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浙江省浙北G2（湖州中学、嘉兴一中）2021-2022学年高二上学期期中联考英语试题含答案
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这是一份浙江省浙北G2（湖州中学、嘉兴一中）2021-2022学年高二上学期期中联考英语试题含答案，共23页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
考生须知：
1. 全卷分试卷和答卷。试卷4页，答卷1页，共5页。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 本卷的答案必须做在答卷的相应位置上，做在试卷上无效。
3. 请用钢笔或水笔将班级、姓名、试场号、座位号分别填写在答卷的相应位置上。
4. 本试题卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。
选择题部分
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man mean?
A. He doesn’t know the woman.
B. He knows the woman before.
C. He mistook the woman for someone else.
2. Where might the speakers be?
A. In a supermarket. B. In a restaurant. C. At home.
3. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Get some medicine for the man.
B. Send the man to the hospital.
C. Check out of the hotel.
4. What does the woman suggest the man do?
A. Get a better job. B. Get his car repaired. C. Get a new car.
5. Why did the girl apologize to the man?
A. She didn’t know where she was going.
B. She took the man’s phone by mistake.
C. She bumped into the man carelessly.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2至4个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What does the man prefer?
A. Getting to the airport cheaply.
B. Getting to the airport quickly.
C. Getting to the airport comfortably.
7. Where will the man need to change the train?
A. On the left of the office. B. At Grove Street. C. At No. 12 subway station.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. How much does the man pay for car insurance?
A. $100 a month. B. $200 a month. C. $200 a year.
9. What does the woman mean by saying “Men always cost more to insure than women”?
A. The man is a great driver.
B. Men drive more carelessly than women.
C. The man pays too much money for insurance.
10. What does the man think of the woman’s driving?
A. She drives with care.
B. Fewer accidents are her fault.
C. Less driving frequency makes low insurance.
听第8段材料，回答第11至12题。
11. What is the difference between the first two sandwiches?
A. The vegetables. B. The meat. C. The bread.
12. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a grocery store. B. In a supermarket. C. In a fast-food restaurant.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does the woman want to study psychology?
A. It would be easy to find a job.
B. She would get good grades.
C. She has been interested in psychology.
14. What degree does the woman already have?
A. A B. A. degree. B. A Ph.D. degree. C. A master’s degree.
15. What does the woman plan to do when she graduates?
A. Find a job in Wall Street.
B. Wait for the perfect opportunity.
C. Start from a small job and keep working.
16. What does the man think of the woman’s idea?
A. She might have difficulty making friends.
B. Their kids might not support her.
C. It might be hard to support the family.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker talking to?
A. Psychology majors. B. Psychology teachers. C. High school students.
18. How long does each lecture last?
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. One and a half hours.
19. What does the speaker say about the exams?
A. There will be six exams.
B. They are harder than might be expected.
C. Students are allowed to miss one exam.
20. How can students reach the speaker outside of class?
A. Mainly by email.
B. By calling him directly.
C. By visiting the teacher through weekdays.
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 （共10小题，每小题2.5分，满分25分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项标号涂黑。
A
The very next day we did actually make our start upon this remarkable expedition (探险). At dawn and at sunset, the monkeys screamed together and the parrots started making their high-pitched (声调高的) noise, but during the hot hours of the day only the loud noise of insects, like the beat of a distant surf, filled the ear, while nothing moved amongst the views of huge tree trunks, fading away into the darkness which held us in. Once some creature, an anteater（食蚁兽）or a bear, walked awkwardly amid the shadows. It was the only sign of life which I had seen in this great Amazonian forest.
And yet there were signs that even human life itself was not far from us in those mysterious dark corners. On the third day out we were aware of a strange, deep, rhythmic beat in the air, coming and going on and off throughout the morning. The two boats were moving within a few yards of each other when first we heard it, and our guides remained still, as if they had been turned to bronze.
“What is it, then?” I asked.
