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2021届四川省眉山市高三三模英语试卷(文字版、含答案)
展开本试卷由四个部分组成。其中,第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题,第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。满分150分,考试时间120 分钟。
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号和座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。
第一部分 听力(共两节 ,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B 、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When will the match be finished?
A. At 8: 15. B. At 8:30. C. At 8:45.
2. What will the girl d next Sunday?
A. Visit her grandpa.
B. Stay at hme with her friend.
C. Have dinner with her uncle's family.
3. Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. At a hspital. B. At a schl. C. At a bkstre.
4. Hw will the tw speakers prbably get t the cinema?
A. By bus. B. By undergrund. C. By cab.
5. What des the mther ask her sn t d?
A. Give the key back.
B. Find wh tk the key.
C. Tell Mary t return the key.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6.7题。
6. What has the man been ding lately?
A. Playing the vilin.
B. Studying fr a degree.
C. Wrking n his secnd bk.
7. What des the wman d?
A. She is a dctr. B. She is a writer. C. She is a teacher.
听第7段材料,回答第89题。
8. What des the speakers' mther enjy mst?
A. Chinese fd. B. French fd. C. Italian fd.
9. When des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。.
10. What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Dctr and patient.
B. Emplyer and emplyee.
C. Interviewer and interviewee.
11. What is the wman's health prblem?
A. She can't sleep well at night.
B. She has been putting n weight.
C. She suffers frm eating t much.
12 What is the cause f the wman's prblem?
A. Lacking in exercise and sund sleep.
B. Eating t many ptates and sandwiches.
C. Having much fried bread befre ging t bed.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What is talked abut in the cnversatin?
A. An uting. B. A meeting. C. A party.
14. Where are the speakers ging fr the event?
A. Lndn. B. Edinburgh. C. Clasgw
15. Wh knws the city f Edinburgh best?
A. Hlly. B. Daisy. C. Jessica.
16. What des the man think f Lndn?
A. A turists' attractin in autumn.
B. A place wrth visiting nce in a while.
C. A city that makes a visitr willing t stay.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. What did the speaker plan t d in Singapre?
A. Tur. B. Teach. D. Study.
18. What did the speaker d befre she let?
A. She sld her apartment.
B. She brrwed sme guidebks.
C. She gave away all her heavy clthes.
19. What happened t the speaker in the end?
A. She was fired by her bss.
B. She gt anther jb frtunately.
C. She had t return t her hmetwn sn.
20 Where's the speaker nw?
A. In Lndn. B. In Hng Kng. C. In Singapre.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Here are sme apps yu may find useful.
Mirrr
It is like having a persnal trainer in yur hme with yu The super smart screen is designed t lk like a full—length mirrr. It ffers mre than 20 types f wrkuts with classes ranging frm 15 t 60 minutes and beginner t expert levels. Mirrr requires special equipment that is separate frm the price f a membership.
Peltn
Even thse wh dn't like exercise knw what Peltn is. Wrkuts available n the Peltn app g far past biking. But with s many Peltn die—hards praising the app as ne f the best cardi (有氧运动) wrkuts ut there, the cycling aspect deserves a sptlight. Peltn is cmmunity—based and ffers the chance t bike with ther members. Classes are fun t fllw alng, led by famus instructrs.
Fitbd
It builds custm wrkuts based n yur strength—training ability, past wrkuts, and available gym equipment. Each day yu get a persnalized fitness plan t help yu get strnger. It is its advantage that attracts many die—hard fans. Fitbd wrkuts fcus n all yur muscle grups in the classes. Fitbd is free t try, but if yu want t unlck the unlimited wrkuts, yu have t pay.
Tnal
It is designed fr peple wh like the range f machines at the gym, but dn't like sharing them. It brings the whle gym setup hme, but it's nt cheap. Accessries(配件) like handles and a bench are sld separately. Instead f taking up a bunch f space in yur garage r basement, Tnal prvides everything including fitness classes in a tuch—screen display.
1. Which app is best fr cyclists?
A. Fitbd.B. Tnal.C. Mirrr.D. Peltn.
2. What is special abut Fitbd?
A. It ffers daily wrkut plan.
B. It can be used fr free frever.
C. It has ffline persnal trainers.
D. It centers n weight lss prgrams.
3. What d the fur apps have in cmmn?
A. They require custmers t register.
B. They sell relevant equipment.
C. They give fitness classes nline.
D. They can be used while wrking.
B
Sacha Jafri is a 44—year—ld artist frm England. He decided t create the wrld's largest painting. He asked children t send him pictures shwing their true feelings, and he gt artwrk electrnically submitted by children frm ver 140 cuntries.
