2021-2022学年江西省九江六校（九江一中等校）高二下学期期末联考英语试题含答案+听力

九江“六校”（九江一中等校）2021 ~ 2022学年度第二学期高二期末联考英语

本试卷由四个部分组成。其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题。第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。考试时间120分钟,满分150分。

考生注意事项：

1. 答题前,考生务必在试题卷、答题卡规定的地方填写自己的姓名、座位号。

2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。

3. 考试结束,务必将试题卷和答题卡一并上交。

第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)

回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. When will the speakers meet?

A. At 9: 00 a. m. B. At 11: 00 a. m. C. At 1: 00 p. m.

2. What does the man think of the TV programs?

A. They are special. B. They are too boring. C. They are educational.

3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?

A. Job details. B. A phone call. C. Career development.

4. How many people failed the interview?

A. 4. B. 12. C. 16.

5. Why does the man suggest they look for a person?

A. To help download the file.

B. To check the office safety.

C. To handle the Internet problem.

第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

6. What job is the man applying for?

A. A table tennis coach. B. A language teacher. C. A teaching assistant.

7. What language is the woman weak in?

A. Chinese. B. English. C. French.

听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

8. Where will Lucy go after Tower Bridge?

A. Buckingham Palace. B. The Tower of London. C. The British Museum.

9. What is Lucy’s attitude towards the rules?

A. She questions them. B. She opposes them. C. She understands them.

听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

10. How did the woman probably feel about the product at first?

A. Uninterested. B. Excited. C. Upset.

11. Where are the speakers probably?

A. At a new technology exhibition.

B. At the woman’s house.

C. At a computer company’s store.

12. What does the man believe will happen in the future?

A. Online communication will be useless.

B. Computer market will be replaced.

C. Their products will be the best.

听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。

13. Who is the man?

A A person from Bali. B. A travel agent. C. A tour guide.

14. What may interest the woman on the island of Bali?

A. Good restaurants and shops.

B. Nice hotels and water sports.

C. The weather and the sea view.

15. How will the woman probably pay for the vacation?

A. In cash. B. By cheque. C. By credit card.

16. When should the woman pay for her vacation?

A. When the vacation ends.

B. When she makes a reservation.

C. When she gets to the destination.

听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。

17. What did Henry Hudson do after running into ice in 1607?

A. He kept going north.

B. He tried for over two months.

C. He headed to Spitsbergen instead.

18. When did Henry Hudson start his second expedition?

A. In 1608. B. In 1609. C. In 1610.

19. When did Henry Hudson reach North America by accident?

A. During the first journey.

B. During the second journey.

C. During the third journey.

20 On which ship did Henry Hudson make his last known journey?

A. The Hopewell. B. The Discovery. C. The Half Moon.

第二部分阅读理解( 共两节，共40分)

第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Cambodia is a destination fillded with history. Today, that history is the main draw for Cambodia holidays to country, with tourism playing a key role in the country’ s ongoing rebirth and renewal.

Where to go on your Cambodia holiday

The fantastic ruins of Angkor are a must-see on any Cambodia tour, with sunrise at Angkor Wat being a “wish list” experience for many. However, there are hundreds of ruins to discover at Angkor without the crowds, with many structures beautifully entangled (缠绕) in roots and branches, as the jungle takes back the land.

Siem Reap, one of Cambodia’s biggest cities, is the gateway to Angkor and also has its own attractions in busy markets packed with local artworks, wooden carvings and Khmer textiles.

Phnom Penh, Cambodia’s capital, is a lively metropolis (大都会) of traditional markets, modern developments and French colonial architecture. Trips to the Royal Palace and its Silver Pagoda, as well as the National Museum, offer striking Khmer architecture and exploration of Cambodian culture.

Riverside Escapes & Beach Holidays in Cambodia

Outside of the cities, Cambodia has many beaches, rivers and islands. On the south coast, the beach destinations of Sihanoukville and Kep provide seaside escapes and fresh seafood, with the sleepy riverside town of Kampot (home of Kampot pepper) and the idyllic(田园诗般的) island paradise of Koh Rong nearby. Or, take a trip to the gentle and quiet Mekong riverside, Kratie, which is the best place to visit in Cambodia to see the rare freshwater Irrawaddy dolphins.

