甘肃古浪四中2021-2022学年第一学期八年级英语期中考试试卷(word版,无答案))
展开满分(100分)
听力部分(15分)
一、. 听句子, 选出你所听到的单词。每个句子读一遍。(每小题1分,满分5分)
1. A. nceB. twiceC. nw
2. A. bagB. penC. key
3. A. bkB. playC. sng
4. A. junkB. healthyC. unhealthy
5. A. atB. afterC. abut
二、听句子,选择你所听到句子的最佳答语。每个句子读一遍。(每小题1分,满分5分)
6. A. I like t exercise.B. Yes, I d. C. Twice a day.
7. A. N, I dn’t.B. 9 hurs. C. Every night.
8. A. G t the mvies. B. I like it very much. C. Yes, I am.
9. A. Yes, she is. B. Yes, she can.C. N, she desn’t.
10. A. Yes, I can. B. Table tennis.C. Watching TV.
三、 听对话, 在下列每个小题的空白处填写一个适当的单词。每段对话读一遍。(每小题1分,满分5分)
11. Sandy can watch TV abut _______ a mnth.
A. nce B.twice C.three times
12. Jack’s favrite sprt is _______.
A.vlleyball B. tennis C.sccer
13. Susan thinks _______ is junk fd.
A.this B.that C.they
14. The man thinks _______ are gd fr his health.
A. that B. they C.it
15. Lisa didn’t cme t schl because she lked after her _______ at hme.
A.grandma B.mather C.father
笔试部分(满分85分)
四、语法与情景会话。(15分,每小题1分)
( )16. Mm, I’m hungry.Is there _____ t eat?
A.smething B.nthing C.anything D.everything
( )17. —Where did yu g ___ vacatin? —I ____ the muntains.
A.t, ges t B.n, went t C. n, ges t D.n, g t
( )18. Her mther ges t wrk ____ bus every day.
A. by B. at C. n D. In
( )19.Mst students exercise ____ a week.
A. nce r twice B.ne time r tw times
C.ne time r twice D.nce r tw times
( )20. Ted is ____ mre serius than Jhn.
A.few B.a lt f C.much D.very
( )21.—Wh is _____,Tm,Jim r David? —I think Jim is.
A.taller B.the taller C.tallest D.the tallest
( )22.—What abut ____ a rest? —OK.Let’s g ut and have a walk.
A.t take B.takes C.taking D.t taking
( )23. The TV shw is terrible.I ____ it.
A.can’t stand B.lve C.dn’t mind D.like
( )24. Please drink sme milk.It is gd ____ yur health.
A.t B.fr C.at D.with
( )25. The film is very ____,s I am _____ in it.
A.interested,interesting B. interested, interested
C. interesting ,interested D. interesting, interesting
( )26. We shuld nt eat ____ junk fd.
A.t many B.t much C.many t D.much t
( )27. Mary sings as ___ as Larry.
A.gd B.better C.well D.best
( )28. Beijing is ne f the ____ in the wrld tday.
A.biggest city B.biggest cities C.big city D.big cities
( )29. The bss ften makes his wrkers ____ 12 hurs.
A. t wrk B.wrking C.wrk D.wrks
( )30.Of the tw students,Tny is ___ ne.
A.taller B.the taller C.tallest D.the tallest
五、完形填空。(共10分,每小题1分)
密 封 线 内 不 得 答 题
I have a twin sister,Kitty. She has _31___ hair than me. I dn’t like lng hair.Many peple think we must have a lt f things in cmmn. I’m afraid this is nt true. I dn’t really care if my sister is _32__ me r different. When my parents’friends cme t ur hme, Kitty ften sits there and says __33__,but I like t talk with them. S she is __34__ than me. Kitty likes reading, drawing and cking. I just like swimming and playing basketball. She has _35____ hbbies than me, but she is nt as strng _36__ me. Beacuse Kitty des __37__ than me at schl, my parents ften say t me,”__38___ Kitty is yunger than yu, yu shuld learn _39__ her.” We d have sme similarities(相似之处),hwever. Fr example, we _40___ like eating fast fd, ging shpping and listening t pp music.We can talk abut and share everything.
( ) B.lng C.shrt D.shrter
( ) than B.similar C.gd fr D.the same as
( ) B.nthing C.anything D.everything
( ) B.yunger C.wilder D.busier
( ) B.mre C.less D.fewer
( ) B.as C.t D.fr
( ) B.bad C.better D.gd
( ) B.N matter C.Althugh D.As
( ) B.frm C.as D.by
( ) B.all C.bth D.tw
六、阅读理解。(共20分,每小题2分)
A
Jack and Hb are ging t high schl nw.Jack wants t be an engineer(工程师).He is ging t build rads,bridges and huses.Hb is interested in math and science,but he is ging t study medicine.He wants t be a dctr.
Kate is gd at music.She wants t be an artist.She is ging t sing and dance fr peple.Jan wants t be a wman astrnaut(宇航员).She says,”I am ging t explre (探险)space sme day.”What d yu want t be,Alice?”Jan asks me.”Oh,I want t be a teacher.When I grw up,I’m ging t teach in the cuntryside.”
Each f us is ding his r her best at schl.I am sure we will d smething
学校:_______________ 考号:_______________ 姓名:_______________
----------------请---------------------不---------------------要---------------------在---------------------密---------------------封---------------------线---------------------内---------------------答---------------------题---------------------
gd fr ur cuntry.
( )41._____ students are talking.
A.Tw B.Three C.Fur D.Five
( )42.Wh wants t be an artist?
A.Jan B.Jack C.Kate D.Alice
( )43._____ is interested in math?
A. Jan B. Jack C.Hb D.Alice
( )44.What des Jan want t be?
