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四川省泸州市龙马潭区2021-2022学年九年级中考模拟检测英语试卷
展开(考试时间∶120分钟)
说明∶
1.本试卷分为第一部分(选择题)和第二部分(非选择题)两部分。第一部分(选择题)第1至6页,第二部分(非选择题)第6至8页。
2.第一部分(选择题)满分70分,第二部分(非选择题)满分50分;全卷满分为120分;考试时间为120分钟。3.答卷前,考生务必将自己的灶名、准考号填写在答题卡上,并在规定位置粘贴考试用条形码。答卷时,考生务必将答案涂写在答题卡上,答在试题卷上无效。考试结束,将试卷和答题卡一并收回。
第一部分(选择题 共70分)
注意事项∶
每小题答案选出后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案。
一、基础知识运用(共两节;满分30分)
第一节 单项选择(共10 小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填人空白处的正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1.—The weather reprt says it is sunny this weekend.
— .I am ging n a picnic with my classmates.
A.Bad luck B. That's great C. Srry, I can't D.I'm afraid nt
2.—We'll have the in tw weeks.I feel a little nervus.
— Relax! Believe in and practise mre.
A.yu B. yur C. yurs D. yurself
3.—Ww, yur rm lks s bright and tidy!
—Yes,it every day.
A.cleans B. cleaned C. is cleaned D. was cleaned
4.—Lily, can yu get my dictinary?
—Wait a minute,Lucy. I clthes.
A.washed B. am washing C. will wash D. have washed
5. The teacher is glad t see that Tny des hmewrk than befre.
A. Careful B. mre careful C. mre carefully ] D. carefully
6.It abut eight minutes fr the light t travel frm the sun t the earth.
A. pays B.cst C.spends D. take
7.—Shall we g t the airprt t yur sister?
—It's unnecessary. She will cme here by taxi.
A. See ff B. lk after C. pick up D.cme acrss
8. They didn't g hme they finished their wrk.
A. because B. until C. if D. when
9.—Is that girl under the tree Mary?
N,it______be Mary. She is in Beijing nw.
A.can't B. mustn't C. needn't D. shuldn't
10.—Culd yu please tell me ?
—Next Friday mrning.
A. hw will we visit the Space Museum
B. hw did we visit the Space Museum
C. when we will visit the Space Museum
D.when we visited the Space Museum
第二节完形填空共(20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)通读下面的短文,然后从后面各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
There was a by and his family had much mney. One day his father tk him n a tip. He wanted t shw his sn hw pr peple were there.They spent seven days n the 11 . There were many pr families living n it.
On their way hme, the father asked the sn," 12 was the tip?"
"It was great, dad,"the sn answered.
"Did yu see hw pr peple 13 there?" asked his father.
"Oh, yes," said the sn.
" S, tell me " said the father.
The sn said,"Well,we have 14 dg and they have fur. We have a pl in ur garden,but they have a river. We have nly a small huse t live in,but they have a 15 farm. We buy ur fd, but they grw theirs."
Hearing this, the father didn't say anything.
B. street C.farm D.city
B. When C. Hw D. Where
B. was C. are D. were
14.A. the B.an C. ne D. tw
15.A. small B. great C. lng D. big
B
A lng time ag,there was a huge apple tee. A little by lved t cme and lay arund it every day. He 16 t the tree tp, ate the apples,tk a nap under the shadw. He lved the tree and the tree lved t play with him.
Time went 17 , the little by had grwn up and he n lnger played arund the tree every day. One day,the by came back t the tee and he lked 18 ."Cme and play with me," the tree asked the by."I am n lnger a kid. I dn’t play arund trees anymre." The by 19 ,"I want tys. I need mney t buy them.""Srry, but I dn’t have mney,but yu can pick all my apples and sell them. S,yu will have mney." The by was s 20 . He grabbed all the apples n the tree and left happily. The by 21 came back after he picked the apples. The tree was sad.
