2022年广东省揭阳市实验中学九年级第一次模拟考试英语科试卷

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说明: 1.全卷共 8 页，考试用时为 90 分钟（其中听力考试时间约 20 分钟），满分 120 分；
答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、试室号和座位号填写在答题卡相应位置上；
选择题每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案。作答在试卷上的答案无效；
非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上。不得使用铅笔或涂改液，否则答案无效。
一、听力理解（本大题分为 A、B、C、D 四部分，共 30 小题，每小题 1 分，共 30 分）
听单句（本题共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
根据所听句子的内容和所提的问题，选择符合题意的图画回答问题，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项 涂黑。每小题听一遍。
（）1.Hw did Peter carry the bx?
（）2. What is the speaker’s favrite Chinese fd?
（）3. Hw lng was the nline lessn yesterday?
（）4. Wh greeted the speaker at the gate?
（）5. Why did the speaker call the plice?
听对话（本题共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
根据所听内容，回答每段对话后面的问题，在每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答 题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段对话听两遍。
听第一段对话，回答第 6 小题。
（）6. What’s the weather like?
Warm.B. Cld.C. Ht.
听第二段对话，回答第 7 小题。
（）7. Hw is the wman’s rm?
Clean.B. Empty.C. Untidy.
听第三段对话，回答第 8 小题。
（）8. Hw will the wman g t Harbin?
A. By ship.B. By plane.C. By train.
听第四段对话，回答第 9 小题。
（）9. What prize did the man’s class get yesterday?
A. The first prize.B. The secnd prize.C. The third prize.
听第五段对话，回答第 10 小题。
（）10. Hw ften will the wman have her histry classes?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Three times a week.
听第六段对话，回答第 11~12 小题。
（）11. When will they get the cake?
A. At dinner.B. Befre dinner.C. After dinner.
（）12. Whse birthday is it?
A. Tny’s.B. Jane’s.C. Steve’s.
听第七段对话，回答第 13~15 小题。
（）13. What’s the relatinship between Mike and Jhn?
A. Classmates.B. Neighbrs.C. Brthers.
（）14. Why did Jhn mve t Australia?
Because he lves travelling.
Because he’s gt a new jb there.
Because he wants t live by the sea.
（）15. Where did Jhn get the cat?
A. Frm a friend.B. Frm the street.C. Frm a pet shp.
听独白（本题共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
根据所听独白的内容，在每小题给出的三个选项中，选出一个能完成句子的最佳答案，并将答题卡上对 应题目所选的选项涂黑。每段独白听两遍。
听第一段独白，完成第 16-20 题。
（
）16. When was the shw Survivr n televisin?
A. At the mment.B. Last mnth.
C. Last year.
（
）17. Where d all these peple live?
A. In the huses.B. Near the htels.
C. Outside.
（
）18. Where are the tw teams f peple taken?
A. T a village.B. T an island.
C. T a muntain.
（
）19. Hw many useful things can they take with them?
A. One.B. Tw.
C. Three.
（
）20. Hw can they eat while they are there?
By finding fd themselves.
By chsing fd frm the trees.
By eating the fd given by the shw assistants.
听第二段独白，回答第 21~25 小题。
（）21. Why are ld peple easily killed when they are crssing the rad?
Because they dn’t lk bth ways befre crssing the rad.
Because they can’t see r hear very well.
Because they dn’t listen t the yung.
Lk the left f the way.
Lk the right f the way.
Lk bth ways.
听填信息（本题共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共 5 分）
你将听到一则关于毕业聚会的通知，请你将答案写在相应题目的答题位置上。短文听两遍。
二、语法选择 (本大题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分)
阅读下面的短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一 个最佳答案，并将答案填写在答题卡相应题目的答题位置上。
When smething ges wrng, what wuld yu say? It can be very satisfied t say, "I knw I am late, but it is
nt my fault; the car brke dwn." It is prbably nt my fault, 31 nce yu frm the habit f blaming ( 责备 ) smebdy r smething else fr a bad situatin, yu are a lser. Yu have n pwer and culd d nthing that helps change the situatin. Hwever, yu can have great pwer ver what happens t yu if yu stp 32 n whm t blame. Fcus n hw t make the situatin 33 than befre. This is the winner's key 34 success.
Winners are great at slving prblems. Fr example, if yu were late because yur car brke dwn, maybe yur car shuld 35 mre ften. Or yu may start t take alng with yu the useful phne numbers, s yu
36 call fr help when yu're in need. Fr 37 example, if yur wrkmate is lack f respnsibility r ability, find ways f dealing with his fault rather than simply blame the persn. Yu shuld accept the fact and find creative ways 38 successfully, paying n attentin t 39 yur wrkmate failed t d his jb well.
