16.
D. She enjoyed calculating the various plays.
26. What does the underlined word “vigilant” most probably mean in paragraph 7?
A. Reserved. B. Diligent. C. Ambitious. D. Alert.
27. What can we learn from Hou’s story?
A. It is essential to dream big. B. Learning is a never-ending process.
C. It’s important to set long-term goals. D. Success doesn’t happen without failure.
C
Away from the bright lights of the city, if you look up at the night sky you will see an ocean of bright stars. But in the bright buildings we humans have built ourselves, it’s a different story.
This year, Earth Hour was observed on March 26. The annual tradition, started by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) in 2007 in Sydney, Australia, was created to raise awareness for climate change. Those celebrating turn off all their electrical appliances for one hour. It also draws attention to another serious problem that the world is currently facing – the threat of light pollution.
Light pollution happens when too much man-made light harms nature. Scientists have found that it is especially harmful to nocturnal (夜间的) animals. These creatures rely on the natural light cycle provided by the movement of the sun to help coordinate their sleep cycles. When this is disturbed by constant bright lights from man-made structures, it can seriously cause the animals to lose their direction and harm their physical health. “Wildlife species have evolved on this planet with biological rhythms – changing that has profound effects,” said Travis Longcore, a bio-geographer with the Urban Wildlands Group in Los Angeles, US. A lack of darkness at night can also cause difficulties for animals in other ways.
Newly hatched baby sea turtles rely on the brighter horizon over the ocean to guide them from the beach to the sea. However, with artificial lights next to the oceans, the small animals are easily led away from the right path. “Hatchlings are attracted to lights and crawl inland, or crawl aimlessly down the beach, sometimes until dawn, when predators (天敌) or birds get them,” said Michael Salmon, a biologist at Florida Atlantic University in Boca Raton, Florida.
Artificial light has caused a terrible change to the natural environment of animals, research scientist Christopher Kyba told the International Dark-Sky Association. “Predators use light to hunt, and prey (猎物) species use darkness as cover,” Kyba explained. If a predator has such an extra advantage in hunting its prey, this can lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem as the hunted species are no longer able to maintain their population when they become over-hunted.
28. Why was Earth Hour created?
A. To raise awareness of air pollution.
B. To call on people to get closer to nature.
C. To draw public attention to environmental issues.
D. To reconsider the necessity of electrical appliances.
29. How does light pollution affect nocturnal animals?
A. It slows their evolution. B. It changes their sleep cycles.
C. It lessens their dependence on the sun. D. It reduces their difficulties caused by darkness.
30. What trouble does artificial lighting cause baby sea turtles?
A. It can prevent them from reaching the ocean. B. It can affect their biological rhythms.
C. It makes them lose their way to the beach. D. It exposes them to predators in the sea.
31. What is the last paragraph mainly about?
A. The controversy over artificial lights. B. Animals that benefit from artificial lights.
C. The impact of artificial lights on ecosystems. D. The dangers of an imbalance in the ecosystem.
D
InMelbourneliesan87-square-meter,three-story,two-bedroomand one-bathroom house. That may sound like a real property advertisement, but it could be the home of the future.
Made from organic materials and run on sustainable (可持续的) energy, the building, known as “The Greenhouse”, is completely zero waste. It was designed by zero waste advocate Bakker, as part of his Future Food System housing experiment. “The greenhouse is inspired by nature — it’s an ecosystem where nothing is wasted,” Bakker says.
Organic waste is fed into a bio-digester where it ferments (发酵) and turns into gas for cooking or fertilizer for produce; rainwater is harvested and used for irrigation and a specific system, where plants grow using waste from fish; and hot steam from the shower enables a wall of mushrooms to boost. The house is designed, says Bakker, with the roof as the foundation, loaded with 35 tons of soil, which provides fertile (肥沃的) ground for produce — more than 200 plant species grow on the roof, as well as insects, snails, fish and chickens.
The site is more than just a model home; it’s been a real one for Jo Barrett and Matt Stone, who were chefs at the small in-house restaurant. “To be able to grow and produce food on a tiny footprint in the city and turn it into exciting dishes is completely unique,” says Stone.
Through the project, Bakker wanted to demonstrate he could feed a family with his design. “I think we’ve proved that it’s actually more productive than I imagined,” he says. “We’ve harvested 35 kilos of potatoes from a square meter.”
He hopes the example will offer a blueprint to future homes and an alternative to current food system, which is to blame for over a third of the world’s greenhouse gas emissions. Creating a circular system could also greatly reduce food waste.