“War drums,” said Gomez. “Native people, aggressive, not friendly; they watch us every mile of the way; kill us if they can.”
“How can they watch us?” I asked, gazing into the dark.
“The native people know. They talk the drum talk to each other. Kill us if they can.”
By the afternoon of that day—my pocket diary shows me that it was Tuesday, August 18th—at least six or seven drums were beating from various points. Sometimes they beat quickly, sometimes slowly, sometimes in obvious question and answer, one far to the east breaking out in a high-pitched beat, and being followed after a pause by a deep roll from the north. There was something incredibly nerve-shaking and threatening in that constant noise, which seemed to shape itself into the words: “We will kill you if we can.” No one ever moved in the silent woods.
That night we tied our boats with heavy stones for anchors (锚) in the centre of the stream, and made every preparation for a possible attack. Nothing came, however, and with the dawn we pushed upon our way, the drum-beating dying out behind us.
21. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 1?
A. Show his preference for nature.
B. Create an atmosphere of mystery.
C. Emphasize the importance of the expedition.
D. Admire the splendid scenery in Amazonian forest
22. How did the guides feel when the drums started?
A. Curious. B. Confused. C. Relieved. D. Scared.
23. Why did the natives change the speed of the drums?
A. To practice their drum skills. B. To interact with each other.
C. To attract the visitors in the forest. D. To frighten off the dangerous animals.
B
In Central America, sea turtle eggs are a popular cuisine dish. The eggs are hugely and secretly harvested onto tables, leaving the sea turtles listed as threatened. Yet we simply do not have the ability to continuously guard large beaches. Scientist Kim Williams was thinking hard when she had an “aha” moment: How about placing a fake egg containing a GPS tracker.
That’s how the special eggs come in. To build them, Williams and colleagues used a 3D printer. Then, they fixed in the smallest GPS tracking devices. As mother turtles laid their eggs under cover of night, the researchers slipped a single spy egg into each nest. Once they are covered in sand from the real ones, “it’s very difficult to tell the difference”, says Williams.
Of the 101 spy eggs, 25 were taken away while six of them were quickly discovered and left on the beach. The team received tracking data with the farthest egg travelling 137 kilometers inland and stopping at a local supermarket. The spy egg sent its final signal the next day from a personal house, suggesting that the research team had tracked the eggs all the way. The researchers stress that the tracker is not a way to catch local thieves: many of whom are living in poverty, but rather a tool to better understand how the deal goes.
Still stopping stealing is not as simple as handing the tracking data over to the police. Across Central America, trade in sea turtle eggs can be legally ambiguous. In Costa Rica: for example, it is illegal to steal and sell sea turtle eggs but buying them is not a crime. It is not black and white. Meanwhile, local support is in need above all. “It, but not tracking with eggs, is the real meat and potatoes of conservation,” says Williams.
24. What is the major threat to the existence of sea turtles?
A. Unsafe GPS trackers. B. Unguarded Sea Beaches.
C. The popular dishes of sea turtles. D. The overhunt of turtle eggs.
25. How does Williams explain her study in paragraph 2?
A. By listing scientific data. B. By distinguishing the differences.
C. By clarifying the process. D. By demonstrating an expert’s statement.
26. The researchers tracked so many spy eggs to____________.
A. test the GPS trackers B. arrest the egg thieves
C. look into the whole deal of turtle eggs D. perceive the current situation of sea turtles
27. Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A. Spy Eggs Save Endangered Sea Turtles B. Sea Turtles Draw Constant Concern
C. Spy Eggs Help Locate Egg Thieves D. Advanced Technology Protects Sea Turtles
C
You’re stuck in a sea of standstill traffic when it begins: hunger pangs, the kind that release a steady stream of fast food fantasizing. With your grumbling stomach growing louder, your options are limited: You can wait a few hours for the roadways to clear or leave your car idling (挂空挡) on the highway while you set off on foot (please don’t do this).
