2021天津滨海新区高一下学期期末考试英语试题含答案

这是一份2021天津滨海新区高一下学期期末考试英语试题含答案，共10页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

滨海新区2020-2021学年度第二学期期末质量检测
高一英语试题

本试卷分为第I卷（听力）、第II卷（选择题）、第III卷（非选择题）三部分。第I卷为第1页至第2页，第II卷为第3页至第12页，第III卷为第13页至第14页。试卷满分150分。考试时间100分钟。

第Ⅰ卷 听力

第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the correct time?
A. 8:20. B. 8:30. C. 8:40.
2. What are they talking about?
A. Water. B. Beer. C. Sport.
3. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a school. B. In a hotel. C. In a hospital.
4. When did the woman see the shark?
A. When she was swimming.
B. When she was on the shore.
C. When she was in the boat.
5. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A. Son and mother. B. Patient and doctor. C. Student and teacher.
第二节（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
听下面几段材料。每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。
6. What did the two speakers do just now?
A. They watched a football match.
B. They visited a museum.
C. They saw a movie.
7. Why don’t they have Chinese food?
A. Because the woman doesn’t like it.
B. Because the woman had it last night.
C. Because the man doesn’t like it.
8. What did they eat at last?
A. Curry and rice. B. Pizza. C. Hot dog.
听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。
9. What will the woman go to Shanghai to do?
A. Buy a dog. B. Have a holiday. C. Visit friends.
10. What does the woman ask the man to do?
A. Look after her dog. B. Write a letter. C. Go with her.
11. How long will the woman be away?
A. One day. B. One week. C. Two weeks.
听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。
12. What is the speaker mainly talking about?
A. How to deal well with classmates in high school.
B. How to make new friends in high school.
C. How to have great fun in high school.
13. What does the speaker think is the easiest way to meet new people?
A. Joining a club.
B. Going to a big high school.
C. Telling others about your hobbies.
14. How many fine arts are mentioned by the speaker?
A. 4 B. 5. C. 6.
15. What does the speaker think of getting a part-time job?
A. It’s a great way to meet people.
B. It leaves you little time to make friends.
C. It provides you with money to make friends.
第Ⅱ卷 选择题（满分90分）

第二部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分52.5分）
第一节 单项填空（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
16. — Are the benefits of climbing Qomolangma worth the risks?
— ________. Different people hold different opinions.
A. It’s totally up to you B. None of your business
C. I couldn’t agree more D. It doesn’t matter
17. ________ back to the 18th century, Peking Opera has over two hundred years of
history.
A. Dates B. Dated C. To date D. Dating
18. The backflip was so dazzling and energetic ________ I wasn’t sure if the characters were performers or athletes.
A. when B. which C. that D. where
19. The Kimberley Region is ________ beautiful and you can experience the indigenous Australia there more than anywhere else.
A. extremely B. originally C. temporarily D. globally
20. Today, as we learn more about sharks, more people than ever want to protect them from ________.
A. destination B. extinction C. exhibition D. institution
21. Experts have proved that sharks don’t see people as food. Sharks don’t ________ human.
A. target B. request C. admit D. transport
22. We played well in the basketball match, but I felt the team was ________ by one
member, our point guard.
A. got across B. figured out C. broken into D. let down

23. This evening, I will talk to Dr. Richard Fairhurst, ________ new book The New Age
of Invention has just been published.
A. when B. whose C. who D. that
24. Important advances have been made in medicine and environmental science ________ increasing computer power.
A. according to B. regardless of C. thanks to D. in terms of
25. Currently, about 35,000 works ________ in over 300 rooms in the Louvre, and it would take a life time to see everything.
A. were displaying B. are displaying
C. were being displayed D. are being displayed
26. Her head and arms are missing, but you can imagine her ________ her arms up high, celebrating the result of an ancient battle.
A. held B. to hold C. holding D. having held
27. Last year, hundreds of people spent good money on an experience that they knew
________ crowds, discomfort and danger.
A. would include B. include C. has included D. will include
28. Who were the first people ________ to have reached the top of Qomolangma?
A. donated B. confirmed C. pressed D. erupted
29. “The next station is Bank!” comes the ________. That’s my destination.
A. movement B. announcement C. technique D. documentary
30. —I’m just wondering if you could take care of my cat while I go on a trip with my family.
—________.
A. Thanks for your kindness
B. Please don’t mention it
C. Hold on a moment, please
D. Sorry, but I’ll prepare for my driving test
第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从31～50各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