“We’re the only species that generates waste. In nature, there is no waste; everything becomes a food source for something else,” says Bakker. “If we transform to a circular system, we have so much potential to stop the destruction of wilderness and forest.”
32. What does paragraph 3 focus on?
A. The future of the greenhouse building. B. The way the greenhouse building works.
C. The advantages of the greenhouse building. D. The reason for designing the greenhouse building.
33. What do we learn about the greenhouse home?
A. It can provide a good supply of produce. B. It is a perfect habitat for all insects.
C. It is possessed by the designer Bakker. D. Plant growing is free of soil in the house.
34. Why are the chefs mentioned in paragraph 4?
A. To introduce the concept of the house. B. To inform people of the latest restaurant.
C. To show the future modern home. D. To indicate the advantage of the house.
35. What can be inferred according to Bakker?
A. People have to explore nature more. B. Human relies heavily on the environment.
C. The greenhouse is a way to reduce waste. D. The greenhouse helps reduce reliance on nature.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分, 满分10分)
根据短文内容, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中两项为多余选项。
A great deal of evidence suggests that it is more difficult to learn a new language as an adult than as a child, which has led scientists to propose that there is a “critical period” for language learning. 36 . A new study performed at MIT by Joshua Hartshorne, an assistant professor of psychology at Boston College suggests that children remain very skilled at learning the grammar of a new language much longer than expected — up to the age of 17 or 18. But it is nearly impossible for people to have native-like knowledge unless they start learning a language by the age of 10. 37 . But they started seeing a decline after that.
38 . But since they have a shorter window before their learning ability declines, they do not achieve the proficiency (精通) of native speakers, the researchers found. 39 . This is by far the largest data that anyone has collected for a study of language-learning ability.
“It’s been very difficult until now to get all the data you would need to answer this question of how long the critical period lasts,” says Josh Tenenbaum, an MIT professor of brain and cognitive (认知的) sciences and an author of the paper. “ 40 . We could work on a question that is very old, that many smart people have thought about and written about, and take a new perspective and see something that maybe other people haven’t.”
A. New studies have figured out its length and causes
B. People might be too busy to learn a language later in life
C. The research is one of those rare opportunities in science
D. However, the length of this period and its primary causes remain unknown
E. People who start learning a language between 10 and 18 will still learn quickly
F. Researchers didn’t see much difference between those starting at birth and at 10
G. The findings are based on results from a grammar quiz taken by nearly 670,000 people
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节, 满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分；满分30分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中, 选出可以填人空白处的最佳选项。
Last spring, I was fortunate to be chosen to participate in an exchange study program. In my application letter, I was careful to 41 how much I wanted to see France; evidently, my excitement really came through in my words. Once I 42 that I was going, all I could think about was the fun of foreign travel and making all sorts of new and 43 friends. While traveling was inspiring and meeting people was 44 , nothing about my term in France was what I 45 .
The moment I arrived in Paris, I was 46 by a nice French couple who would become my host parents. My entire experience was joyous and exciting 47 I received some shocking news from my program coordinator (协调人): there had been a death in my host parents extended family. They had to travel outside France for several weeks. That afternoon, I had to 48 out of one family's house and into another. The exchange coordinator told me I'd have a 49 this time and asked whether I could share a bedroom with an English speaker. To avoid the temptation to 50 my native language, I asked not to be  51  with an English-speaking roommate. When I got to my new room, I 52 myself to my new roommate Paolo, a Brazilian the same age as I whom I was surprised to find playing one of my favorite CDs! In just a few hours, we knew we'd be good friends for the rest of the 53 .
I left France with many 54 , so when people ask me what my favorite part of the trip was, they are always 55 to hear me talk about my Brazilian friend Paolo and the scores of weekdays in class, weeknights on the town, and weekends 56 France we enjoyed together. I love how people 57 seem so different, but end up being so 58 . The most valuable lesson I gained from studying in France wasn't just to respect the French people  59  to respect all people, for your next best friend could be just a continent away. I would recommend an exchange program to anyone who wants to experience foreign cultures and gain meaningful 60 .
