2022.5济南济阳区英语模拟试题二正式版（含答案）

这是一份2022.5济南济阳区英语模拟试题二正式版（含答案），共8页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

英语模拟试题（二）
本试题共12页，分选择题部分和非选择题部分，选择题部分满分80分，非选择题部分满分40分。全卷满分120分，考试用时120分钟。
答题前，请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。
答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
选择题部分 共80分
一、听力测试(共20小题，计20分)
A) 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. Have a gd day!B. Let’s play vlleyball.C. It’s nice and warm.
2. A. What animals d yu like?B. Why dn’t yu talk t him?C. Can yu play the guitar?
3. A. He plays basketball every day.B. They g t wrk by bus.C. She has been t Shanghai.
4. A. What’s the matter with yu?
B. Hw des she g t schl?
C. When was the car invented?
5. A. She went shpping last Sunday.
B. They have never been t Shanghai.
C. We’ll visit the museum tmrrw.
B) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When was Mary brn?
A. In 2005.B. In 2006.C. In 2007.
7. What wuld the wman like t drink?
A. Apple juice.B. Orange juice.C. Milk shake.
8. What clr is the pen?
A. Black. B. Blue. C. Red.
9. Where are the tw speakers?
A. In the classrm. B. On the playgrund. C. At a clthes stre.
10. Hw des Mary’s brther study fr a test?
A. By listening t tapes. B. By reading textbks. C. By wrking with friends.
C) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What des Tm think f the wrk?
A. Interesting. B. A little hard. C. Relaxing.
12. What des Tm want t be in the future?
A. A teacher. B. A wrker.C. An animal dctr.
13. Wh des Tina read bks fr?
A. Children. B. Pr peple.C. Old peple.
14. Hw ften des Tina read bks in the library?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
15. Where d they plan t wrk this summer vacatin?
A. In a hspital. B. At a museum.C. In an ld peple’s hme.
D) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. When will the party start?
A. At 6:30. B. At 6:45. C. At 7:00.
17. Hw lng has Miss Green taught in ur schl?
A. Fr 5 years. B. Fr 6 years. C. Fr 7 years.
18. Which city will Miss Green g back t?
A. New Yrk. B. Lndn. C. Paris.
19. What will the Blue Sky Bys d at the party?
A. They will dance. B. They will play the pian.C. They will play their new sngs.
20. What kind f music des Miss Green like?
A. Cuntry music. B. Pp music.C. Classic music.
二、单项选择（共15小题，计15分）
从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
21. Su Bingtian is _______ excellent runner in China and he sets up a gd example fr all teenagers.
A. aB. theC. anD. /
22. — Culd yu give me a few ______n hw t learn English well?
— OK!
A. discussinsB. adviceC. suggestinsD. infrmatin
23. — Did yu enjy ______in Daming Lake yesterday?
— Yes. We had a gd time bating n the lake.
A. yuB. yurselfC. urselvesD. yurselves
24. — I’m getting a COVID-19 vaccine (接种新冠疫苗) this afternn.
—Everyne shuld take a vaccine, r we will be in even _______ danger.
A. greatestB. greaterC. smallerD. smallest
25. Under the duble reductin plicy(双减政策), students can have mre time fr their hbbies _______
Saturdays and Sundays.
A. nB. atC. inD. fr
26. Let’s g t Sunshine Supermarket. We can buy everything ______there.
A. cheaplyB. mstlyC. clearly D. heavily
27. —_______des yur father usually g t wrk n ft?
—He says it’s gd fr his health.
A. WhatB. WhC. HwD. Why
28. Smile t the wrld, ________the wrld will smile back t yu.
A. rB. ifC. andD. but
29. Nwadays, we _______ t shw ur green health cdes (健康码) when we g t public places.
A. askB. are askedC. were askedD. asked
30. The dictinary _______be Mary’s. Lk! Her name is n it.
A. mustB. canC. mayD. might
31. Parents always _______ teenagers nt t swim in the river in summer.
A. prmiseB. argueC. warnD. shw
32. —Has yur daughter cme back yet?