Being cncentrated(集中注意力) is a winner's secnd key. When I feel nervus, it helps a lt t repeat wrds such as "calm", "peace" r "fcus", either ut lud r silently in my mind. It makes me feel mre in cntrl and
increases my cnfidence. This habit can becme secnd nature quite easily and is 40pwerful psychlgical(心理的) tl.
（）31.A. andB. butC. sD. thugh
（）32.A. fcusB. fcusingC. fcusedD. t fcus
（）33.A. gdB. wellC. betterD. best
（）34.A. tB. atC. byD. with
（）35.A. checkB. checkedC. t checkD. be checked
（）36.A. shuldB. mightC. canD. must
（）37.A. antherB. therC. the therD. thers
（）38.A. wrkB. wrkingC. t wrkD. wrked
（）39.A. thatB. whichC. whatD. hw
（）40.A. aB. anC. theD. /
三、完形填空（本大题共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对 应题目所选的选项涂黑。
I still remember the last Christmas Granny spent with us. At that time, I didn’t knw she was sick. Nrmally,
I was just t 41 that Christmas was n the way. Granny helped me t write a letter t Santa Claus telling him abut all the 42 I wanted. She als taught me hw t make sugar biscuits.
In December, ur excitement grew each day lights appeared in the streets, Christmas cards exchanged. On
Christmas Eve, Granny tk a seat by the fire as we 43 the Christmas tree. I hung many clrful balls n the tree. “That’s the mst beautiful tree I’ve ever seen.” Granny said with 44 .
Befre bed, Granny and I 45 sugar biscuits t treat Santa Claus, and put a stcking at the end f my bed. I remember Granny singing t me in a 46 vice until I fell asleep. My stcking was full f small presents n Christmas mrning. Granny 47 a special gift fr me as usual. It was a music bx with a nte inside. The nte read “Merry Christmas! I lve yu, my sweet girl!” Suddenly, warmth 48 all ver my bdy.
A few weeks after that Christmas, Granny died f illness. I think f her a lt s that I ften take ut the music bx. Inside I still keep the 49 nte. When I think abut what makes Christmas s magical, it’s nt just gifts and Santa Claus. It’s als my 50 f Granny. Nw I'm the ne wh makes sugar biscuits each year, and I always make ne in a G-shape – G fr Granny.
四、阅读理解 （本大题共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
阅读 A、B 两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案， 并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
（
）22. Wh is ften killed because f carelessness?
A. Yung peple.B. Children.
C. Middle-aged wmen.
（
）23.What shuld we d when we want t crss the rad safely?
（
）24. What is the safest way fr us t g acrss the rad?
A. Walking quickly.B. Walking slwly.
C. Running quickly.
（
）25. What culd be the best title f the passage?
A. Traffic lights.B. Traffic Safety.
C. Traffic Rules.
（
）41.
A. active
B. absent
C. excited
D. humrus
（
）42.
A. prducts
B. biscuits
C. pstcards
D. presents
（
）43.
A. shwed up
B. put up
C. ended up
D. lked up
（
）44.
A. care
B. fear
C. pleasure
D. pity
（
）45.
A. tk ff
B. shwed ff
C. gave ut
D. laid ut
（
）46.
A. sft
B. plite
C. sleepy
D. painful
（
）47.
A. created
B. prepared
C. prcessed
D. invented
（
）48.
A. separated
B. prduced
C. spread
D. reflected
（
）49.
A. lng
B. warm
C. thick
D. serius
（
）50.
A. pride
B. influence
C. hnr
D. memry
A
（）53. Which is NOT the prper time t g t the City Library?
Befre the children’s film starts.
When the children’s film is ver.
Right after drpping the child ff.
Befre half-price mvies are shwn.
（）54. Wh is prbably interested in the childcare service?
A teenager girl wh enjys ding the shpping.
A father wh likes playing with children a lt.
A parent wh wants t have a relaxing evening.
A mther wh has just gt a newbrn baby girl.
（）55. The passage is mst prbably frm .
a guidebk t Brisbane
a pster f a lcal cinema
a magazine abut child-raising
a website fr weekend activities
（
）51. What is nt prvided free fr children?
A. Ppcrn.B. A juice.
C. A children’s film.D. Chicken nuggets.
（
）52. Lrd f the Wings may be .
A. a library
B. a cinema
C. a restaurant
D. a clthing stre
B
We have fund plastic in the cean and in animals like birds, fish and whales. But fr the first time, scientists have fund plastic in the waste frm the human bdy, USA Tday reprted.