41. A. discuss B. express C. announce D. argue
42. A. approved B. knew C. warned D. denied
43. A. stubborn B. anxious C. universal D. interesting
44. A. boring B. upsetting C. exciting D. promising
45. A. expected B. liked C. doubted D. feared
46. A. sponsored B. witnessed C. greeted D. supported
47. A. until B. when C. since D. while
48. A. move B. travel C. walk D. rush
49. A. housekeeper B. leader C. roommate D. colleague
50. A. learn B. appreciate C. speak D. master
51. A. combined B. fitted C. involved D. placed
52. A. added B. introduced C. devoted D. adapted
53. A. term B. week C. month D. vacation
54. A. presents B. suitcases C. stories D. dreams
55. A. surprised B. disturbed C. embarrassed D. concerned
56. A. analyzing B. exploring C. describing D. investigating
57. A. need B. shall C. must D. can
58. A. generous B. independent C. similar D. distant
59. A. and B. but C. or D. so
60. A. instructions B. friendships C. facts D. data
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面材料, 在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Creator of Middle Earth
John Ronald Reuel Tolkien, better known as J.R.R. Tolkien, was born in 1892 in South Africa. His parents had moved there looking for 61 better job for his father. Three years 62 (late), his mother took him on a trip to England to visit family. While they `were away, they received terrible news that his father had died.
63 (grow ) up without a father must have been difficult for Tolkien. Worse still, when he was only twelve years old, his mother also passed away. As a child, he had a great passion for language and in 1908, he went to Oxford University 64 (study) languages and literature. In 1915, he joined the army and fought in the battle against the Germans. But soon, he became too ill to fight and returned 65 England the following year. He didn’t have a 66 (satisfy) childhood himself, so around 1933, he spent much time telling his children fantasy 67 (story) of a hobbit (霍比特人) called Bilbo. He first put it in writing in 1936, 68 turned out to be a surprising hit. The publisher asked him to write another. He did so and in 1948 published The Lord of the Rings, which 69 (publish) in three volumes between 1954 and 1955.
Tolkien, 70 (age) eighty-one, died in 1973.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题, 每小题1分；满分10分)
假设英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文, 请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误, 每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加, 删除或修改。
增加: 在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧), 并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除: 把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改: 在错的词下面画一横线, 并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意: 1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2. 只允许修改10处, 多者(从第11处起)不计分。
While my mum was on shopping with my grandma yesterday, she noticed a lady lay down on the chair with her purse on her lap. She went up and ask the lady if she was OK. She said she felt dizzy but couldn’t breathe. Immediate, she asked my grandma to call a ambulance. With the lady’s permission, my mum opened her purse find the phone and tried to call her husband. Soon the ambulance and her husband all came and took the sick lady to the hospital. I’m so proud of my mum, which timely help saved the lady’s lives.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是明启中学的李华，你的外国笔友Henry下周即将来你的学校做交换生。请你给他写一封信，必须包括以下内容。
1. 表示欢迎；
2. 介绍学习安排(包括学习中文、体验中华传统文化等)；
3. 邀请他住在你家并表达期待。
四川省威远中学校2023届第五学期第一阶段试题
听力理解
1—5 CCACB 6—10 AABCA 11—15 BBAAB 16—20 CACBA
阅读理解
21—25 DBABC 26—30 DBCBA 31—35 CBADC 36—40 DFEGC
完形填空
41—45 BBDCA 46—50 CAACC 51—55 DBACA 56—50 BDCBB
语法填空
61. a 62. later 63. Growing 64. to study 65. to
66. satisfying / satisfactory 67. stories 68. which 69. was published 70. aged
短文改错
While my mum was on shopping with my grandma yesterday, she noticed a lady lay down
lying
on the chair with her purse on her lap. She went up and ask the lady if she was OK. She said
asked
she felt dizzy but couldn’t breathe. Immediate, she asked my grandma to call a ambulance.
and Immediately an
With the lady’s permission, my mum opened her purse∧find the phone and tried to call her
to
husband. Soon the ambulance and her husband all came and took the sick lady to the hospital.
both
I’m so proud of my mum, which timely help saved the lady’s lives.
whose life
书面表达
Dear Henry,
Knowing that you're going to my school as an exchange student next week, I want to extend my heartfelt welcome to you.
As scheduled, not only will you learn Chinese language but also you will join in a variety of school activities such as Calligraphy Day and Paper Folding Competition to have a deeper understanding of traditional Chinese culture. I'm sure you will benefit a lot.
Since we have been writing to each other for so long, I sincerely invite you to stay at my home during your trip, so that we can learn from each other and promote our friendship. I'm looking forward to seeing you next Monday!
Best wishes.
Yours,
Li Hua