I’ve been taking a bus to school for years. I found that most passengers keep to themselves and no one ever has a 31 with anyone else.
About a year ago, an elderly man entered and said 32 to the driver, “Good morning!” Most people looked up, surprised and 33 , while the bus driver took it for granted and 34 responded with a grunt (哼声). The next day the man 35 and again he said in a loud voice, “Good morning!” to the driver. Another grunt. By the fifth day, the driver finally agreed to accept the elderly man and 36 him with a little cheerful “Good morning!” Then the man 37 , “My name is Benny.” The driver told the man he was Ralph.
That was the first 38 any of us heard the driver’s name and soon people began to talk to each other and say 39 to Ralph and Benny. Soon Benny 40 his cheerful “Good morning!” to the whole bus. Within a few days, his “Good morning!” was 41 by a whole bunch of “Good mornings” and the entire bus seemed to be more 42 . People got to know each other.
“If a 43 is someone who makes something happen, Benny was the one who took a lead in showing friendship 44 us,” I thought.
A month ago, something 45 happened and Benny didn’t 46 in the bus. Everyone began to 47 about Benny and lots of people said he may have passed away. No one knew what to do and the bus got 48 again. So last week, I started to act like Benny and say “Good morning!” to everyone and the whole bus cheered up again. I guessed I was the leader now. 49 Benny could come back to see what he had started really 50 a lot.

31. A. competition
B. cooperation
C. discussion
D. conversation
32. A. loudly
B. deeply
C. secretly
D. safely
33. A. encouraged
B. confused
C. admired
D. calmed
34. A. freely
B. finally
C. simply
D. clearly
35. A. sat down
B. looked around
C. stood up
D. got on
36. A. greeted
B. shared
C. provided
D. celebrated
37. A. agreed
B. persuaded
C. said
D. wondered
38. A. method
B. time
C. idea
D. experience
39. A. sorry
B. yes
C. hello
D. bye
40. A. wished
B. introduced
C. challenged
D. spread
41. A. returned
B. covered
C. hidden
D. driven
42. A. confident
B. friendly
C. noisy
D. crowded
43. A. foreigner
B. passenger
C. driver
D. leader
44. A. above
B. behind
C. among
D. including
45. A. unexpected
B. uncontrolled
C. unaccepted
D. unchanged
46. A. get up
B. look up
C. turn up
D. cheer up
47. A. complain
B. ask
C. argue
D. advise
48. A. quiet
B. open
C. broken
D. slow
49. A. Obviously
B. Hopefully
C. Importantly
D. Fortunately
50. A. needed
B. wasted
C. covered
D. mattered
第三部分：阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
If you still haven’t decided where to go for the coming holiday, we have a list for you.
l Nice
Nice, a beautiful city on the Mediterranean, draws attention with its cultural wealth. Known as the place where the rich take a vacation in the world, Nice is one of the most expensive cities in Europe. Despite this, it is a city where French retirees and the young come on holiday, especially during festival times.
l Barcelona
Barcelona is considered among the most popular summer vacation destinations in Spain. Here, apart from the touristic spots, the unique city architecture is also fascinating. Especially after hosting the 1992 Summer Olympics, the city has become a tourism center.
There is everything for you to have a pleasant trip in this Mediterranean city, such as amazing nightlife, beautiful beaches and stadium tours for football fans.
l Mykonos
The most popular island of Greece is Mykonos Island. Mykonos, decorated with white houses and windmills, is one of Yuninstan’s first islands that were opened to tourism.
Mykonos guarantee（提供）you a pleasant holiday. You have whatever you want, fun parties on the island, museums, and beaches with sparkling sea…
l Casablanca
Casablanca, which means “white house” in Spanish, is the most important tourism developed city of Morocco. It is already the largest city in Morocco. In fact, this beautiful city is better known for arousing curiosity than the country. This is because of the famous 1942 film Casablanca. Actually, the movie was not shot here, but it still helped build fame.
l Naples
When it comes to Italy tour, Naples is now in a position to compete with Rome, Venice, and Milan. Naples should definitely be visited because it has a more friendly atmosphere compared to other crowded touristic places.
Many points of Naples are on the UNESCO World Heritage List. Naturally, this city should be visited for a real experience of Italian culture and the best Italian pizza is eaten in Naples.