—N. I _______fr her.
A. waitB. waitedC. am waitingD. has waited
33. Bb had t_______ his friend’s invitatin because f an imprtant meeting.
A. put dwnB. take dwnC. turn dwnD. write dwn
34. — Mum, I’ve gt the first prize in the pht cmpetitin.
—________！
A. Cngratulatins B. Gd luckC. Gd ideaD. Nt at all
35. —I hear they’ll visit Shandng Museum, and I wnder________.
—Fr abut tw hurs.
A. hw far it isB. hw ften they visit it
C. hw many tickets they bughtD. hw lng they will stay there
二、完形填空 （共15小题，计15分）
When yu’re still strng enugh, what kind f hliday will yu want t take? 36 yu’re under 30 nw, perhaps yu’ll be able t take a hliday in space!
A Japanese cmpany, Shimizu, 37 t pen the first htel in space in 15 years. It wants t ffer 3-day 38 in a space statin. Hwever, hlidays in space will be very 39 ! Abut 90, 000 dllars fr seventy-tw hurs! Shimizu believes that there are enugh peple wh will be 40 t pay the price.
Other cmpanies in Japan and the USA already plan t 41 htels n the mn. Shimizu is quite serius abut this, 42 they can’t start building their space htels yet.
First, they will have t find a shuttle (航天飞机) that can be used fr 43 times and can als be used fr business. Old American shuttles were very expensive t launch(发射). They had t be launched int space 44 a big rcket which culdn’t be reused.
In the future, shuttles will be able t take ff and 45 n the grund n their wn. They will be much cheaper. Hwever, we dn’t have such shuttles 46 . Americans are wrking n them, but the plan will nt 47 in a shrt time.
There are ther big 48 , t. Hw will rdinary peple react (对……作出反应) t life in space? It will still take tday’s astrnauts mnths t 49 befre ging int space. Hlidays in space will nt be seen tmrrw, but they will 50 ne day.
36. A. AsB. OrC. ButD. If
37. A. plantsB. plansC. prvidesD. picks
38. A. gamesB. hlidaysC. breaksD. camps
39. A. enjyableB. highC. slwD. expensive
40. A. hardB. terribleC. readyD. interested
41. A. changeB. sendC. penD. clse
42. A. andB. butC. sD. then
43. A. fewB. littleC. manyD. a bit
44. A. withB. fC. nD. fr
45. A. stpB. landC. putD. take
46. A. yetB. alreadyC. almstD. always
47. A. wrk nB. cut utC. cme trueD. pick up
48. A. methdsB. advantagesC. prblemsD. characters
49. A. trainB. liveC. sleepD. land
50. A. gB. returnC. realizeD. cme
三、阅读理解（共20小题，计30分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
When dctrs and nurses are fighting COVID-19, there is als a special grup making effrts. They are vlunteers wh prvide service everywhere with all their hearts.
Here is a stry abut a freign vlunteer, Munyaradzi Gurure. He is a 21-year-ld cllege student frm Suth Africa and studies in Guangxi. Althugh he was aware f the serius situatin, he still wanted t jin in the fight. S he chse t serve as a vlunteer at the train statin.
Every day, Gurure wre a yellw hat, a white mask and an range vest (背心) and busily wrked at the train statin. It was dangerus fr him t wrk there, because there were a lt f peple cming and ging. His family were very wrried abut him and hped he culd give up the jb as sn as pssible, but he refused. “I tld my parents China has taken actin and is actually safe,” he said. Gurure wrked abut fur hurs a day. Usually he carried an 8- kilgram electric sprayer (喷雾器) t d the wrk in the waiting rm r checked the bdy temperature f everyne at the entrance. He received lts f praise frm passengers and was encuraged by them. “I want t try my best t prevent the spread f the disease. The cuntry has taken really gd care f me during the last three years. Nw it’s my turn.” He als added that thrugh this experience, he saw the Chinese peple were becming mre united.