Now Burger King, is betting that hungry drivers will welcome a third option: a direct-to-driver delivery concept the company has labeled the “Traffic Jam Whooper.” Reached by email, Gustavo Lauria, co-founder of the advertising agency We Believers, which developed the vehicle delivery concept, said the new approach allows the burger chain to gain advantage on a time of day in which the city’s terrible traffic typically slows business. “This was an opportunity for Burger King to generate new profits out of those hungry drivers”, Lauria added.
Lauria claims Burger King is the first fast food brand to deliver food to people in the middle of a traffic jam. In Mexico City, the company said, delivery drivers are already receiving an average of 7,000 orders per day, mostly to homes and offices. To make the traffic jam delivery process possible, Burger Kings Mexico app activates the service after identifying crowded areas in Mexico City during periods of high traffic. Customers can only place an order if the app determines that the driver will be locked in traffic for at least 30 minutes and they are within a 1.8-mile distance of a Burger King restaurant, the company said.
Early on, Lauria wrote, the act was met with disbelief. The challenges were complex: making sure real-time data of geographic location was accurate enough, and the creation of a hands-free way to take orders on cellphones in a country that has adopted serious punishment for drivers who use cellphones behind the wheel.
Though the company did not offer a timeline, Burger King says it expects to roll out the Traffic Jam Whopper in other overcrowded cities, such as Los Angeles, Sao Paulo and Shanghai.
28. What does the “Traffic Jam Whopper” (paragraph 2) refer to?
A. A proposal intended to ease the traffic jam during peak hours.
B. A practice which allows drivers to have food delivered directly to their cars.
C. A platform which makes it convenient for drivers to order food via cellphones.
D. An association monitoring whether drivers are observing traffic rules strictly.
29. Burger King is launching the Traffic Jam Whopper mainly to ____________.
A. promote its business culture B. make a shift in its sales pattern
C. achieve an increase in its profit D. popularize its business into more cities
30. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The Traffic Jam Whopper poses a threat to the safety of cyclists.
B. Drivers will be allowed to type on their cellphones during traffic jams.
C. Technological barriers may block the traffic jam delivery process.
D. Drivers can instantly choose to activate Burger Kings app at will.
第二节： (共5个小题; 每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项多余选项。
Natural Therapy（疗法）
The great outdoors：it’s the place to head for when you’re in need of peace and quiet, open spaces, beautiful scenery and exercise. Whether a huge mountain range or a local country park, these natural areas are perfect for us to refresh ourselves when we live a stressful life. 31 .
As an example, in the foothills of the Snowdonia National Park in the UK，specialist therapy sessions are held to help people who suffer from depression, anxiety and stress. 32 . Actually, it’s believed that the setting alone can improve the mood of patients. Art psychotherapist Pamela Stanley told the BBC that there was a “growing body of evidence” to support eco-therapy.
It’s true that for most of us connecting with the natural world definitely lifts our spirits. But the mental health charity Mind says eco-therapy has been recognized as a formal type of treatment that can sometimes be prescribed to someone by a doctor. It doesn’t involve taking medication. 33 . This natural treatment can take on many forms, including doing yoga in a forest, gardening or even hugging a tree.
Evidence has shown there are many benefits of this “green” therapy. 34 . Dr. Rachel Bragg from the University of Essex calls it “psychological restoration”. She told the BBC’s All in the Mind programme that nature-based therapies should be part of a “toolkit” of care for patients. 35 . However, it is an option for therapists to use. And as we become more aware of the causes and effects of mental health, it’s good to know that help might lie outside our towns and cities, and that nature can give us a helping hand.
A. Of course, eco-therapy won’t cure everything.
B. The patients organize activities for relaxation.
C. Outdoor art-related activities are held for patients.
D. Instead, it just develops a person’s relationship with nature.
E. These include improving social contact, social and work skill.
F. In nature you can do many things, including reading papers and watching TV.
G. Their relieving power is being used more and more to treat mental health problems.
第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从36~55各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项标号涂黑。
Ciudad Perdida, Colombia’s “Lost City” is older than Machu Picchu(马丘比丘古城). There are no trains or buses allowing of 36 travels to reach its ruins. The chance of getting to this remote place is merely 37 on foot: a tiring hike lasting several days nonstop.