If you prefer to get off the routine path, Kampong Thom in northeast Cambodia owns remote sites of ancient temple cities, busy markets and delicious Khmer cuisine.

21. Which place is a must-see in Cambodia according to the text?

A. The ruins of Angkor. B. Siem Reap.

C. Phnom Penh. D. Sihanoukville.

22. Where can you learn more about Cambodian’s culture as well as its development?

A. The ruins of Angkor. B. Phnom Penh.

C. The royal Palace. D. National Museum.

23. What may you know about Cambodia?

A. Cambodia is mostly famous for its beautiful natural scenery.

B. Cambodia provides tourists with a diversity of scenic spots.

C. Cambodia is a modern country which has never ruled by the west.

D. Cambodia is a country where you can not enjoy sea beaches.

B

Jiao Junying, 46, is a clinic doctor in Nanjie village, Neiqiu town, Xingtai, in North China’s Hebei province. He has been awarded many honorary titles in the province. When he was young, Jiao got polio(脊髓灰质炎) which resulted in his disability. This spurred him on to achieve his childhood dream to become a doctor and bring health to more people.

Since 2015, Jiao has become the contracted family doctor for the villagers in Nanjie, and has become the “health manager”. From measuring blood pressure, writing prescriptions, and popularizing knowledge about health and well-being, Jiao’ s daily schedule is packed. He regularly conducts physical examinations for the village elderly and does follow-up visits for chronic diseases, and maintains health records for the villagers. In addition, Jiao studies traditional Chinese medicine and constantly enriches his knowledge.

“The recognition by the villagers is a great trust and encouragement for me. As long as the villagers still need me, I am willing to always protect their health.” Jiao says.

He can’t remember how many home visits he has made in the past six years and how many patients he has treated, but every patient he treats remembers him. With a good heart, he is the health goalkeeper closest to the common people. Jiao says that by escaping death, he understands the preciousness of life and is more willing to protect the health of others.

In Jiao’s view, from poverty alleviation(扶贫) to rural revitalization, China’ s policies are getting better and better, and the medical conditions in rural areas are improving. He is willing to stick to the cause.

In the new medical reform, the construction of the basic medical and health system has been further promoted, and Jiao has another task - to establish health records for the villagers.

24 What may the underlined word in the first paragraph mean?

A. Requested. B. Confirmed. C. Inspired. D. Recommended.

25. What can we conclude from the second paragraph?

A. Jiao is a doctor with years of professional education and training.

B. Jiao only prefers to give western medical treatment to villagers.

C. Jiao provides all medical services for the villagers for free.

D. Jiao warmly provides all-round medical services for the villagers.

26. How may villagers think of Jiao’ s work?

A. Unnecessary. B. Disappointing. C. Trustworthy. D. Limited.

27. What might be the best title of the article?

A. A Famous Doctor in the Countryside

B. Poverty Alleviation and Country Medical Service

C. The New Medical Reform in the Countryside

D. Village Doctor Inspires and Heals

C

A recent trend in the entertainment world is to adapt classic works of literature for either TV plays or the movies. One argument is that this is to everyone’s benefit, as it introduces people to works they might otherwise never have experienced, while others say that turning books into movies not only cheapens the original, but is rarely done successfully. So what do you think?

In the past few years, we have seen several classic works of literature were adapted into movies. Many people believe that turning a novel into a film is a great idea, but some obviously think otherwise. According to the latter, translating classic works into movies destroys its originality and credibility. In my opinion, literary works can get translated into the screens effectively.

The main challenge that filmmakers face while turning a classic work into a movie is its imaginary world. Generally, the perception(见解) of the book’s imaginary world differs from person to person. And it’s quite challenging to put all these different perceptions in one frame. But modern technology has made this challenge achievable. For example, the filmmakers used visual effects to successfully adapt “Harry Potter” movies so visually appealing that their perception of “Harry Potter” changed. Therefore, literary works can be translated into films through technical means.