51. Gurure wrks __________as a vlunteer in China.
A. in the parkB. at the train statinC. at a bus statinD. in a hspital
52. It was dangerus fr Gurure t wrk there because_______.
A. he wasn’t a dctrB. he can’t help the dctr
C. he is frm Suth AfricaD. there were many peple cming and ging
53. Gurure’s family want him t ________.
A. study hardB. learn medicineC. give up his jbD. take his temperature
54. Gurure wrks abut______ hurs a week.
A. 4B. 8C. 21D. 28
55. Gurure did all the fllwing EXCEPT______.
A. stayed in China fr abut 3 years
B. carried an 8- kilgram electric sprayer t d the wrk
C. checked the bdy temperature f everyne at the entrance
D. agreed t leave China althugh he received lts f praise frm passagers
B
Are yu interested in Chinese traditinal arts? D yu want t learn hw t make them by hand? If s, cme and jin ur clubs this weekend in ur schl.
56. Sky Lanterns are made f _________.
A. clay and paperB. bamb and paper
C. red and yellw rpesD. wd and paper
57. If yu want t learn paper cutting, yu can g t _________.
A. Building 3 Rm 501B. Building 3 Rm 502
C. Building 3 Rm 603D. Building 4 Rm 501
58. If yu are busy this Sunday afternn, yu can’t g t _________ .
A. Sky Lantern Club B. Paper Cutting Club
C. Chinese Knt Club D. Paper Knt Club
59. What d these Chinese traditinal arts have in cmmn?
A. They are all made by machine.B. They are all used t ask fr help.
C. They are all symbls f gd wishes.D. They are all put n windws.
60. This passage may be a _________.
A. pster B. stryC. piece f news D. nvel
C
Shanghai intrduced a new garbage-srting plicy (垃圾分类政策) n July 1, 2019. Peple there need t put different kinds f garbage int different bins. Other cities in China will d the same sn.
Garbage srting is a big prblem because there is t much garbage these days. It is bad fr ur envirnment. In fact, we can make use f sme garbage again. But first, we need t srt it.
Fr example, if yu put an ld battery (电池) int the “harmful waste” bin, peple can use it t make new batteries. But if yu dn’t, the battery will end up smewhere else. Then, it will pllute the envirnment.
Garbage srting and recycling arund the wrld
Germany: There are big machines in supermarkets. Yu can put bttles in the machines and get mney back.
Japan: A truck playing music cmes t peple’s drs t pick up their garbage. There are eight r mre kinds f garbage. If yu srt any f them wrng, yu will get a ntice n yur dr.
Indnesia: Peple can take buses fr free if they give plastic bttles t bus statins. An hur-lng bus ride csts three large bttles.
Fur kinds f garbage in Shanghai
Recyclable garbage includes paper, bks, plastic items, and glass bttles. Harmful garbage includes lamps, batteries, and ther things with harmful chemicals. Wet garbage usually cmes frm the kitchen, such as fd and vegetables. Dry garbage is anything yu cannt put int the ther three bins such as pens and twels.
61. What can we learn frm Paragraph 1?
A. Many cuntries take Shanghai’s garbage-srting plicy.
B. Many ther cities in China have garbage-srting plicies.
C. Shanghai is the first city in China t make a garbage-srting plicy.
D. China is the first cuntry in the wrld t make a garbage-srting plicy.
62. The writer gives the “battery” example t tell us ________.
A. the imprtance f garbage srtingB. hw t srt ur garbage
C. what harmful waste isD. the difficulty f garbage srting
63. If yu ________, yu can take a free bus ride in Indnesia.
A. put bttles in a machineB. put garbage int different bins
C. get a ntice n the drD. take plastic bttles t the statin
64. Which bin shuld “newspapers” g t?
A．B．C．D．
65. Which is the best title fr the passage?
A. Srt Garbage, Save the EarthB. Less Garbage, Cleaner Envirnment
C. Clean Shanghai, Beautiful ChinaD. Different Cuntries, Different Plicies
D
Sme peple say that dgs are man’s best friend. They are gd partners. Of curse, they can be mre than just a pet as sme dgs are excellent wrking dgs t. We knw abut the amazing help guide dgs give t blind peple. And mre recently, a new rle has been fund fr the animals—wrking as therapy dgs (治疗犬) in universities.