51. Of the four European cities, _______ is well known for its high expenses.
A. Mykonos B. Barcelona C. Nice D. Naples
52. What plays a greater role in making Barcelona a tourism center?
A. The Olympic Games. B. The sparkling sea.
C. The nice beaches. D. The Mediterranean culture.
53. What are the common features of Mykonos and Casablanca?
A. They are both island cities. B. They both rely on film industry.
C. They are both the largest cities. D. They both have white buildings.
54. Why are people more curious about the city of Casablanca than the country?
A. Because it has the same name with a famous film.
B. Because it is where a famous film was shot.
C. Because it has a long history.
D. Because its tourism is highly developed.
55. Which is NOT true about Naples?
A. Tourists feel comfortable and relaxed there.
B. It is far behind Rome in tourism.
C. It is a place to experience Italian culture.
D. Tourists can taste nice pizzas there.
B
It was our turn to open our presents this particular Christmas morning. The living room was already covered with torn(撕开的）wrapping paper. Obviously, the children could hardly wait to discover the hidden treasures, which they had expected for nearly a month. Now we adults sat around the room with our presents at our feet, slowly removing the paper, trying to maintain our dignity in front of the children.
My wife Brenda, and her family have a tradition of getting each other gag（恶作剧）gifts. This always makes me a bit uneasy at Christmas or my birthday, never knowing what embarrassment lies waiting for me under the wrapping paper.
Recently, my six-year-old daughter Christy seemed to busy herself with something while I was playing computer video flight games. Now she was standing directly in front of me. The excitement of the moment just shone across her face. Finally, I came to the last gift and with my natural Sherlock Holmes ability, I concluded that this had to be the gag gift. With everyone looking on, I decided to go ahead and get it over with—just let them have their laugh—and I tore the paper and there it was...a toy airplane about two inches long. Our holiday guests started giggling（咯咯笑） to themselves as I looked up to my wife with an unpleasant smile on my face, saying, “A toy airplane? Are you kidding me?”
Brenda gave me the look---that look that always tells me I have just said something wrong and should have given it a second thought. I had failed to look at the name tag(标签)before I opened the present to see who it was from. As I picked up the paper from the floor and read the name tag, my heart sank. On the tag were the letters that read, “To dad, Love Christy.”
56. The author feels uneasy at Christmas or on his birthday because _______.
he has to spend a lot on presents
the wrapping paper is easily torn
he feels embarrassed being with his wife’s family
he is afraid of the unknown gag gifts
57. The excited look on Christy’s face showed _______.
A. she was eager to express love to Dad
B. she was thrilled on seeing her gift from her parents
C. she was getting a load of gag gifts
D. she was interested in her video flight games
58. What’s the author’s feeling on opening the last gift?
A. Regretful. B. Unpleased. C. Moved. D. Excited.
59. The author’s heart sank because _______.
A. his wife was unhappy with what he had said
B. holiday guests giggled on the present
C. the gift was not what he had expected
D. his words could have hurt his daughter’s feeling
60. What’s the best title of the passage?
A. Gag gifts: a family tradition
B. A toy airplane: joy at Christmas
C. A hidden treasure: love from dear daughter
D. A name tag: Christmas present

C
It is said that most people have not more than 30 friends at any given time, and 400 over the whole of their lives. However, on social networking sites, most users have about 150 friends. If these numbers are correct, then friendship means different things in different situations.
Also, there are no rules about friendship. There are no instructions about how to make friends, how to keep friendships going, and how to finish friendships if we want to move on. People have very different opinions about this: some people would die for their friends and they value them more than family. Others say that friends are temporary, only there to help each other until they are no longer needed. If people with such different views become friends, this can lead to problems.
Because of these different definitions of friendship, it is easy to be unhappy about our friendships. We may want them to be deeper or closer, or we may want to have more friends in our lives. Sometimes we simply do not have the time to develop our friendships, or we fear we have left it too late in life to start. If we move to another country or city, we have to find ways to make new friends again.
This dissatisfaction shows us how important friendships are for most of us. We should not think that it could be too late to build friendships. We also need to understand that the need to be around other people is one that is shared by many. Therefore, we should not be too frightened about starting to talk to people who in the future may become our friends: it is likely that they too would like to get closer to us. Remember what people say: strangers are friends we have not met yet.