Also, while making a film, the main focus of makers always remains on the main plotline and characters. But for movies based on literary works, this issue is not there as these movies carry the same basic plotline as it is present in the books. Therefore, directors do not have to spend much time and imagination on the plot of the movie, which makes the adaptation quite easy.

Based on the above arguments, I believe that it is quite possible to make a beautiful movie based on a classic work using modern technologies and a writer’ s imagination.

28. What does “the latter” in the second paragraph refer to?

A. People who agree with adapting classic works of literature into screens.

B. People who often enjoy reading classic works of literature into screens.

C. People who think it’s not a good idea to adapt classic works into screens.

D. People who can translated literary works into the screens.

29. What is the main difficulty when adapting classics into screens according to the author?

A. Adapting literary works into films effectively.

B. Presenting the imaginary of classics works on screens.

C. The different perception of the book’s imaginary world.

D. The use of modern technology in adapting classic works.

30. Why does the author mention the adaption of Harry Potter?

A. To prove that adapting literary works into screens can be successful.

B. To describe the successful use of modern technology in making films.

C. To confirm adapting classic works into screens is really important.

D. To present an example to prove that classic works is out of date.

31. What is the author’ s attitude towards adapting classics?

A. Critical. B. Objective. C. Indifferent. D. Supportive.

D

Big tech companies like Google and Facebook parent Meta would have to observe tough British rules under a new digital watchdog aimed at giving consumers more choice online — or face the threat of big fines.

The UK government on Friday outlined the power it’s planning for its Digital Markets Unit, a regulator set up last year to take on the control of tech giants (巨头). It didn’ t specify when the rules would take effect, saying only that legislation (立法) would come “in due course”.

Authorities in Britain and across Europe have been leading the global push to put pressure on tech companies due to rising concern about their outsized influence and harmful material piling up quickly on their platforms.

The new UK watchdog would enforce rules that make it easier for people to switch between iPhones and Android devices or between social media accounts without losing their data and messages.

The government’s digital department said smartphone users would get a wider choice of search engines and more control over how their data is used. Tech companies would have to warn small companies that do much of their business online about changes to algorithms (算法) that could affect their web traffic and profit.

The watchdog also would get the power to solve pricing disputes (纠纷) between online platforms and news publishers to ensure media companies get paid fairly for their content, the government said. Tech companies would face fines worth up to 10 percent of their annual global revenue for breaking the rules, which for the biggest companies would amount to billions of dollars.

Google and Meta did not respond immediately to requests for comment.

32. Why did the UK government set a new digital watch dog over its digital markets?

A. To help consumers solve problems completely.

B. To ensure consumers the right to choose online.

C. To threaten big tech companies of big fines.

D. To limit the development of big tech companies.

33. What do you know about the British rules according to the article?

A. They haven’t come into effect yet so far.

B. They include specific rules waiting for approval.

C. It has been put into law last year.

D. Big tech companies will not be affected.

34. How will smartphone users benefit from the new rules?

A. Harmful materials will be banned completely from smart phones.

B. Smartphone users will have absolute control over their data.

C. Smartphone users will earn more profit from their business.

D. Smartphone users’ data and messages will be better protected.

35. How will big tech companies be affected by the new rules?

A. It will greatly harm big tech companies’ profit.

B. Big tech companies will not be affected at all.

C. The effect on big tech companies is still uncertain.

D. Big tech companies will not comment on the rules.

第二节(共5 小题；每小题2分，满分10分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Severe weather systems like tsunamis hurricanes and earthquakes throw a threat to anyone in their path. ____36____ Scientists have followed behavioral patterns in storm systems, animals, insects and other natural phenomena to uncover helpful signals to keep you safe.

____37____ Tsunamis are long, powerful waves created by subsea earth movements and can rise to 100 feet tall. When there’ s a powerful enough earthquake in the ocean, water quickly retracts(缩回) to help feed the wave. If you’re enjoying a day at the beach and notice the ocean tides start to roll away fast, head to higher ground immediately. That’s the nature’s way of telling you, “A tsunami is heading your way real soon.”