Despite this, I couldn’t 38 the opportunity to visit Ciudad Perdida. Twelve other hikers and I went there in 39 with a licensed guide. The dirt path, which 40 through towering palms and dangling vines（藤蔓），proved 41 right from the start. It’s suggested that hikers have good physical 42 , as the journey is difficult. Horses helped to carry basic 43 like food to the cottages where we would sleep. Along the way we also met the 44 . They have been left undisturbed for centuries and there’s a deep 45 between them and the land.
The next morning, we were off early to 46 the heat, but high temperatures and muscle pain had already 47 by the time we reached the final stage — 1,200 stone steps to 48 . Finally, my eyes rested on the splendid scene that had 49 the hard journey to Ciudad Perdida, 50 lifting my painful body up the long flight of stairs.
I looked down and 51 at the beautiful site below. We were among a handful of other groups visiting, which seemed like 52 compared to other crowded tourist attractions. While the return trip included 53 the mental barrier of having already achieved our goal, the experience is the one I would do 54 . It is the difficulty that makes the journey a more 55 one. Earned views are always better.
36. A. endless B. easy C. frequent D. fake
37. A. dangerous B. impressive C. identical D. available
38. A. resist B. obtain C. promote D. employ
39. A. comparison B. combination C. company D. communication
40. A. buried B. swung C. wound D. leaked
41. A. disappointing B. embarrassing C. challenging D. amazing
42. A. character B. fitness C. independence D. confidence
43. A. equipment B. furniture C. possessions D. supplies
44. A. natives B. visitors C. guides D. drivers
45. A. conflict B. distance C. bond D. belief
46.A. reduce B. avoid C. lower D. detect
47. A. set in B. cut off C. watched out D. gave in
48. A. cover B. catch C. display D. explore
49. A. predicted B. convinced C. motivated D. evaluated
50. A. before B. after C. even though D. as if
51. A. aimed B. pointed C. puzzled D. wondered
52. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. everything
53. A. overcoming B. memorizing C. observing D. witnessing
54. A. otherwise B. instead C. though D. again
55. A. luxurious B. relevant C. flexible D. rewarding
非选择题部分 (请在答题卷上作答)
第二节：语法填空(共10个小题; 每题1.5分, 满分15分)
By the end of June, 2020, fifty-five BeiDou satellites 56._________ (send) up, meaning the completion of China’s self-developed BeiDou Navigation（导航）Satellite System (BDS). 57._________ BDS appears later than America’s GPS, Russia’s GLONASS and EU’s Galileo, it can equal them. As one of the four global navigation satellite systems, BDS involves 58._________（combine） efforts of over 400 agencies and 300,000 research personnel and technicians.
Originally drafted in the 1980s, the project represents a milestone(里程碑) in China’s space effort. BDS is comparable to GPS in terms of the 59._________ (accurate) of positioning and it has been applied 60._________ shared bikes in Daqing. It also offers short message communication, 61._________ provides emergency communications in areas that fail to pick up clear conventional communication signals occasionally. In 62._________ effort to improve the quality of some positioning 63._________ (serve), Apple and Samsung phones, among others, are already using BDS’ signals, and so is every Chinese brand.
The construction of complete BDS is a huge technical achievement for China and can 64._________ (true) pay off in the near future. Meanwhile, 65._________ (promote) the world’s economic and social development as well as peaceful use of space with BDS’s remarkable contribution has attracted the world’s attention.