61. In Para.1, the numbers are used to _______.
A. show the ways of making friends
B. introduce the topic
C. explain the reason
D. persuade readers to make more friends
62. What is the main idea of Para. 2?
A. There is a rule about making friends.
B. People with different views can become friends.
C. Friendships mean different things to different people.
D. Some people would die for their friends if they need to.
63. According to Para.3, sometimes people are afraid that _______.
A. they spend too much money with friends
B. they are too old to make friends
C. they have too many friends
D. they spend too much time with friends
64. We can learn from the passage that most of us _______.
A. need to have friends B. build friendships late in life
C. are dissatisfied with our friends D. are frightened to talk to people
65. What is the author’s attitude towards talking to a stranger?
A. Uninterested. B. Cautious. C. Doubtful. D. Positive.


第III卷 非选择题 （满分30分）
第四部分：写作
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读短文，并按照题目要求用英语回答问题。
For the past six years, Chris has been running after a dream. That dream has taken him to the top of the world’s highest mountains. On that day, December24, 2011, Chris became the youngest person to have climbed the tallest mountain on each of the seven continents. These mountains are known as the “seven summits”.
It all began when Chris was 9 years old. He became fascinated by a school painting that showed the seven summits. Chris had never climbed a mountain before. But he told his dad that he wanted to climb them ALL!
His dad, an experienced mountaineer, was very supportive. In fact, his parents trained him in top-level mountaineering and climbed every mountain with him. As part of “Team Chris”, they also became the first family to climb the seven summits together.
Training to climb the highest mountains in the world involves a lot of hard work. But Chris has always been very physically active—it’s just the way he lives. When others thought he was too young to climb Mount Everest, the world’s highest mountain, he just became more determined. He recalls thinking at the time, “All you naysayers, I’ll show you.” He sure did. When he was 13, he became the youngest person to scale Mount Everest.
He encourages kids to “find your Everest.” That doesn’t mean he wants everyone to start mountain climbing. What he means is to find something you love doing and set goals to reach it.

66. What is Chris’s dream? (no more than 10 words)
___________________________________________________________________
67. Why did Chris have the dream? (no more than 10 words)
___________________________________________________________________
68. How did Chris’s parents support his idea? (no more than 15 words)
___________________________________________________________________
69. What does the underlined sentence in Para.4 show? (no more than 10 words)
___________________________________________________________________
70. What is your dream and how do you realize it? (no more than 20 words)
___________________________________________________________________

第二节 书面表达 （满分20分）
假如你是晨光中学的高一学生李津, 上周末参加了主题为保护环境的志愿者活动，请你以“Small Act, Big Difference”为题，为学校校报的“英语天地”栏目写一篇短文，分享这次有意义的活动。内容包括以下要点：
（1）活动的时间、地点、目的等；
（2）活动的内容；
（3）活动的意义和自己的感受。
注意：
（1）词数不少于100；标题已给出，不计入总词数；
（2）可以适当增加细节，使内容充实、行文连贯。

Small Act，Big Difference
By Li Jin

______________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________
滨海新区2020-2021学年度第二学期期末质量检测
高一英语参考答案及评分标准

第一部分：听力（每小题2分，满分30分）
1-5. ABBAC 6-10.CBBBA 11-15.CBACA

第二部分：英语知识运用
第一节 单项填空（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
16-20. ADCAB 21-25. ADBCD 26-30. CABBD

第二节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
31-35. DABCD 36-40. ACBCD 41-45. ABDCA 46-50. CBABD

第三部分：阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
51-55. CADAB 56-60. DABDC 61-65. BCBAD

第四部分：写作
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
66. To reach/ Reaching/ To climb / Climbing the world’s highest mountains.
67. (Because) he was fascinated by a school painting.
68. They trained him in mountaineering and climbed every mountain with him.
69. It shows Chris’s determination. / It shows Chris will never give up.
70. Open.

第二节 书面表达（满分20分）

A possible version:
Small Act, Big Difference
By LiJin
Last Sunday, I took part in a voluntary activity in our neighborhood with many other volunteers, which was aimed at protecting our environment. Never shall I forget this experience!
We gathered at our neighborhood committee at 8:30 am and started our voluntary work as soon as possible. Some volunteers swept the streets and picked up rubbish from the grass. Some put up posters about garbage sorting while others removed advertisements from walls and doors. What I did was to hand out some brochures to remind people of reducing our carbon footprint by getting around on foot or by bike, using reusable bags when go shopping. Every volunteer spared no effort to make our environment cleaner and greener.
The activity not only raised people’s awareness of environmental protection but also strengthened our sense of social responsibility. Only with our joint efforts can we live in a better neighborhood. I believe our small act can make a big difference.


