2022年陕西省初中学业水平考试英语试卷及参考答案

这是一份2022年陕西省初中学业水平考试英语试卷及参考答案，共12页。试卷主要包含了 本试卷分为第一部分， 领到试卷和答题卡后，请用0， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：
1. 本试卷分为第一部分(听力）和第二部分（笔试)。全卷共10页，总分120 分。考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 领到试卷和答题卡后，请用0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔，分别在试卷和答题卡上填写姓名和准考证号，同时用2B 铅笔在答题卡上填涂对应的试卷类型信息点（A或B)。
3. 请在答题卡上各题的指定区域内作答，否则作答无效。
4. 考试结束，本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分（听力 共30分）
I．听选答案（共15 小题，计 20分）
第一节:听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和
后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最怡当的一项。（共10小题，计10分）
1. A. Jack.B. Peter.C. Tm.
2. A. On her pencil bx.B. Behind her schlbag.C. Under her bk.
3.A. Wrried.B. Happy.C. Surprised.
4. A. Black.B. WhiteC. Green.
5. A. A singer.B. A dancerC. An actr
6. A. 40 yuan.B. 50 yuanC. 60 yuan
7. A. She has a tthache.B. She has a headache.C. She has a stmachache.
8. A. Mther and snB. Father and daughter.C. Brther and sister.
9. A. Draw n the wallB. Draw n the bkC. Draw n the paper.
10. A. Half an hur.B. An hur.C. An hur and a half.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出所给问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。（共5小题，计10 分）
听第 11段对话，回答第 11、12小题。
11. What are the tw speakers ging t d after schl?
A. Play tennis.B. Play ping-pngC. Play vlleyball.
12. What des Wang Ta think f the teacher?
A. He’s humrusB. He’s strictC. He’s friendly.
听第 12 段对话，回答第13至15小题。
13. What is Li Ming busy ding these days?
A. Preparing fr an English play.
B. Studying fr an English exam.
C. Practicing fr an English speech.
14. Hw did Li Ming imprve his spken English?
A. By reading English alud.
B. By listening t English sngs.
C. By repeating after English news.
15. Why did Li Ming spend s much time n spken English?
A. T travel arund the wrld
B. T tell Chinese stries better in English.
C. T be an English teacher in the future.
II．听填信息（共5小题，计 10分）
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。（每空限填一个单词。）
16. Wang Runyu ________ ________ in the city f Ankang.
17. He is talking abut his ________.
18. Every week, he practices singing ________ times.
19. He believes singing is ________ ________ peple in many ways.
20. Runyu feels really ________ because he can bring thers pleasure.
第二部分（笔试 共90分）
III．完形填空（共20小题，计20分〕
第一节：阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Dear Museum Scientists,
My name is Yang Jingjing. 21 live by the sea, near a mangrve swamp（红树林沿泽地）.
My mm 22 tur guide. She knws a lt abut the mangrve swamp. She lves 23 peple the beautiful animals that live there. I am writing t yu 24 I’m wrried abut what is happening near my hme. The mangrves are hme t many 25 such as birds, butterflies, snakes and s n. Dwn in the water under the trees are hmes f fish and shrimp. The mangrves als prtect us 26 wind, waves and flds（浪湖与水火）.
Hwever, in the past few years, things 27 greatly. These changes bring lts f wrries t mre and mre peple. New neighbrhds（社区） 28 last year and the year befre. It turned the place with mangrves int stres, huses, cinemas, restaurants and car parks. What is even 29 , all these things are still ging n! What will happen t the animals that live in the mangrves? I dn’t knw 30 . Hw I wish we can find a way t live tgether with the mangrves and animals!
Sincerely yurs,
Yang Jingjing
21. A. MyB. MineC. ID. Me
22. A. aB. anC. theD. /
23. A. shwB. t shwC. giveD. t give
24. A. althughB. befreC. because D. unless
25. A. plantB. plantsC. animalD. animals
26. A. frmB. withC. abutD. fr
27. A. has changedB. have changedC. is changingD. are changing
28. A. buildB. are built C. builtD. were built
29. A. badB. wrseC. gdD. better
30. A. what we can dB. what can we dC. hw we can dD. hw can we d
第二节：阅读下面短文，理解大意,然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文
连贯完整。
One mrning when Liu Ta wke up, he jumped ut f his bed happily. He had a 31 idea. He wuld build a tree huse! Liu Ta asked his dad, “Is it OK if I build a tree huse in the ld tree utside the 32 ?”
“It’s nt nly OK,” said Dad. “I’ll even 33 yu build it.”
When they finished breakfast, bth f the, went ut t the 34 in their garden and began t measure (测量). Then they gt sme bards and started t 35 them with a saw (锯子). When the pieces were ready, Liu Ta climbed up in the tree and Dad handed him the bards. They fixed the bards t sme 36 branches.