The findings came frm a pilt study led by scientists frm Envirnment Agency Austria. The researchers fllwed eight healthy vlunteers frm different parts f the wrld. The vlunteers wrte dwn what they ate fr a week and then prvided a stl sample fr testing.
Scientists fund nine different types f plastic in the samples, accrding t the study. An average(平均数) f
20 small plastic particles(颗粒) were fund in every 10 grams(克) f stl. The particles measured between 50 t 500 micrmeters.
“The smallest plastic particles can enter the bldstream, the lymphatic(淋巴的) system, and may even reach the liver（肝脏）,” Philipp Schwab, wh tk part in the research, said t The Guardian.
Hwever, the scientists aren’t sure if the plastic is harmful t humans. They’re nt sure hw the plastic gt in the vlunteers' bdies, either. But mst f the vlunteers said they drank frm plastic bttles and als ate seafd that culd include plastic frm cean pllutin.
In fact, plastic is everywhere arund us. Every year, an average f 8 millin tns f plastic waste ges int the ceans, accrding t Natinal Gegraphic. There, sunlight and waves break the plastic items dwn t the sizes f grains(谷物) f rice. Mst f the particles stay in the cean；thers can spread int the sil and the air. Culd plastic in the air fall nt fd and get int the human bdy?
Accrding t USA Tday, 90 percent f sea salt sld glbally cntains plastic. And even sme tap water has been fund t have tiny plastic particles in it.
（ ）56. Accrding t USA Tday, scientists have recently discvered .
plastic pllutin is wrse than ever
animals like birds r fish can eat plastic
sea salt is nt safe t eat any mre
plastic has been fund in human waste
（）57. The pilt study shws that .
scientists frm Australia fllwed eight healthy vlunteers
the vlunteers kept a recrd f what they ate fr a week
nine plastic particles were fund in the vlunteers' stl samples
it prved that cean pllutin has becme rather serius
（）58. What des the underlined wrd “ sample” in the passage prbably mean in Chinese?
A. 样本B. 类型C. 工具D. 报告
（）59. Frm Paragraph 4, we can knw .
plastic particles are inside all f us
plastic can harm the lymphatic system
plastic particles can be f a few different sizes
plastic particles can reach many parts f ur bdies
（）60. The writer prbably wants t tell us .
plastic des n harm t ur bdies
peple shuld stp drinking tap water
it can be hard t avid plastic in fd and drinks
the best way t deal with plastic waste is t burn it
C
配对阅读。左栏是对出国旅游感兴趣的五位学生的描述，右栏是七个“一带一路”国家的介绍，请为左栏 的每个人选择一个合适的国家。
（）61. Jack likes t visit a cuntry which has beautiful views and friendly peple. Mst imprtantly, he can try different kinds f delicius fd and fruit there.
（）62. Sam wh is interested in
histry lves t visit a cuntry where he can learn a lt abut the ancient culture and rich histry.
（）63. Mike lives in the nrth part f China. He wuld like t g t a cuntry where he can relax himself in ne f the htels with ht springs.
（）64. Sue lves t g t a special cuntry. Maybe it's small and pr, but peple there live a happier life than thse frm ther cuntries.
（ ） 65. Lucy is studying a science-related majr( 专 业 ).She wants t visit a cuntry which takes the leading psitin f cean research and public health.
Hungary is ne f the 49 island cuntries in the wrld. It desn't have cean casts, but it has many natural ht springs. Yu are welcme t Budapest (布达佩斯) which many cnsider t be ne f the finest cities in Eurpe.
It's hard t imagine that such a small place culd be ne f the wrld's "happiest" cuntries. But Bhutan truly is the happiest cuntry in Asia. It encurages peple t fcus n what they have, rather than what they d nt have.
Russia is the largest cuntry in the wrld, cvering ne seventh f the wrld's land area. It als has the wrld's largest ttal area f frest. It has ver 40 natinal parks. It is n the nrth f China.
Where are the wrld's friendliest peple? They live in the Kingdm f Thailand. It is knwn as the "Land f Smiles". Its peaceful way f life, natural beauty and delicius fd and fruit have made it a ppular turist attractin (旅游胜地).
Fr mst Chinese, Saudi Arabia is a faraway land. Hwever, relatins
between the tw cuntries culd date back t ancient times. In the ninth century, the Tang Dynasty and the Arabian Empire wrked tgether clsely.
Fr mst peple, Egypt is a place full f ancient things. The Pyramid( 金
字塔)is regarded as ne f the eight wnders in the wrld. Many things we use tday were invented in ancient Egypt, such as eye makeup and black ink.