A.An astrnaut B.A teacher C.A dctr D.An engineer
( )45.Where des Alice want t teach?
A.On a farm B.In the cuntryside C.At hme D.Abrad
B
Dear Liza,
I will be ten years ld n Friday,22nd July. T celebrate(庆祝) my birthday, I will invite several friends and I hpe that all f yu will cme t the party n that day.
There will be tw parts in my party. The first part will be at the swimming pl near ur schl. Please bring yur swimsuit(泳衣) and a change f clthes. We have planned sme pl games. My parents will be at the pl t prtect the swimmers. The pl party will be frm 2 t 3 p.m.
The secnd part f the party will be at my huse. A bus will take us all frm the pl t my huse. A. singer is cming t my huse. He will sing ppular sngs fr us. I am sure yu will enjy them.The hme party may last till 5 p.m.
Please let me knw by Friday,15th July,whether yu will cme t my party, s that I will knw hw much fd t prepare.
Lve,
Tracy
( )46. Hw ld will Tracy be?
A.Seven B.Eight C.Nine D.Ten
( )47. Where will the first part f the party be?
A.At Liza’s huse B.At Tracy’s huse
C.At the swimming pl D.At the cinema
( )48.Hw lng will the pl party last?
A.Fr 1 hur B.Fr 2 hurs C.Fr 3 hurs D.Fr 4 hurs
( )49.Hw will they g t Tracy’s huse frm the pl?
A.On ft B.By bus C.By car D.By bike
( )50. Why des Tracy want t knw earlier whether her friends will cme?
A.Her parents can prtect the swimers.
B.She will knw what games t prepare.
C.The singer can prepare the sng.
D.She will knw hw much fd t prepare.
七、词汇考察。(共10分,每小题1分)
A、根据句意,用所给词的适当形式填空。
51.Thanks fr _________( help) me .
52. There are sme ________(different) between Tm and Sam.
53.Des Sue eat a _______(health) breakfast.
54.I always get ______(gd) grades than he des.
55. I like t fllw the stry and see what ______(happen) next.
B、根据汉语意思填空。
56. It is nt ____________(必要的) t be the same.
57.I ______(希望) t be a TV reprter ne day.
58.It has the mst ___________(舒服的) seats.
59.Only fifteen ________(百分之…..) f ur students exercise every day.
60.My father didn’t bring ________(足够的) mney.
八、任务型完形填空。(共10分,每空1 分)
true,Hwever,lives,pr,seriusly,make,fact,fun,enjys,example
Nt everyne __61___ watching these shws.Sme think that the ___62__ f the perfrmers are made up.Fr __63_,sme peple say they are _64__farmers,but in __65_ they are just actrs.__66___,if yu dn’t take these shws t __67__,they are __68_ t watch.And ne great thing abut them is that they give peple a way t __69__ their dreams cme __70___.
九、根据所给汉语提示完成下列句子。(共5分,每题1分)
71.他说汤姆似乎不高兴。
He said that Tm ______ t be unhappy.
72.我喜欢运动,例如:篮球,足球,网球等。
I like sprts,______ as basketball,sccer and tennis.
73.你可以在那里买到最新鲜的食物。
Yu can buy the __________fd there.
74.尽管很多学生喜欢看体育节目,但是游戏类节目是最受欢迎的。
Althugh many students like t watch sprts,game shws are the mst ________.
75.好朋友就像一面镜子。
A gd friend is like a _______.
密 封 线 内 不 得 答 题
十、口语交际。(共5分,每空1分)
A:D yu ften watch TV,Carl?
B: ___76____ My parents can’t stand it,but my brther and I lve it.
A:What shws d yu like?
B:___77__ Idn’t like talk shws.I think they’re bring.D yu like them.
A:__78___D yu like Winner Takes All?
B:Yes,but my favrite game shw is Dg Eat Dg.
A:Yes,it’s gd.__79__
B:Sap peras? They’re awful! I can’t stand them!___80___
A:Yes,I lve them.They’re really interesting.
What d yu think f sap peras?
I dn’t mind them,but I really like game shws.
Yes,I ften watch it.
D yu like them?
I watch it every day.
Well,I like sprts shws and sitcms.
Why dt’t yur parents like it?
十一、书面表达。(10分)
朋友是我们生活中不可缺少的一部分,用所学内容写一段话描述你的一个好朋友。字数限于70字左右。
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
学校:_______________ 考号:_______________ 姓名:_______________
----------------请---------------------不---------------------要---------------------在---------------------密---------------------封---------------------线---------------------内---------------------答---------------------题---------------------
答题卡
Ⅰ、听力部分。(每题1分,共15 分)
一、 1—5 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____
二、 6—10 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____
三、 11—15 ____ ____ ____ ____ _____
Ⅱ、笔试部分
四、单项选择。(每题1分,共 15 分)
16—20 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 21—25 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____26—30 ____ ____ ____ ____ _____
五、完形填空。(每题1分,共10 分)
31—35 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 36—40 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____36—40 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____
六、阅读理解。(每小题2分,共20分)
41—45____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 46—50 ____ ____ ____ ____ ____
七、词汇考察。(每空1分,共10分)
51_________52 _______ 53_________ 54_______ 55________
56________ 57_______ 58_______ 59_______ 60________
八、任务型完形填空。(共10分,每空1 分)
61______ 62_______ 63_______ 64______ 65______
66______ 67______ 68_______ 69 ______ 70________
九、根据所给汉语提示完成下列句子。(共5分,每题1分)
71______ 72______ 73_______ 74 ______ 75________
十、口语交际。(共5分,每空1分)
76—80____ ____ ____ ____ ____
十一、书面表达。(10分)
朋友是我们生活中不可缺少的一部分,用所学内容写一段话描述你的一个好朋友。字数限于70字左右。
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