One day, the by returned and the tee was s excited."Cme and play with me," the tree said. "I dn’t have 22 t play.I have t wrk fr my family. We need a huse fr shelter. Can yu help me?""Srry,but I dn’t have a huse. But yu can chp ff my branches t 23 yur huse."S the by cut all the branches f the tree and left happily.The tree was glad t see him happy but the by never 24 fr a lng time
Finally,the by returned after he left fr s many years."Srry,my by,I really cant give yu anything.The nly thing let is 25 dying rts," the tree said with tears.
I dn't need much nw,just a place t 26. I am tired."The by replied. "Gd! Old tree rts is the best place t lean n and rest. Cme and sit dwn with me and rest."The by sat dwn and the tree was glad and smiled with tears.
This is a stry f everyne.The tree is ur 27 . When we were yung,we lved t play with Mm and Dad. When we grew up,we left them,and nly came t them when we need smething r when we are 28 .N matter what happens,parents will always be there and give 29 they culd t make yu happy. Yu may think that the by is cruel t the tree 30 that's hw all f us are treating ur parents.
B. grew C. climbed D. left
17. A.n B.dwn C.by D.in
B.happy C.excited D. surprised
B.replied C.thught D.tld
B.lvely C tired D.excited
B.usually C.ften D.never
B.time C.peple D.place
B. build C.start D.run
up B. put up C.shwed back D.shwed arund
B. yur C.my D.her
B.sit C.play D.rest
B.friends C.brthers D.sisters
danger B. thing C.in charge D.in case
B.in truble C.nthing D.everything
B. r C.but D.if
二、阅读理解(共20 小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下面短文,从每个题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
D yu knw the tw lvely mascts(吉祥物)?Yu may knw the five"Fuwa"dlls frm the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games.On September 17,2019, the tw lvely mascts first shwed n TV.Nw,let's
see wh they are.
Lk at the panda! It lks like an astrnaut. It wears an ice shell and lks fat,s we call it"Bing Dwen Dwen". White is the clr f ice and snw."Bing Dwen Dwen"likes ice sprts very much and is gd at them. That's why it is the masct f 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.The red heart shape in its left hand means welcming the friends frm ther cuntries. The bright clrs f the circles arund its face stand fr ice and snw sprt tracks, meaning cnnectivity and advanced technlgies.
D yu think the red masct lks like a lantern? The lantern's name is"Shucy Rhn Rhn". When the Chinese New Year cmes,peple always make r buy red lanterns.Red is the clr f hpe and gd luck,s peple think their dreams will cme true in the new year."Shuey Rhn Rhn"can give players hpe and help them d well in the 2022 Being Winter Paralympic Games(残奥会).
Many peple in different cuntries like the tw mascts very much, and they shw their lve fr them n the Internet.
31.is the masct f 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
A."Fuwa"dlls B. Bing Dwen Dwen C. An astrnaut D. Shuey Rhn Rhn
32. Where is the red heart?
A. It's n Shuey Rhn Rhn's face.
B. It's n Bing Dwen Dwen's neck.
C. It's n Shuey Rhn Rhn's lanterm.
D. It's in Bing Dwen Dwen's left hand.
33. Why d peple make r buy red lanterns when the Chinese New Year cmes?
A. Because it is easy t make red lanterns.
B. Because"Shuey Rhn Rhn"is a masct.
C. Because peple think red lanterns are very lvely.
D. Because peple think red lanterns can bring gd luck.
34. Frm the passage,we can learn
A."Bing Dwen Dwen"can skate very well.
B."Shuey Rhn Rhn"likes ice sprts and is gd at them.
C. the tw lvely mascts were first shwed n TV n September
16. D. everybdy likes the tw mascts and shws his lve n the Internet.
35. What's the best title f the passage?
B. Tw Olympic mascts cme t life.
A. The sprts in Olympic Games.
C.2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games.