Israel is in the desert. It had t wrry abut water in the past. In recent years, the cuntry has develped excellent technlgy t turn seawater and waste water int usable water.
五、短文填空（本大题共 15 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共 15 分）
请用适当的词完成下面这篇短文，并把所缺单词填写在答题卡指定的位置上。每个空只能填写一个形 式正确、意义相符的单词。
The Chinese war film, The Battle at Lake Changjin, was 66 shw n September 30, 2021. The film tells the stry abut hw bravely Chinese Peple’s Vlunteers (CPV) sldiers fught. The battle at Lake Changjin plays an 67 part in the War t Resist US Aggressin and Aid Krea.
Hwever, the real battlefield ( 战 场 ) is much harder than 68 in the film. Lake Changjin is in Nrth Krea. In Nvember 1950, United Natins Cmmand headed nrth t the Yalu River, the brder ( 国 界 ) 69 China and Nrth Krea. The war 70 ut in the extremely cld winter with the temperature f arund 40℃. CPV sldiers needed t fight against nt nly United Natins Cmmand, but als the nature with their strng will. In the battle f Lake Changjin, in rder nt t be fund by the 71 , the sldiers stayed still ( 不 动 的 ) in the ice and snw. When ther sldiers arrived at the battlefield, 72 they were dead, they still held their rifles (步枪), as if they were ready t fight.
While 73 with the sldiers’ relics ( 遗 物 ), a letter was fund n Sng Ama, a Shanghai﹣brn sldier. “Snw and ice! I will never give in t yu. I am 74 f my cuntry and myself. Even if I freeze t death, I will stand my grund!” It’s nt the film itself that makes peple mved, but the heres during the war
75 fught bravely fr ur cuntry and the peple.
六、读写综合（本大题分为 A、B 两部分，共 25 分）
回答问题（本题共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
请阅读下面这篇文章回答问题，把答案写在答题卡指定的位置上。
The grand( 盛大的) shw t pen the 2008 Summer Olympic Games left a deep impressin n the wrld. Furteen years later, Beijing made anther appearance at the pening ceremny f the 24th Winter Olympics. The pening ceremny began at the Natinal Stadium in Beijing n February 4, 2022. With Chinese festival culture and scientific and technlgical visual wnders, it nt nly celebrated the highest level f winter sprts, but als celebrated the traditinal Spring Festival, which amazed the internatinal audience(观众).
The audience and the natinal televisin audience felt excited when Xi annunced the pening f the
Olympic Games, because it made the Chinese capital the first city in the wrld t hst bth the summer and winter Olympic Games.
The Friday pening was set n the same day as lichun, r the “Beginning f Spring”, which is the first f 24 slar terms( 节 气 ) n China’s lunar calendar. It aimed t represent the rganizers’ wish fr friends arund the wrld t welcme a new spring tgether.
China sent 176 athletes, which was the mst since the cuntry’s Winter Olympics debut( 首次亮相) at the 1980 Games. And in the Olympic Games, 211 caches and fficials fr cmpetitin in 104 medal events ut f a ttal f 109. The Games tk place in three hsting areas－Beijing’s dwntwn, its nrthwest Yanqing district and c-hst Zhangjiaku, Hebei prvince.
Internatinal Olympic Cmmittee President Thmas Bach said, “This is the missin f the Olympic Games.
Bring us tgether in peaceful cmpetitin. Uniting(团结) humankind in all ur diversity.”
When was the pening ceremny f Beijing Olympic Winter Games?
Why did Chinese peple felt excited when Xi annunced the pening f the Olympic Games?
Which is the first f the 24 slar terms f the year n China’s lunar calendar?
Culd we see the events in Beijing 2022 Winter Olympics in Qingyang accrding t the passage?
Wh is Thmas Bach?
书面表达（本题 15 分）
北京冬奥会给世界带来了许多惊喜，我们向世界展示了我们的新形象。在冬奥会的赛场上，我们看到了运动员们为了梦想克服困难、全力拼搏的奥运精神，作为新时代的青少年，你一定深受感触，我们都应该为了梦想而努力奋斗。请你根据以上内容，写一篇文章，内容包括：
令你深受触动的奥运精神有哪些？
中考即将到来，我们要如何把这些精神运用到实际的生活或学习中去。
呼吁同学们学习奥运健儿们自信乐观、努力拼搏、不断进取的精神。 作文要求：
不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。
语句连贯，词数 80 个左右。作文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数。参考词语: 运动员 athlete中考 senir high schl entrance examinatin
The Beijing 2022 Olympic Winter Games has brught plenty f surprises t the wrld.