第四部分：书面表达（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Jerry邀请你下周日去北京环球影视城（Universal Beijing Resort）游玩,并来信询问特色游玩项目。因下周日你需要参加学校的志愿者活动而无法赴约，你回信表示歉意。内容包括：
1.表示歉意；
2.推荐娱乐项目: 各类骑乘设施；哈利波特主题公园等
3.表示祝愿
注意：（1）词数80-100；（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Joe was 75-year-old. His children grew up and moved to different cities in pursue of better career and future. However, he chose to lead a simple yet satisfying life in the small village carrying the memories of his deceased wife. Joe had four lovely grandchildren, Adam, Mary, Kate and Bill, who would make regular visits to him during their holidays.
With the vacation time around the corner, Joe was eagerly waiting for the arrival of his grandchildren. To well prepare his home for the kids, Joe was as busy as a bee, occupying himself cleaning the home, harvesting the garden, rearranging the household items, buying the favourite gifts for the children, etc. It was in such busy arrangements that he lost his beloved watch. The watch was gifted by his wife when their first child was born. Joe treasured the watch and it became his only companion after his wife’s death.
However, Joe was unaware of the missing watch and was joyful receiving the kids at home. When he was about to take a bath the next day, it struck him that the watch was missing. He recalled that the last time he saw the watch, he was arranging things in the barn(谷仓). Heartbroken, Joe stood still in silence. Noticing his dullness, all the grandchildren gathered around and asked what troubled him.
“Dear children, I lost the most precious watch I have ever had and I ever got in my life. It was gifted by your grandma and I lost it while cleaning the home! I feel like I’m missing my heart,” Joe said in tears. Figuring out what had happened, the children promised Joe that they would search for the old watch for him.
注意：1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右； 2.应使用5个以上短文中标有下划线的关键词语。
Paragraph 1: The children decided to search for the watch in the barn.___________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2. One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again.____________ ___________________________________________________________________________________
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
答 卷
第三部分 语言运用
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
56.____________57.____________ 58.____________ 59. _____________ 60. _____________
61.____________62.____________63._____________ 64. _____________ 65. _____________
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节应用文(满分15分)
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
Paragraph 1: The children decided to search for the watch in the barn.___________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again ______________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
答 案
I．听力（共20题，每小题1分，满分30分）
1-5 ABBCC 6-10 ABBBC 11-15 ACCAC 16-20 CACBA
II．阅读（共两节, 第一节25分，第二节10分，满分35分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）
21-23 BDB 24-27 DCCA 28-30 BCC
第二节(共5个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
31-35 GCDEA
III. 完形（共20小题; 每小题1.5分，满分30分）
36-40 BDACC 41-45CBDAC 46-50 BAACB 51-55 DBADD
IV. 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. had been sent 57. Though/ While/ Although 58. combined 59. accuracy
60. to 61. which 62. an 63.service（s） 64. truly 65. promoting
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于60和多余100的,从总分中减去2分。
4.应注意的主要内容:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(13~15)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
(10—12)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(7—9)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(4—6)
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺乏连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
(1—3)
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
三、上下文的连贯性
按照内容要点展开写作,使用恰当的连接词或表达法使文章内容连贯。
四、词数少于60和多于100的,从总分中减去2分。
五、参考范文:
Dear Jerry,
I’m terribly sorry that I can’t join you to visit Universal Beijing Resort next Sunday since I’m fully occupied with the voluntary work in school.
As is known to all, Universal Beijing Resort is gaining increasing popularity at home and abroad. Personally, the breathtaking rides, ranging from incredible pirate ships to terrifying 5D roller coaster, are bound to appeal to thrill-seekers like you. Moreover, as a top tourist destination for fun and relaxation, the theme park of Harry Potter will bring you into a fantasy world, where not only will you encounter your favorite characters, you can also have a deeper insight into the stories behind it.