D.2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
B
The winter hliday is usually a gd time t sleep in. But Ga Yuqi, a 14-year-ld by frm Luzhu,gt up at 7:00 am t run at least 2 kilmeters every day during the hliday.In fact, this exercise was part f his hmewrk,
Ga was nt alne. Many schls acrss the cuntry required students t exercise during the winter hliday. Part f the reasn is that physical educatin test scres are nw wrth mre n the senir high schl entrance examinatin(中考). And the scre is nw wrth up t 70 pints.
Because f this, Ga's schl nw asks students t run when the weather is nice, and exercise in-drs if it is bad. Students have t pst(公布) exercise phts in their classes' QQ grups.At the Glden Apple Jincheng N,1 Middle Schl in Chengdu,students have daily exercise plans. Fr example, they have t skip rpe fr tw minutes and d three sets f sit-ups each day.Their parents sign ff (签名)n their plans when they finish exercising.
This has been a big challenge fr many students,but has als helped t make exercise a bigger part f their lives. Many students like Ga used t hate running, but nw they are able t run fr ver half an hur every day. They fell in lve with exercise during the hliday.
36. Hw many kilmeters did Ga Yuqi run every day during the hliday?
A. At least ne kilmeter.
B. At least tw kilmeters.
C. At least three kilmeters.
D. At least fur kilmeters.
37. What did the schls require the students t d during the winter hlidays?
A. T exercise.
B. T be vlunteers.
C. T have a rest.
D. T d a survey.
38. What d the students have t d when they finish exercising in Ga's schl?
A. T call their teachers.
B. T put their plans nline.
C. T ask their parents t sign ff n their plans.
D.T pst exercise phts in their classes'Q0 grups.
39. Which f the fllwing is NOT mentined in the passage?
A. Skipping rpe. B. Swimming. C. Sit -up. D.Running.
40. What is the passage mainly abut?
A. Hw t exercise during the winter hliday.
B.Exercising is a big challenge fr many students.
C. Physics educatin test scres are imprtant nw.
D. Exercising is becming part f students' hmewrk.
C
Carl visited his grandparents n their farm n weekends.He was given a slingsht(弹弓)t play in the wds. He was excited and practiced fr sme time.But he culd never hit the target(靶子). Getting a little upset, he went back fr dinner. As he was ging back,he saw his grandmas duck.Withut thinking,he used the slingsht t hit the duck in the head and killed it. In a panic(惊慌),he just hid the dead duck in the wdpile,seeing his sister watching! But Sally said nthing.
After lunch the next day,Grandma said,"Sally, help me with the dishes." But Sally said, "Grandma, Carl tld me he wanted t help in the kitchen.Then she said t Carl in a lw vice,"Re-member the duck?"S Carl did the dishes.Later that day, Grandpa asked i the children wanted t g fishing, and Grandma said,"I’m srry but I need Sally t help me make dinner.
Sally just smiled and said,"Well, that’s all right because Carl tld me he wanted t help yu."She turned t Carl again,"Remember the duck?"S Sally went fishing and Carl stayed behind t help make dinner.
After several days f ding bth his chres and Sally’s. Carl finally culdn’t stand it anymre. He went t his grandma and said that he had killed the duck.Grandma gave him a hug,and said,"Sweet-heart,I knw.Yu see, I saw the whle thing at the windw that day,but because I lve yu,I frgave yu.I just waited t find ut when yu wuld tell me what yu did."
41.Hw did Carl feel withut hitting the target?
A. Unhappy. B Bred. C. Nervus. D.Sy.
42. Wh actually saw Carl hit the duck?
A.Only his sister B.Only his grandma.
C. His sister and grandma. D.Nbdy.
43. Why did Carl keep helping Sally d chres?
A. Because he had tld Sally he wuld d them.
B. Because Sally didn’t knw hw t d them.
C.Because he wanted Sally t keep the secret.