Using the children's ideas as a starting pint, he started t paint at the beginning f March last year. He tried t keep the ideas frm the children's pictures in his mind. He even included the children's drawings in the artwrk.
Jafri used a huge ballrm in a fancy htel t d this. He wrked lng hurs— ften up t 20 hurs a day. He hurt his back by bending ver s much while he painted s that he had t put it aside and have a rest fr sme days in July. It tk seven mnths, ver 1 ,000 paintbrushes and 1 ,664 gallns f paint t create the painting which is ver 1,600 square meters. He set a Guinness Wrld Recrd fr the wrld's largest painting—rughly the size f fur basketball curts.
The artwrk called The Jurney f Humanity is abut cnnectin between peple. Jafri hpes that n matter what difficulties peple meet, it will help bring the wrld tgether and unite as ne t fight against them. Since Jafri's gal was t raise mney t help children, he planned t cut it up int smaller sectins, s he culd sell them fr charity.
Jafri hped that by selling the sectins separately, he culd raise $ 30 millin. But when the auctin (拍卖)ended n March 22, 2021, Jafri did much better than that. And he didn't have t split up the pieces. The whle artwrk was sld fr $62 millin. That's the furth highest price ever paid fr a painting by a living artist. The buyer plans t build a special building t shw the artwrk ff and let mre peple appreciate it.
4. Why did Jafri ask the kids frm different cuntries fr their pictures?
A. T sell them t raise mney fr his painting.
B. T cllect their ideas t be used in his painting.
C. T make his painting the wrld's largest ne
D. T shw the wrldwide influence f his painting.
5. When did Jafri finish his painting?
A. Last July.B. Last August.
C. Last September.D. In March ,2021.
6. What is the theme f Jafri's The Jurney f Humanity?
A. The prtectin f children.
B. The develpment f charity.
C. The appreciatin f different arts.
D. The partnership between peple.
7. Hw did Jafri feel abut the utcme f the auctin abut his painting?
A. It's unexpected.B. It's dubtful.C. I's discuraging.D. It's wrrying.
C
Many kinds f birds migrate (迁徙) nrth in the spring and suth in the fall, with mst flying at night, lking fr fd and better cnditins. But many birds die alng the way. Sme f these deaths are the result f human actins, such as hunting, r clearing huge areas f land that used t be used by migrating birds. Mst imprtantly, experts say that as many as ne billin birds may die every year in the US alne as a result f flying int buildings. Other tall structures, such as pwer lines and cell twers als lead t many bird deaths.
Nw peple in Philadelphia are wrking t remve at least ne f the ways that migrating birds die. Birds can get disriented by the lights and glass f buildings alng their migratin paths, causing them t strike buildings r windws. Buildings are a special challenge fr migrating birds. The windws can reflect things like the sky r tree branches, causing birds t fly directly int the glass. Many birds migrate at night. Bright city lights add anther layer f difficulty, cnfusing birds that might nrmally be guided by the stars.
Nw the city has begun a prgram called Lights Out Philly, which requires building wners and peple wh live in the area t turn ff all utside lights that aren’t needed between midnight and 6 in the mrning. S far, the majrity f the public have been taking part, including the city’s best-knwn and tallest buildings: One and Tw Liberty Place, the Cmcast twers, and the BNY Melln Center. “We want t be part f the prgram in preserving the bird ppulatin,” they said.
Twice a year (frm April 1 t May 31, and frm August 15 t Nvember 15), the lights n many f the city’s buildings are turned ff.
8. What des paragraph 1 center n abut migrating birds?
A. The dangers they face.
B. The prcesses they experience.
C. The directins they take.
D. The barriers they vercme.
9. Which can replace the underlined wrd “disriented” in paragraph 2?
A. Tired.B. Blind.C. Angry.D. Lst.
10. What is mst peple’s attitude t the prgram?
A. Tlerant.B. Psitive.C. Disapprving.D. Ambiguus.
11. What is the suitable title fr the text?
A. Birds Meet Dangers While Migrating
B. Migratins Lead t Mass die-ffs f Birds
C. Philadelphia Ges Dark t Prtect Birds
D. Birds Migrate t Lk fr Better Cnditins
D
In 2016, Japanese scientists fund a kind f bacteria, which they called Idenella sakainesis, culd “eat” plastic.