Hope you have fun and more than fun there.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于130的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性和对所标出的关键词的应用情况;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(21—25)
—与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
—内容丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档
(16—20)
—与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
—内容比较丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档
(11—15)
—与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了若干有关内容,应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档
(6—10)
—与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了一些有关内容,应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档
(1—5)
—与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
—产出内容较少,很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
0
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
三、 参考范文
The children decided to search for the watch in the barn. As they arrived and opened the door, they realized that Joe’s barn was full of waste materials, books, scraps, broken household items, totally in a mess. They searched every corner for the watch with their eyes wide open, as if to seek a needle in the sea. However, hard as they tried, their efforts turned out in vain. Depressed and a bit spiritless, they returned to Joe emptyhanded in the end. Joe was heartbroken and sank to the chair with a gloomy cloud taking on his wrinkled face. He squeezed a smile, gave a wave to the grandchildren and let out a sigh: “Let it go!”
One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again. Adam went alone and after what seemed a while, to their literal amazement, he came back with the missing watch in his hand. With the questioning eyebrows raised on others' face, he explained bluntly that he squatted in the barn, desperately trying to keep quiet, and holding his breath without making a single noise. Ultimately, the silence enabled him to catch the sound of the watch. Under the guidance of the slight sound, he discovered the watch, which was treasured by his grandpa. Cheerful and a bit excited, Joe felt great weight off his mind with his eyes lit up.
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
考生须知：
1. 全卷分试卷和答卷。试卷4页，答卷1页，共5页。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2. 本卷的答案必须做在答卷的相应位置上，做在试卷上无效。
3. 请用钢笔或水笔将班级、姓名、试场号、座位号分别填写在答卷的相应位置上。
4. 本试题卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。
选择题部分
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man mean?
A. He doesn’t know the woman.
B. He knows the woman before.
C. He mistook the woman for someone else.
2. Where might the speakers be?
A. In a supermarket. B. In a restaurant. C. At home.
3. What will the woman probably do next?
A. Get some medicine for the man.
B. Send the man to the hospital.
C. Check out of the hotel.
4. What does the woman suggest the man do?
A. Get a better job. B. Get his car repaired. C. Get a new car.
5. Why did the girl apologize to the man?
A. She didn’t know where she was going.
B. She took the man’s phone by mistake.
C. She bumped into the man carelessly.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2至4个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What does the man prefer?
A. Getting to the airport cheaply.
B. Getting to the airport quickly.
C. Getting to the airport comfortably.
7. Where will the man need to change the train?
A. On the left of the office. B. At Grove Street. C. At No. 12 subway station.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. How much does the man pay for car insurance?
A. $100 a month. B. $200 a month. C. $200 a year.
9. What does the woman mean by saying “Men always cost more to insure than women”?
A. The man is a great driver.
B. Men drive more carelessly than women.
C. The man pays too much money for insurance.
10. What does the man think of the woman’s driving?
A. She drives with care.
B. Fewer accidents are her fault.
C. Less driving frequency makes low insurance.
听第8段材料，回答第11至12题。
11. What is the difference between the first two sandwiches?
A. The vegetables. B. The meat. C. The bread.
12. Where does the conversation take place?
A. In a grocery store. B. In a supermarket. C. In a fast-food restaurant.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why does the woman want to study psychology?