____38____ Cats, dogs and other animals are known to get anxious and run away moments before an earthquake strikes. These animals are able to sense the preliminary waves that signal an earthquake ahead of the more destructive waves. Humans can’t detect the first set of waves. ____39____

An increased ocean swell means a hurricane is on its way. Roughly three days before a hurricane makes landfall, the ocean swell increases around six feet in height. The swell creates giant ocean waves that crash against the shore about every nine seconds. ____40____

A. Head to higher ground if the ocean level drops.

B. But what if there were ways to avoid danger?

C. This is one of the earliest signs of an approaching hurricane.

D. If animals start panicking, you might experience an earthquake.

E. Advance planning and quick response are the keys to avoiding danger.

F. However, your pets could give enough time to run outside where it’s safer.

G. You can take steps to stay safe and comfortable while facing various disasters.

第三部分英语知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)

第一节完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1. 5分，共30分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Archer Calder is a 16-year-old school student from Utah. His sister is 14-year-old Della, who has a disease that makes her unable to____41____.

In 2020, Archer was ____42____ online for an app that might help Della ____43____ her needs, wants, likes and dislikes. “It’s always been my ____44____ to be able to communicate with her the way I would with anybody else,” he said.

But the result is ____45____. The related apps were greatly expensive, and didn’t____46____ everything he was looking for. So he decided to make his own app, completely open and free. That’s____47____ Freespeech was born.

Freespeech helps people communicate by enabling them to press buttons that ____48____ words. Users can string together sentences by pressing many buttons____49____. The app opens up a whole new world of communication for people who are _____50_____ to talk.

“It was_____51_____ growing up with a brother or sister that you couldn’t talk with,” Archer explained. “For the first time I was able to_____52_____ with my sister because of this app, kind of like I would communicate with anybody else. It was kind of a special_____53_____ that I had never experienced before.”

_____54_____, Freespeech app still had some disadvantages, so Archer _____55_____ other programmers for help by making the source code _____56_____. He first put it on TikTok, and the reaction was so _____57_____ that he shared it on GiHub, where experienced programmers helped upgrade it.

Archer says _____58_____ Freespeech only helps one person, his sister, all the time and effort he put in was _____59_____. Somehow, the public have a feeling that Archer’s app is going to help far_____60_____ just one person.

41. A. walk B. see C. feel D. speak

42. A. operating B. searching C. calculating D. estimating

43. A. express B. ignore C. overcome D. weaken

44 A. idea B. concept C. dream D. advantage

45. A. upsetting B. tough C. encouraging D. reluctant

46. A. suggest B. offer C. conclude D. mean

47. A. when B. where C. how D. why

48. A. stand for B. look for C. wait for D. apply for

49. A. in a mess B. in detail C. in order D. in control

50. A. unwilling B. expert C. shy D. unable

51. A. typical B. disappointing C. awkward D. different

52. A. speak B. communicate C. discuss D. unite

53. A. smell B. condition C. moment D. accident

54. A. However B. Therefore C. Furthermore D. Thus

55. A. adjusted to B. turned to C. showed off D. focused on

56. A. public B. connected C. accessible D. available

57. A. amazing B. reasonable C. essential D. positive

58. A. because B. as though C. even if D. in case

59. A. useless B. worthwhile C. previous D. careless

60. A. other than B. less than C. fewer than D. more than

第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

Curiosity about birds has inspired people to take up bird-watching in Shanghai. Many take it as an opportunity ___61___ (spend) time outdoors and get close to nature.

The most dedicated birders are usually equipped with binoculars and cameras, and travel long distances and spend ___62___ ( hour) among reeds in shoals(浅滩) in Nanhui or Chongming district, in order to capture ___63___ new bird with their lens.

Others, especially parents ___64___ school -aged children, sign up for weekend bird -watching sessions and join groups of 10 on trips to popular locations for bird-watching.

More than 430 species of birds, about one-third of the total bird population in China, can ___65___ (see) in Shanghai. The majority of birds in the city ___66___ (be) migratory, passing by the southeastern tip of the city’s Nanhui and Chongming districts.