The secret fr Idenella sakainesis is enzymes (酶) used by bacteria and ther cells t make chemical changes happen. It uses tw enzymes t turn plastic int smething it can eat. What's left ver afterward culd be used t make new plastic. One f them, called “PETase”, is the ne that breaks dwn the plastic. Recently, scientists have figured ut a way t make the bacteria eat plastic even faster. They did sme chemical wrk with the enzyme PETase. They thught what they did wuld make it eat plastic even slwer. Hwever, they were surprised t find that the change made it eat 20% faster.
This is an imprtant step, but it will still be a while befre we will knw if Idenella sakainesis can really make a difference. Everything has t be just right fr it t d its wrk. It can't be t ht r t cld. The scientists say they'll keep explring t make it wrk in all kinds f cnditins. Besides, it nly eats ne kind f plastic called PET, which is usually used fr making bttles. But scientists think it is pssible that there may be ther kinds f bacteria that eat ther kinds f plastic. They think that even if these bacteria dn't already exist, they may cme alng sn. Bacteria can change their habits quickly, cmpared t bigger life frms.
Mst plastic can already be recycled, and this is really just a new way t recycle it. Hwever, as scientists warn seriusly, Idenella sakainesis' new functin des nt change the fact that nly abut 9% f plastics actually get recycled, while the rest get thrwn away. They als pint ut that harmful chemicals are added when plastic is made. If bacteria break dwn plastic in natural areas, thse pisns will be given ff, and culd affect plants, animals, r humans.
12. Hw did the scientists find the fact that the bacteria eat plastic faster?
A. They made changes t PETase.
B. They added mre PETase t plastic.
C. They mixed plastic's tw enzymes.
D. They remved enzymes frm plastic.
13. What d we knw abut Idenella sakainesis frm paragraph 3?
A. It breaks dwn sme special kinds f plastic.
B. It eats plastic under demanding cnditins.
C. It stps ther bacteria pssessing PETase.
D. It prduces enzymes when eating plastic.
14. What d the scientists cnvey abut plastic recycling in the last paragraph?
A. They are cnfident t d it.B. It's hard t recycle plastic.
C. Its situatin wrries them.D. It has been well dne s far.
15. What's the authr's purpse in writing the text?
A. T advcate recycling plastic.
B. T praise scientists' hard wrk.
C. T shw severe plastic pllutin.
D. T intrduce a new discvery.
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Sleep is clearly imprtant fr ur health, helping ur bdies functin at their best. ____16____ Sme new research suggests that sleep des have psitive scial cnsequences.
Sleep helps us t be kinder t thers. When we sleep prly, the parts f ur brain devted t mercy dn't functin as well. In ne study, cllege-aged participants kept track f their sleep quality fr tw weeks and then perfrmed a task while having their brains scanned. ____17____
Sleep helps us apprach thers and avid lneliness. It's been lng knwn that lneliness is assciated with pr sleep. Can pr sleep lead t lneliness? In a recent study, researchers scanned peple's brains after they slept nrmally r had a night f sleep deprivatin (剥夺).
____18____ Participants were asked t watch vides f a stranger appraching them frm a distance and t push a buttn when they felt the stranger was t clse. ____19____ When participants had suffered abnrmal sleep, they wanted the persn t stp at a much greater distance than they did after a night f nrmal sleep, and their brains reflected a particular pattern.
____20____ A recent study suggests it is true. Participants wh were randmly assigned (分配) t keep r restrict their sleep ver tw days were then asked t d a difficult task while listening t very disgusting nise bund t make them annyed. Thse wh'd restricted their sleep became much angrier during the task, cmpared t thse wh'd had nrmal sleep.
A. Sleep helps us t be less angry and aggressive.
B. They wanted t see hw they wuld react t strangers.
C. Did the prly slept participants reprt feeling lnelier?
D. Sleep makes a persn nt be angry and make mre friends.
E. But des getting a gd night's sleep affect ur relatinships, t?
F. Meanwhile the researchers bserved what was happening in their brains.
G. Thse wh'd reprted better sleep felt much mre sympathy fr peple in truble.
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Laura Stne is the funder f Sydney by Kayak (皮艇), a cmpany that ffers guided kayak turs f Sydney Harbr in Australia.
A few years ag, Laura was paddling in the harbr when she ____21____ much garbage flating in the water. Then an ____22____ suddenly struck her. She decided t risk ____23____ a tur prgram “Turists ____24____ rubbish n the water as they spend little mney turing.” Her prgram was a big ____25____, which was beynd her expectatin. ____26____, Sydney by Kayak has ever since led fur t five garbage-cllecting turs every week!