Research by Washingtn State University in the US shws that spending time with a dg can help students wh are feeling stressed. Accrding t Patricia Pendry frm the university, a study f 300 students has fund that weekly hur-lng perids with dgs brught t the university by prfessinal trainers can make students at the high risk f failing exams r drpping ut feel relaxed and accepted. The dgs help them t learn wisely and remember infrmatin well.
Anther piece f research has als shwn that tuching animals can help make peple less stressed，s it makes sense t intrduce them int an envirnment where peple are feeling stressed ut. And by nw, arund 1,000 schls in the US have already used therapy pets. It is becming mre cmmn in the UK. Hwever, it’s hard t describe the influence f just having a dg lying dwn in the crner f a class.
Using dgs fr therapy can als help dgs themselves. In Wales, Swansea University Students’ Unin has used dgs they saved t help students relax between exams. Mistreated and abandned (被遗弃的) dgs are als used t cmmunicate with humans.
S if yu’re a student wh’s been wrking like a dg (but yu still feel like yu dn’t have a dg’s chance in passing yur exams), maybe intrducing a fur-legged friend int yur life is just what yu need.
66. The first paragraph mainly talks abut_____________.
A. excellent wrking dgs B. different rles f dgs
C. dgs and blind peple D. different kinds f dgs
67. Hw can students avid experiencing t much stress accrding t Paragraph 2？
A. By learning with dgs arund. B. By cmmunicating with smart dgs.
C. By staying with dgs fr an hur a week. D. By asking prfessinal dg trainers fr help.
68. What des the underlined wrd them refer t？
A. Researchers. B. Wrking dgs. C. Dg trainers. D. Therapy pets.
69. What des the example f Wales mainly shw？
A. Dgs can als get help frm therapy perids.
B. Tuching animals is gd fr students’ health.
C. Playing with dgs is very ppular amng students.
D. It’s imprtant fr students t have a rest between exams.
70. What can be the best title f the passage？
A. A ppular way f learningB. Dgs fr students stressed ut
C. Gd news fr abandned dgsD. Therapy perids in mdern life
非选择题部分 共40分
五、选词填空 (共10小题,计10分）
A. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的单词填空 (每词限用一次)。
her fr later special imprtance
Zhang Guimei shwed us hw t be a gd teacher and the 71 f a teacher in students’ lives.
In 2009, Zhang Guimei funded the Huaping High Schl fr Girls in Lijiang, Yunnan Prvince. This is a 72 high schl which des nt ask fr tuitin fees (学费) frm girls in pr families. In 2003, Zhang began t raise mney 73 the schl. During 2003 and 2007, Zhang spent 74 spare time asking peple t make dnatins fr her schl. Hwever, the mney she gt was nt enugh. In 2007, after her dream was reprted, the gvernment prmised t help her prject.
Eleven years 75 , ver 1,600 girl students have graduated frm the schl and received higher educatin, including many famus universities in China.
B. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的动词，并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号(每词限用一次)。
keep practice have receive educate
A few days ag, I 76 a letter frm my Aunt Lraine.
It was a handwritten letter thanking me fr sme Shanghai ckies I had sent her. Aunt Lrraine is ninety-ne years ld and she 77 wnderful manners. That is why she sent me the “thank yu” letter. She als has wnderful handwriting. Her handwriting is smth. It is a pleasure t read.
Aunt Lrraine 78 half a century ag. At that time, handwriting was cnsidered an imprtant skill. But nw few peple have the time r hpe 79 their handwriting r write letters by hand.