Sme birds were singing arund them but they had n time t enjy 37 f the birds. Building a tree huse was much wrk and lts f things were waiting fr Liu Ta and his dad. They wrked the whle 38 . They even put a rf ver the tree huse s that it culd keep 39 in the rain. At last, they finished just befre dark.
Early that night, Liu Ta asked his brther if he culd brrw a sleeping bag.
“Sure,” said the brther, “But 40 I g with yu?”
“Of curse, yu can.” Liu Ta smiled. Then they bth ran upstairs t get ready.
31. A. similarB. greatC. wrngD. bring
32. A. schlB. parkC. huseD. shp
33. A. helpB. watchC. makeD. hear
34. A. stneB. flwerC. chairD. tree
35. A. washB. cutC. sellD. paint
36. A. strngB. weakC. deadD. new
37. A. shapesB. dancesC. sngsD. clrs
38. A. mrningB. afternnC. nightD. day
39. A. cldB. dryC. htD. wet
40. A. mustB. shuldC. needD. can
Ⅳ. 阅读理解（共15小题，计20分）
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。（共10小题，计15分）
A
If smene is 2. 57 meters tall, we wuld say this persn is super tall. Can this persn be the tallest n recrd?
The tallest man in histry was Rbert Pershing Wadlw. He was 2. 72 meters tall! When he was brn, he was just like ther babies. But as he was grwing, he became unusual frm ther children. Let's take a lk at the timeline f Rbert's early years f life:
Childhd
Rbert Pershing Wadlw was brn n February 22. He weighed a nrmal (正常的) 3.9
kilgrams. When he was six mnths ld, he weighed 13. 6 kilgrams.
When he was 18 mnths ld, he weighed almst 30 kilgrams.
Rbert went t kindergarten - the place like a schl r class fr children aged five.
He was already 1. 7 meters tall. He culd wear the clthes f a 17-year-ld by.
When Rbert was eight years ld, he was ver 1. 8 meters tall.
Rbert culd carry his father up the stairs (楼梯) f their hme.
41. Hw tall is the tallest persn in histry?
A. 2. 57 meters.B. 2. 75 meters.C. 2. 27 meters.D. 2. 72 meters.
42. In which year did Rbert weigh almst 30 kilgrams?
A. In 1919.B. In 1923.C. In 1926.D. In 1927.
43. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Rbert was just like ther babies at birth.
B. At the age f six, Rbert weighed 13. 6 kilgrams.
C. Rbert was 1. 7 meters tall when he was eight years ld.
D. In 1926, Rbert culd carry his father up the stairs.
B
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44. What kind f writing is the text?
A. Email.B. Ad.C. Stry.D. News.
45. Hw many activities are listed here fr the children t enjy?
A. Nine.B. Eight.C. Seven.D. Six.
46. The underlined wrd “ cntact ” prbably means “ _______ ” in the text.
A. write tB. cmmunicate withC. learn frmD. agree with
47. Wh is the text written fr?
A. Children wh want t enjy the htel activities.
B. Children wh pass by the Happy Hlidays Htel.
C. Parents wh stay at the Happy Hlidays Htel.
D. Parents wh are very busy with their wrk.
C
D yu knw the wrd migrate? It is a wrd usually used t talk abut certain animals such as birds, fish and s n. When animals migrate, they travel a lng way frm ne part f the wrld t anther accrding t the seasn. Fr example, swallws (燕子) migrate suth in winter. Many animals migrate - they d this ften at the same time and t the same place each year. They mve t places where cnditins are better – where the weather is warmer, where there is mre fd and water, r where their yung will be safer.
Peple als migrate. When peple migrate, they g t live in anther area r cuntry, especially in rder t find wrk. In English, when peple leave their hme cuntry in rder t live in anther cuntry, we use the wrd emigrate* instead f migrate. Frm migrate and emigrate cme the wrds migratin and emigratin. Hwever, if peple mve frm their hme cuntry t anther t live there frever (永久地) , the wrd changes frm emigrate t immigrate in the English language. Then the wrd immigratin is brn.
Isn't wrd-making f the English language interesting? And can this prcess (过程) f finding ut the relatinships between wrds and learning them in a grup r grups be a way fr yu t learn the language?
* Based n Lngman Dictinary f Cntemprary English, 6th editin
48. Which f the fllwing situatins can match the main idea f Paragraph 1?
A. Snakes mve int hles t sleep in winter.
B. Fish swim t clean waters because f pllutin.
C. Birds fly very far away t find fd and return t give it t their babies.
D. Mnarch butterflies in Nrth America fly suth t stay away frm the cld.
49. Accrding t the passage, if peple ________, they leave their hme cuntry t live in anther frever.
A. travelB. migrateC. emigrateD. immigrate
50. The passage is written t ________.
A. intrduce migratin f animalsB. tell readers a way f learning English
C. shw hw English wrds changeD. explain why peple migrate
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填人空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项
为多余选项。（共5小题，计5分）
Every year in the U. S. there are abut 500 trnades, a natural disaster (灾害;灾难), frm Texas thrugh Oklahma, Kansas, Nebraska, Iwa and int Suth Dakta. 51 .