阅读表达评分标准
分值
描 述
2分
针对问题做出了正确的回答，内容清晰、完整；同时，语法、单词拼写(含大小写)准确无误，且答题所用词汇数量符合题目要求。
1.5分
针对问题做出了正确的回答，内容全面，但答题所用词汇数量超出题目要求的数量较多，或存在个别因粗心或笔误引起的语法或单词拼写(含大小写)错误，对表达含义基本不构成影响。
1分
语法或单词拼写基本准确，但回答内容不够全面，缺乏部分主要信息；或针对问题做出了基本正确的回答，但组织语言过程中存在一至两处明显的语法或单词拼写错误，且错误易引起歧义或误解。
0分
答非所问；回答过于简略或草率，难以理解或没有意义的单词堆砌。


书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题满分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后综合给分。
3．词数少于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。每错误书写3个单词从总分中减去1分，原则上不超过3分，重复的不计。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。标点符号错误，将视其对交际的影响程度酌情分。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。



二、各档次的给分范围和要求
分数档
内容
语法结构和词
衔接和连贯
整体效果
16~20分
覆盖所有内容要点，并有适当发挥。
应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；表达准确、地道；有个别错误，但不影响对写作内容的理解。
有效使用衔接手段，内容连贯，结构紧凑。
具备较强的语言运用能力；完全达到了预期的写作目的。
11~15分
覆盖所有内容要点
应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求；有一些错误，对写作内容的理解造成了一定影响。
应用了简单的连接成分，内容基本连贯。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
6~10分
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，有一些无关内容。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；错误较多，且在很大程度上影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
1~5分
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关的内容，可能未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限；较多错误，严重影响了对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达
给读者。
0分
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听力原文:
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 1．
W: What is the time by your watch?
M: Half past eight. But it is ten minutes fast.
Text 2．
M: The beer's just like water. They don't make it as strong as they used to.
W: No. Things aren't what they used to be and the pubs aren't any good nowadays.
Text 3．
W: Can I have breakfast in my room?
M: Certainly, madam. Breakfast is served in your room from 7 o'clock until 10. Here is the
menu.
Text 4．
M: I was just about to have a swim when I saw the shark!
W: That is nothing. I was in the middle of swimming when I saw the shark.
Text 5．
M: Excuse me, Sir! May I have a word with you at the moment?
W: Yes, come in please. Is there something wrong?
M: Nothing much. I have got a question about this chapter.
第二节
听下面几段材料。每段材料后面有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第8三个小题。
Text 6
W：Well, what did you think of the movie?
M：I really enjoyed it．How about you?
W：I liked it too. The last part was exciting.
M：So it was. And now I'm hungry．Let's have something to eat.
W：OK．What do you want to eat?
M：Anything is OK with me．Do you like Chinese food?
W：Yes, but I had Chinese food last night.
M：Well, then. What about curry and rice?
W：I'm sorry, but I don't like curry and rice that much. What about pizza?
M：That sounds good.
W: OK. Then let's go to Pizza Hut.
听下面一段对话，回答第9至第11三个小题。
Text 7
W：Could you do something for me, please?
M：Certainly! What would you like me to do?
W：Well, do you know I'm going to Shanghai next week for a holiday?
M：Yes.
W：Well, I can't take my dog with me．Could you look after her for me while we're away?
M：With pleasure.
W：Are you sure you don't mind?
M：Yes, of course. I'd love to look after her. What do I have to do?
W：I've written everything down on this list. And I will be back in two weeks.
M：Good, don't worry. I'I1 take good care of her.
W：I'm sure you will.
听下面一段独白，回答第12至第15四个小题。
Text 8
After you enter high school, many of your old friends go to different schools. You may want to make some new friends. Here are some tips.
First, you can join clubs. In big high schools, this is the easiest way to meet new people. You have a common goal and it is a great way to find people who have the same hobbies and interests as you. So if you are looking for a new friend, join a club in your school.
Second, join a sports club or fine arts. Sports are a great way to meet people and your team will become a family. If you are not quite good at sports, you can join the fine arts such as drama, speech, debate, yearbook, newspaper and band. Doing so can help you make some very good friends. Believe me; many students join them because they want to make new friends.
Third, get a part-time job. Working in high school will also be a great way to meet people. Some students like making friends with those who like making money on their own.

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