If yu want t get gd grades, yu 80 yur writing clean and beautiful in future.Yur writing might be full f gd ideas. Hwever, terrible handwriting can turn an A int a B. Awful handwriting can get yu a D!
六、阅读理解七选五 (共5小题, 计5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并把答案涂在答题卡相应位置。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Vaccines (疫苗)will be used t stp peple frm getting the COVID-19 virus. China is giving free vaccines t all Chinese peple. 81 Is it OK fr yu t get ne? Let’s take a lk at several things yu need t knw abut the COVID-19 vaccines.
82
The vaccines China is nw using are called “inactivated vaccines” (灭活疫苗). They have “dead” viruses inside. They wn’t make yu sick, but yur bdy will learn what the virus lks like. When yur bdy sees a “living” virus, it can kill it right away.
Hw is the vaccine given?
83 Yu need t have tw dses (剂药). Yu shuld wait abut tw weeks after the first dse t get the secnd ne.
84
China has tested the vaccines in three different age grups: 3 t 17, 18 t 59, 60 and abve. The 18-t-59 age grup is getting the vaccines first. The ther tw grups will get the vaccines sn.
D we still need t wear masks in public places if we’ve gtten the vaccines?
It takes a few weeks fr the bdy t becme immune (免疫的). 85 There is als a small chance that yur bdy wn’t becme immune. S yu’d better keep wearing masks, practicing scial distancing and washing yur hands after getting the vaccines.
A. Can peple f all ages get the vaccines?
B. S it’s nt necessary fr us t wear masks.
C. The vaccine is given by injectin (注射).
D. Hw d the vaccines stp us frm COVID-19?
E. Yu might want t knw hw the vaccines wrk.
F. During these few weeks, yu culdn’t get the COVID-19 virus.
G. This means a persn culd get sick just after getting the vaccines.
七、书面表达（25分）
A. 情景运用 (共5小题，计5分)
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或作答。
86. A: _____________________________________________________________?
B: It was sunny yesterday.
87. A: What des yur sister want t be when she grws up?
B: _____________________________________________________________.
88. A: ____________________________________________________________?
B: We’d like t visit the Great Wall.
89. A: What was yur father ding at eight ’clck last night?
B: ____________________________________________________________.
90. A:What did she use t d?
B:____________________________________________________________.
B. 作文（20分）
假如你是李华, 你的英国笔友Jack给你发了一封电子邮件，询问你校开展课后延时服务的情况。请根据以下提示写一封回信。
注意：
（1）词数100左右；
（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
（3）文中不得出现真实人名、校名、地名等信息；
（4）开头和结尾已给出, 不计入总词数。
Dear Jack,
Thanks fr yur e-mail. Yu asked me abut after-class services in ur schl. ________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
2022年初中学业水平考试
英语模拟试题（二）答案
选择题部分
一～四题、六题
（一）一 ～ 四题答案：
1-5ACBCB6-10ABACB11-15 BCAAC16-20 BCBCA
21-25 CCDBA26-30 ADCBA31-35 CCCAD36-40 DBBDC
41-45CBCAB46-50ACCAD51-55 BDCDD56-60 BBCCA
61-65 CADBA 66-70 BCDAB
（二）六题答案
81-85 EDCAG
（三）评分说明：
1. 1-50题，81-85题每小题1分;
2. 51-70题，每小题1.5分；
3. 与答案不符, 不得分。
非选择题部分
五、选词填空 （10分）
（一）答案：
（A）71. imprtance72. special73. fr74. her75. later
（B）76. received77. has78. was educated79. t practice80. will keep
（二）评分说明：
本题共10分，每小题1分。
与答案不符, 不得分。
六、阅读理解七选五 （5分）
答案在选择题部分
七、书面表达（25分）
A、情景运用（5分）
（一）答案:
86.Hw was the weather (yesterday) ?
87.She wants t be a dctr (when she grws up) .