The "trnad seasn" is usually in spring, but the peple in Trnad Alley are always ready fr them and they always listen t the news. When the warmings cme, 52 . They find smewhere safe t stay. At hme, the best place is the basement - a rm that is used t stre things under the level f the grund. If there is n basement, a rm withut windws like the bathrm is als a safe place.
“ 53 s that we can get ready and wn't feel afraid when there's a trnad,” says Tiffany Taylr, a high schl student frm Texas. “There's n basement at my schl, s we usually g t the hallways n the lwest flrs. Of curse, we never sit near the windws.”
After the trnad, peple first check t see if it is safe t g ut and then they check the buildings and the area fr damage (破坏). 54 !
In China, we are nt s ften trubled by trnades, but we d have disasters like earthquakes, r an unexpected fire. It is imprtant t knw hw t keep us safe when a disaster happens. Remember: in rder t stay safe in natural disasters, 55 . Fr example, we’d better keep disaster plans in mind and practice ften.
A. peple fllw their disaster plans
B. And usually there is a lt f damage
C. This is because there are a lt f trnades
D. At schl, we ften have practice
E. peple run ut f their hmes with fear
F. we shuld get well prepared
G. That's why this area is called “Trnad Alley”
V.完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。（共5小题，计10分）
如今，学生的作业与以往有所不同。
Tday, students' ____________________ is different frm that in the past.
晚饭后，我经常和妹妹一起洗碗。
____________________, I ften d the dishes with my sister.
无论何时当你遇到挑战，都不要放弃！
Whenever yu face challenges, dn't ____________________.
越来越多的外国人对中国的茶文化感兴趣。
Mre and mre freigners are ____________________ China's tea culture.
不要在网络上泄露你的私人信息。
Dn't let ut yur ____________________ nline.
V. 短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。）（共10小题，计10分）
he live final lucky peple success achieve meet much be
In Octber 2021, a lcal newspaper tld a stry f a cmmn man, Jia Shuangdeng. He 61. ________ frm Shaanxi Prvince. He nt nly wrks hard but has helped many deaf peple 62. ________ a better life as well.
At the age f 14, smething 63. ________ happened t Jia and turned him int a deaf persn. Sad and heartbrken, he had t leave schl and learned by 64. ________ at hme fr mre than tw years. Later, with ther 65. ________ help, he cheered up and made a living by making shes. He 66. ________ many difficulties but he faced them bravely and kept n wrking hard. 67. ________, his shes became ppular and sld well. After a few years, he started his wn factry and it was 68. ________. Hwever, he didn't frget thse wh had helped him. S he decided t help the peple in need. These years, he has ffered many deaf peple chances t wrk.
What he did has benefited (有益于) lts f deaf peple. “The persn I want t thank 69. ________ in my life is Mr. Jia. Thanks t him, I've gt a gd jb and have a happy life nw. He always tells us althugh we are disabled, we can als 70. ________ ur dreams by wrking hard,” said Xie Ting, wh was helped by Jia.
Ⅶ.任务型阅读：阅读下面的语篇材料，根据所读内容，完成下列各题。（共5小题，计10分）
My name is Xue Mingwen, a middle schl student. My brther is tw years yunger than me. He is nw in Grade 6 at a primary schl. Bth f us like reading famus stries and we ften share strybks. Sme stries are famus because peple have been telling them fr many years. Others, such as fables (寓言), are famus because they have an excellent ending r teach a gd lessn - a mral in ther wrds.
The ther day, my brther shared a very ld stry frm an English strybk. Bth f us were attracted (吸引) by the new, useful language in the fable that everyne can tell. Althugh the stry was simple, it was educatinal. It is ur decisin that we shuld share it here. We hpe yu can learn mre wrds and a new way r tw f expressing yur ideas in English after yu read this fable.
Wh is Xue Mingwen?
He is mst prbably a ____________ f Grade ____________.
What was Xue Mingwen's pinin f the ld stry accrding t Paragraph 2?
He thught it was ____________.
Hw did the tw brthers decide t deal with the stry after reading it?
They decided t ____________ with readers.
What is the name f the fable here?
It is ____________.
What new wrd(s), phrase(s) r sentence(s) can yu learn frm the ld stry abve?
I can learn ① ____________, ② ____________ and mre.
Ⅷ.补全对话（共5小题，计5分）
根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。
(Tw students will g back t schl after having classes nline fr a week. Li Xiawen's phne is ringing ...)