D. Because Sally made him d it.
44. What has Carl learned frm his experience?
A.Be brave. B. Be thughtful
C. Be helpful. D. Be hnest.
45. What des the wrd"frgave"mean?
A.原谅 B明白 C.警告 D.可怜。
D
D yu ften listen t music at lud vlumes(音量)? Over ne billin yung peple are at risk f hearing lss(失聪)because f listening t lud nise fr lng perids f time.Listening t music r watching a TV shw at lud vlumes is harmful t yur hearing.
The United Natins has standards fr safe listening. It is nt safe t listen t sunds that are luder than 85 decibels(dB分贝)fr eight hurs r 100 dB fr 15 minutes. The sund f a busy rad is abut 85 dB and the sund f a rck cncert can be abut 100 dB.
Lud nise is harmful t the inner ears.Mst f us are brn with abut 16,000 hair cell(听毛细胞)in ur inner ears. Hwever, listening t lud nise fr a lng time can make these cells wrk t hard and cause sme f them t die. This is what causes hearing lss.
Sme peple might think that their music isn't all that lud.But this can depend n where yu are. Fr example, if yu are in a nisy place like the subway,yu might turn up yur music t lud withut realizing it.Later,when yu listen t i at the same vlume in a quiet place,yu might feel uncmfrtable.
The Wrld Health Organizatin said the"safe level"fr mst sunds is belw 80 dB fr upt40 hurs a week.A levelf80 dB is rughly equal t(大约相当于)the nise f a subway.
46. Many yung peple are at risk f hearing lss because they
A. watch TV every day
B. listen t music every day
C. listen t lud nise in the subway
D. listen t lud nise fr a lng time
47. The sund level f a rck cncert is abut
A.80 db B.85dB C.100 dB D.110dB
48. What is lud nise harmful t?
A. The inner ears. B. The brain. C. The heart. D. The eyes.
49. What can yu learn frm the passage?
A. We feel cmfrtable when listening t lud music in a quiet place.
B. Mst peple are brn with abut 1,600 hair cells in the inner ears.
C. It is nt safe t listen t sunds that are luder than 85 dB fr 15 minutes.
D.Belw 80 dB fr up t 40 hurs a week is the"safe level"fr mst sunds
50. What is the best title f the passage?
A. Keep the Lud Vlumes.
B. Lud Nise Is Harmful t Hearing.
C. The Risk f Listening t Music.
D. Lud Nise Stps Ears frm Wrking
第二部分(非选择题 共 50分)
注意事项
第二部分共2页,用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔答在答题卡上,不能答在试卷上。
三、完成对话(共5个小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容在每个空缺处填入一个适当的词,使整段对话意思完整,请把该空缺处的词填写在答题卡上相应的位置上。(每空限填一词)
A:Hi,Linda.I haven't seen yu fr days.What's up?
B;I was ill last week.I had t stay 51 hme fr several days.
A:Oh,I'm 52 t hear that.Did yu g t the hspital?
B:Yes,I did.I tk sme medical tests and the dctr tld me that I just gt a fever.
A;I see. Hw are yu 53 nw?
B:Much better. S I am back t schl tday.
A:Yu'd better take exercise.By the way,have yu ever been t the new sprts center?
B:Nt yet.What can we d there?
A:We can d 54 there,such as playing ftball and playing table tennis.
B:Sunds interesting. 55 far is it frm here?
A:It's nly 2 kilmeters away frm here.
B:Great ! Let's g there after schl.
四、短文填空(共10 小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
通读下面短文掌握其大意,然后从短文后面的括号里选出可以填入短文空格处的词,并将其该词的字母代号(不写出该词)填写在答题卡上的位置上。
Yung peple are ften unhappy when they are with their parents. They say that their parents dn't 56 them. They ften think their parents are t strict 57 them.
Parents ften find it difficult t win their 58 trust,and they seem t frget hw they them selves felt when they were yung.