88. Where wuld yu like t visit?/What wuld yu like t d?
89. He/My father was reading a newspaper/ newspapers.
90. She used t fly a kite/kites.
（二）评分说明：
A、情景运用
1. 和答案一致，得全分。
2. 与答案不一致，但是无语法单词错误，也可得全分。
3. 出现单词语法错误，不得分。
B、作文（20分）
（一）答案 略
（二）评分说明：
1. 本大题共20分。
2. 卷面书写潦草不工整，可酌情从总得分中扣1-2分。
3. 拼写错误每个扣0.5分。同样错误不重复计算。
4. 可分为五个等级:
（1） 16－20分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。若无语法、词汇错误，可得满分。
（2） 12－15分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整，3－4处语法错误，字数基本符合要求。
（3） 8－11分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在70词左右。
（4） 4－7分：短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写一般，字数在50词以下。
（5） 4分以下：短文内容明显遗漏要点，写了一些无关的内容。语法结构或词汇方面的错误
较多，词不达意。
2022年初中学业水平考试
英语模拟试题（二）
听力原文
一、 听力测试(共20小题，计20分)
（A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. Have a gd day!
2. Can yu play the guitar?
3. They g t wrk by bus.
4. When was the car invented?
5. They have never been t Shanghai.
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. M:I was brn in 2006.What abut yu, Mary?
W: I’m ne year lder than yu.
7.M:What wuld yu like t drink, apple juice r milk shake?
W: Neither. I prefer range juice.
8.M: Whse pen is this?
W: It culd be Mary’s. I saw that she used a black pen like this yesterday.
9.M:Can I help yu, madam?
W: Yes, I’d like t buy a jacket fr my sn.
10.M: Hw d yu study fr a test, Mary?
W: By wrking with my friends, but my brther studies by reading textbks.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
W: Hey, Tm.I’ve heard yu wrk at an animal hspital every Saturday.Is that right?
M: Yes, that’s right.The jb is a little hard,but I lve it.
W: Why d yu lve the jb?
M: Ah, because I want t be an animal dctr in the future.
W: Oh, really? It’s cl.
M: I think s. Tina, I knw yu read bks fr children in the library after schl.
W: Yeah, I lve reading bks and I like t help ther peple.
M: Hw ften d yu read bks fr them?
W:Once a week.
M: Great !Maybe we can d smething t help thers tgether this summer vacatin.
W: Gd idea! Hw abut wrking in an ld peple’s hme?
M:I agree! Let’s d it tgether!
D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
Gd mrning, bys and girls. Here is N.9 Junir High Schl n the radi. There will be a wnderful party in ur schl meeting rm tnight. It starts at 6:45.It is fr ur freign teacher,Miss Green.She has been teaching in ur schl fr seven years.She always makes ur class lively and interesting.And she teaches us s well,s everyne likes her,but she is ging back t Lndn next Saturday.S we’ll have t say gd bye t her.T shw ur thanks,everyne can bring a small gift t her.The Blue Sky Bys,ur favrite band will play all their new sngs at the party.Have yu heard mst f their sngs? Miss Green likes cuntry music very much,and we hpe that she will like their new sngs.Everyne can dance t the music.We’ll have a great time here.Cme and jin us.See yu at 6:45 tnight.
听力测试到此结束。
Sky Lantern Club
Intrductin: Sky Lanterns are made f bamb and cvered with paper. They are first used t ask fr help when peple were in truble. Tday, they are used t shw happiness and gd wishes.
Time: Saturday 8:30 a.m-10:30 a.m
Place: Building 3 Rm 501
Paper Cutting Club
Intrductin: Paper Cutting turns a simple thing like a piece f paper int a beautiful piece f art. Pictures abut flwers, animals and s n are put n windws, drs and walls as symbls f gd wishes and gd luck.
Time: Saturday 9:00 a.m-11:00 a.m
Place: Building 3 Rm 502
Chinese Knt Club
Intrductin: Chinese Knts are usually made f red and yellw rpes. Peple use them t shw gd wishes, including happiness, lve, peace and s n.
Time: Sunday 2:30 p.m-4:30 p.m
Place: Building 3 Rm 603
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