A: Hell, Li Xiawen speaking.
B: Hi, Xiawen. 76. _________________________?
A: I'm preparing all my schl things fr tmrrw. I'm really excited abut ging back t schl.
B: Me t! Thanks t the gvernment, we can g back t schl s sn.
A: 77. _________________________. The gvernment has really dne a lt t fight COVID-19.
B: S it has. Nw ur life can g back t nrmal. 78. _________________________?
A: We will get t schl at 7:50.
B: Hw will yu g t schl?
A: By bike. 79. _________________________?
B: I will walk t schl. I can't wait t see ur classmates. See yu tmrrw.
A: 80. _________________________.
IX.书面表达（共1题，计15分）
学校是个大家庭，这里充满了欢声笑语、爱与温暖。你们学校即将举办以“Schl Is a Big Family”为题的英语演讲比赛。请根据下列要求，从结构图的三个方面写一篇英文演讲稿。
参考词汇：
be patient (with), care abut, encurage, share, help, understand, lve, have fun, ...
要求:
1. 可选择使用参考词汇，亦可适当发挥；
2. 语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3. 文中不得出现你的任何真实信息（姓名、校名和地名等）；
4. 词数：不少于70词。（开头和结尾已给出，但不计人总词数。）
Gd afternn, everyne!
I am glad t be here t give a speech. My tpic is “Schl Is a Big Family”.
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Thank yu fr yur time!
2022年陕西省初中学业水平考试
英语
参考答案及评分标准
选择题部分 （共60分）
A卷
选择题（1-10每小题1分、11-15每小题2分；21-40每小题1分；41-50每小题1.5分、51-55每小题1分）
非选择题部分 （共60分）
Ⅱ. 听填信息（共5小题，计10分）
每小题2分，单词拼写错误每个扣0.5分。
16.was brn 17. hbby 18. 5/five 19. gd fr 20. prud
V. 完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。（共5小题，计10分）
每小题2分，单词能够识别，但个别字母有错误，每个单词扣0.5分。
56. hmewrk/schlwrk
57. After(eating/having)dinner/supper (每写正确一个单词赋1分）
58. give up/ stp fighting (若只写stp,赋1分）
59. (getting/becming)interested in (只写对interested赋1.5分）
60. private/persnal infrmatin (每写正确一个单词赋1分）
Ⅵ.短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文完整正确。（每个单词限用一次，每空限填一个单词。）（共10小题，计10分）
选对单词但词形错误，每空赋0.5分。大小写错误忽略不计。
61.is62. live 63.unlucky 64. himself65. peple's
66.met67. Finally68. successful 69.mst 70. achieve
VII.任务型阅读：阅读下面的语篇材料，根据所读内容，完成下列各题。（共5小题，计10分）
每小题2分，信息点正确，但语法错误（含大小写）及单词拼写错误，每两处扣0.5分。
71. by/student；8/Eight (每空1分）
72. simple (and/but) educatinal
73. share (it / the stry) (here)
74. The Hare and the Trtise
75. new wrds: hare/trtise/snze/pld/hp/cabbage (s)
(new) phrases: give him a head start / fall asleep amng the cabbages / have time t snze /(culdn't) catch up / hp fast / slwly pld past...
(new) sentences: I'm s much bigger and better than yu. / Bigger desn't always mean
better./….（每空1分，填出以上任意内容均视为正确）
Ⅷ.补全对话：根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整.（共5小题，计5分）
信息点正确，但单词拼写、语法错误（含大小写），每两处扣0.5分。
76. What are yu ding (nw)
77. Yes/Yeah / I agree / Yu're right / That's right / I think s 之类
78. What time / When will/shall we get/g t schl (tmrrw)
79. What/Hw abut yu / Hw will yu g t schl (tmrrw)
80. See yu(tmrrw/then)/ Gdbye 之类
IX.书面表达（共1题，计15分）
（第五档14分标准）
First, my math teacher is patient with me. She helps me t study math better. Secnd, my classmates help me a lt. I'm nt gd at sprts. My friend Li Yun helped me with running and I ran faster. Als, I care abut my teachers and classmates. One day my English teacher had a cld and I tld her t drink mre ht water. She felt warm and thanked me.
I believe if we understand and help each ther, ur schl will be a better place.
（第四档12分标准）
First, my math teacher is patient with me. She helps me t study math better. Secnd, my classmates help me a lt. My friend Li Yun helped me running and I ran faster. Als, I care my teachers and classmates. One day my English teacher had a cld and I tld her t drink mre ht water. She feeled warm and thanked me.
I believe if we help each ther, ur schl is a better place.
评分说明：
1. 此题为半开放性试题，要求学生根据所给信息，写出一篇语言连贯、符合逻辑、书写规范、卷面整洁的短文。
2. 词数少于70的，每10个单词扣1分。
评分标准见下页：