Fr example,yung peple like t d things withut much thinking. It's ne f their ways t shw that they grw up and they can slve any difficult 59.But lder peple always think 60 than yung peple. Mst f them plan things ahead and dn't like their plans t be 61,
s when yu want yur parents t let yu d smething,yu will succeed easily if yu ask befre yu really start ding it.
Yung peple ften make their parents angry by the 62 they wear, the music they enjy and smething else.But they dn't mean t cause any truble.They just want t be cut ff(摆脱)frm the ld peple's wrld and they are 63 t make a new culture f their wn. And if their parents dn't like their music r clthes r their ways f speech, the yung peple feel very sad. Smetimes instead f ging ut with their parents, they just want t stay at hme alne and d what they like.
If yu plan t d smething, yu'd 64 win yur parents ver and get them t understand yu, if s, yur parents will certainly let yu d 65 yu want t d.
(A.better B. with C. what D.changed E. mre
F. Understand G.children's H. trying I.prblems J.clthes)
五、阅读短文并回答问题(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,回答文后所给出的问题,并按要求将答案填写在答题卡相应的位置上。
Results f an internatinal research f educatinal achievement in 2018 came ut n Tuesday this week. Students frm China and Singapre came ut n tp.
The test is given every three years t 15-year-lds arund the wrld. It tests their knwledge in reading, science and math. The test is held by the Organizatin fr Ecnmic Cperatin and Develpment(OECD). It's reprted that abut 600,000 students in 79 natins and educatinal systems tk part in the tw-hur cmputer-based exam last year. They said schls in each cunty are carefully chsen t make sure that students cme frm a wide mix f backgrunds and abilities.
The test scres are watched clsely by the leaders f every cuntry. The results shw American students are OK in reading and science, but weak in math.Singapre finished in fifth place in the study.The best-perfrming students in all tree subjects were in China. They are frm Beijing and Shanghai, and tw ther prvinces: Jiangsu and Zhejiang.
66. Hw ften is the test given?
67.What knwledge is the test abut?
68.Why d the researchers carefully chse schls?
69. D American students d well in math?
70.Students frm which cuntries are the best in the research f 2018?
六、书面表达(共1题,满分25分)
作为一名初三的学生,你即将毕业离开母校。在过去的三年中,你在学校度过了很快乐的时光。请你根据下面的信息,用英语写一篇发言稿,表达你对母校、老师、同学和工作人员的感激之情。
1.母校∶校园非常美丽,是一个学习的好地方等;
2.老师∶关心学生,对我们有耐心等;
3.同学∶勤奋好学,互相帮助等;
4.工作人员;工作努力,晚睡早起等;
5.个人想法∶……
要求:
1.词数110词左右(首句已给出,不计入总词数)
2.要点提示均需涉及,可适当增加内容;
3.字迹工整,卷面整洁,文意连贯,语言流畅;
4.不用真实姓名、校名、地名。
参考词语∶patient,help each ther,thanks fr
Hell,everyne.Id like t talk abut my life in ur schl.
Thanks fr listening.
参 考 答 案
1-10 BDCBC DCBAC
11-15 CCDCD
16-30 CCABD DBBAC DABDC
31-50 BDDAB BADBD ACCDA DCADB
51-55 at srry feeling sprts/exercise Hw
56-65 FBGIE DJHIAC
66. Every three years.
67. Reading,science and math.
68. Because students cme frm a wide mix f backgrund and abilities.
69. N, they dn't.
70.China.
七、书面表达(25分)
略书面表达评分标准
(一)评分原则∶
1、本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2、评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3、词数少于80和多于120的,从总分中减去2分。
4、评分时应注意的主要内容为;内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。5、拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(二)评分标准∶
第五档(21-25分)∶完全完成试题规定的任务,完全达到了预期的写作目的——覆盖所有内容要点。
一应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
-有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
第四档(16-20分);完全完成了试题规定的任务,达到了预期的写作目的一虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
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