The eastern shoals of Nanhui and Chongming, ___67___ the Yangtze River joins the East China Sea is of strategic ___68___(important ) for migrating birds. There they stop to feed in spring and autumn while ___69___ (travel) between North and East Asia and Australia or Southeast Asia, says expert Yang Gang from the Shanghai Science and Technology Museum.

Pu Chuan, a representative of Forest City Studio says public interest in nature ____70____(increase) in the past few years.

第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)

71. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线( \)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Dear Mr. Jones,

I’ m going back home in next week, so I’m writing to express my gratitude to you.

During my stay here as a exchange student, your wonderful teaching impressed me deep. Not only you prepare your lessons carefully in advance, you also behaved like a director in class, encouraged us to discuss in groups and share our ideas. Which moves me most is that you always talked to me patiently when I turned to you for help. With your encouragement, I became more confident, joined in class activities much actively, but gained a lot of knowledge in the end.

I sincerely invite you to visit China one day. I’ m sure you’ll have an unforgettable experience and fell in love with them.

第二节书面表达(共1 题,满分25分)

72. 假设你是学校学生会主席李华。学校已经确定一块地作为劳动实践基地，各班可以利用课余时间在实践基地种植蔬菜植物。请你以学生会名义在学校英语报上出一则通知。内容包括：

1. 介绍劳动实践基地；

2. 劳动实践意义；

3. 各班自行安排时间和种植对象。

注意: 1. 词数100左右；

2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3. 标题已为你写好，不计入词数。

Notice

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The Students’Union

九江“六校”2021 ~ 2022学年度第二学期高二期末联考

英语

第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)

回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题；每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

【1题答案】

【答案】B

【2题答案】

【答案】C

【3题答案】

【答案】A

【4题答案】

【答案】B

【5题答案】

【答案】C

第二节(共15小题；每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟；听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

【6~7题答案】

【答案】6. A    7. A

【8~9题答案】

【答案】8. B    9. C

【10~12题答案】

【答案】10. B    11. A    12. C

【13~16题答案】

【答案】13. B    14. A    15. C    16. C

【17~20题答案】

【答案】17. B    18. A    19. C    20. B

第二部分阅读理解( 共两节，共40分)

第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

【21~23题答案】

【答案】21. A    22. B    23. B

B

【24~27题答案】

【答案】24. C    25. D    26. C    27. D

C

【28~31题答案】

【答案】28. C    29. B    30. A    31. D

D

【32~35题答案】

【答案】32. B    33. A    34. D    35. C

第二节(共5 小题；每小题2分，满分10分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

【36~40题答案】

【答案】36. B    37. A    38. D    39. F    40. C

第三部分英语知识运用 (共两节，满分45分)

第一节完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1. 5分，共30分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

【41~60题答案】

【答案】41. D    42. B    43. A    44. C    45. A    46. B    47. D    48. A    49. C    50. D    51. D    52. B    53. C    54. A    55. B    56. A    57. D    58. C    59. B    60. D

第二节(共10小题；每小题1. 5分，满分15分)

【61~70题答案】

【答案】61. to spend   

62. hours    63. a   

64. with    65. be seen   

66. are    67. where   

68. importance   

69. travelling##traveling   

70. has increased##has been increasing

第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)

【71题答案】

【答案】1.去掉in

2. a→an

3. deep→deeply

4.在you前加did

5. encouraged→encouraging

6. Which→What

7. much→more

8. but→and

9. fell→fall

10. them→it

第二节书面表达(共1 题,满分25分)

【72题答案】

【答案】                                                                                                  Notice
A piece of land has been confirmed as the labor practice base for us students. Every class has a piece of land where you can decide what to plant. It is also up to each class to decide when to plant your favourite.
As is known to us all, most of the time, we are staying in the classroom learning our lessons, tired and stressed. Participating in some labor activities after class gives us a good chance to get close to nature. In addition, we can relax ourselves in the process of doing labor work. More meaningfully, we may have a good understanding of farmers who work in the wild field and treasure their labor more.
With the weather getting warmer and warmer, it’s really time to get our work done so that we can have a good harvest in autumn. Let’s do it. The Students’Union