At the start f COVID-19, Laura assumed her ____27____ wuld drp ff. Instead, mre peple came and ____28____ her “Clean Up Kayak” tur, making it mre ____29____ than ever. They nw _____30_____ take abut 441 punds f garbage ut f the harbr each week!
“We're surprised that we've _____31_____ it,” Laura said. “Because peple can't travel these days, peple are _____32_____ t lk fr smething t entertain them. Actually, this tur is nt just gd fr them, but als gd fr the _____33_____.”
Sme peple cme back many times fr the _____34_____ f cllecting rubbish frm the harbr. Julie Greening has _____35_____ ten times s far and says, “While _____36_____ the sunshine, we can d sme small things fr the earth, which is s _____37_____. If everyne takes a little _____38_____ it's ging t be beneficial.”
Laura came up with the prgram _____39_____, and it helps the earth as much as it helps participants. We hpe it _____40_____ all ver the wrld, making the wrld becme a better place fr us t live in.
21. A. imaginedB. nticedC. keptD. stpped
22. A. experienceB. ideaC. expectatinD. actin
23. A. startingB. cnfirmingC. learningD. delaying
24. A. thrw awayB. fcus nC. clean upD. pay fr
25. A. dutyB. stepC. dreamD. hit
26. A. HweverB. TherefreC. MreverD. Instead
27. A. planB. jbC. methdD. business
28. A. distributedB. changedC. jinedD. shared
29. A. ppularB. uniqueC. expensiveD. authentic
30. A. finallyB. graduallyC. rutinelyD. frtunately
31. A. imprvedB. savedC. madeD. recgnized
32. A. afraidB. prudC. braveD. eager
33. A. envirnmentB. skillfulnessC. behavirD. friendship
34. A. genersityB. satisfactinC. explanatinD. appintment
35. A. bkedB. annuncedC. wanderedD. returned
36. A. findingB. spreadingC. enjyingD. escaping
37. A. valuableB. naturalC. tughD. cmplex
38. A. rewardB. talentC. ptentialD. respnsibility
39. A. by chanceB. in returnC. as usualD. n purpse
40. A. passes byB. catches nC. gives utD. ges ff
第二节(共10 小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
New inventins are being dreamed up and designed every day. Tday's inventrs fllw ____41____ same path that inventrs did in the past. They identify a prblem and create smething ____42____ (settle) it.
Riya Karumanchi knew a wman wh was visually weakened and used a white cane(手杖) t get arund. Riya was surprised that even with the cane, the wman ____43____ (struggle). She ften kncked against bjects, ____44____ std higher than her knee level.
Riya assumed the device(设备) came laded with cutting—edge technlgy, but she ____45____ (shrt) learned that wasn't true. “It's just a stick,” she said. “My initial thught was like, 'What? Hw is nbdy wrking n this? '” Riya made up her mind t wrk n it ____46____ (her). At age 14, she engineered a device nw ____47____ (call) SmartCane. The cane uses sensrs t spt barriers and wet surfaces. It shakes rapidly t warn the user f a ____48____ (danger) situatin. GPS navigatin( 导航) gives directins using special vices. And an emergency buttn acts ____49____ a lifeline, cnnecting the user t first respnders r lved nes.
Riya is nw 16 and a high schl student in Canada. She's als the ____50____ (fund) and CEO f the SmartCane cmpany. She hpes the device will reach the peple in need sn.
第四部分 写作( 共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
51. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧) ,并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
My best friend's name is Li Hai. We have been friend fr 15 years. We have never attended differently classes. That's crazy, right? We bth grew up in the small city. We started ging t schl when we were 6 and since then we had never been separate. We share the same interests. When we were in primary schl,we began t enjy play ftball. I have never been the ftball match withut him. One year ag, we went t Sanya that we spent a lt f time in the sun. Unfrtunately, I gt myself sunburn seriusly. It was him wh tk gd care f me s that I recvered sn.
第二节 书面表达(满分25 分)
52. 假定你是李华,是班上英语课代表。你们准备举办—场告别高中生活的晚会,请你用英语给你班外教Gerge写一封邮件,邀请他参加。内容包括:
1.晚会时间地点;
2.晚会主题与内容;
3.请他参加并表演节目。
注意:1.词数100左右;
2.可适当增加细节,使行文流畅。
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