A. It would be easy to find a job.
B. She would get good grades.
C. She has been interested in psychology.
14. What degree does the woman already have?
A. A B. A. degree. B. A Ph.D. degree. C. A master’s degree.
15. What does the woman plan to do when she graduates?
A. Find a job in Wall Street.
B. Wait for the perfect opportunity.
C. Start from a small job and keep working.
16. What does the man think of the woman’s idea?
A. She might have difficulty making friends.
B. Their kids might not support her.
C. It might be hard to support the family.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker talking to?
A. Psychology majors. B. Psychology teachers. C. High school students.
18. How long does each lecture last?
A. One hour. B. Two hours. C. One and a half hours.
19. What does the speaker say about the exams?
A. There will be six exams.
B. They are harder than might be expected.
C. Students are allowed to miss one exam.
20. How can students reach the speaker outside of class?
A. Mainly by email.
B. By calling him directly.
C. By visiting the teacher through weekdays.
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分35分)
第一节 （共10小题，每小题2.5分，满分25分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项标号涂黑。
A
The very next day we did actually make our start upon this remarkable expedition (探险). At dawn and at sunset, the monkeys screamed together and the parrots started making their high-pitched (声调高的) noise, but during the hot hours of the day only the loud noise of insects, like the beat of a distant surf, filled the ear, while nothing moved amongst the views of huge tree trunks, fading away into the darkness which held us in. Once some creature, an anteater（食蚁兽）or a bear, walked awkwardly amid the shadows. It was the only sign of life which I had seen in this great Amazonian forest.
And yet there were signs that even human life itself was not far from us in those mysterious dark corners. On the third day out we were aware of a strange, deep, rhythmic beat in the air, coming and going on and off throughout the morning. The two boats were moving within a few yards of each other when first we heard it, and our guides remained still, as if they had been turned to bronze.
“What is it, then?” I asked.
“War drums,” said Gomez. “Native people, aggressive, not friendly; they watch us every mile of the way; kill us if they can.”
“How can they watch us?” I asked, gazing into the dark.
“The native people know. They talk the drum talk to each other. Kill us if they can.”
By the afternoon of that day—my pocket diary shows me that it was Tuesday, August 18th—at least six or seven drums were beating from various points. Sometimes they beat quickly, sometimes slowly, sometimes in obvious question and answer, one far to the east breaking out in a high-pitched beat, and being followed after a pause by a deep roll from the north. There was something incredibly nerve-shaking and threatening in that constant noise, which seemed to shape itself into the words: “We will kill you if we can.” No one ever moved in the silent woods.
That night we tied our boats with heavy stones for anchors (锚) in the centre of the stream, and made every preparation for a possible attack. Nothing came, however, and with the dawn we pushed upon our way, the drum-beating dying out behind us.
21. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 1?
A. Show his preference for nature.
B. Create an atmosphere of mystery.
C. Emphasize the importance of the expedition.
D. Admire the splendid scenery in Amazonian forest
22. How did the guides feel when the drums started?
A. Curious. B. Confused. C. Relieved. D. Scared.
23. Why did the natives change the speed of the drums?
A. To practice their drum skills. B. To interact with each other.
C. To attract the visitors in the forest. D. To frighten off the dangerous animals.
B
In Central America, sea turtle eggs are a popular cuisine dish. The eggs are hugely and secretly harvested onto tables, leaving the sea turtles listed as threatened. Yet we simply do not have the ability to continuously guard large beaches. Scientist Kim Williams was thinking hard when she had an “aha” moment: How about placing a fake egg containing a GPS tracker.
That’s how the special eggs come in. To build them, Williams and colleagues used a 3D printer. Then, they fixed in the smallest GPS tracking devices. As mother turtles laid their eggs under cover of night, the researchers slipped a single spy egg into each nest. Once they are covered in sand from the real ones, “it’s very difficult to tell the difference”, says Williams.
Of the 101 spy eggs, 25 were taken away while six of them were quickly discovered and left on the beach. The team received tracking data with the farthest egg travelling 137 kilometers inland and stopping at a local supermarket. The spy egg sent its final signal the next day from a personal house, suggesting that the research team had tracked the eggs all the way. The researchers stress that the tracker is not a way to catch local thieves: many of whom are living in poverty, but rather a tool to better understand how the deal goes.
Still stopping stealing is not as simple as handing the tracking data over to the police. Across Central America, trade in sea turtle eggs can be legally ambiguous. In Costa Rica: for example, it is illegal to steal and sell sea turtle eggs but buying them is not a crime. It is not black and white. Meanwhile, local support is in need above all. “It, but not tracking with eggs, is the real meat and potatoes of conservation,” says Williams.
24. What is the major threat to the existence of sea turtles?
A. Unsafe GPS trackers. B. Unguarded Sea Beaches.
C. The popular dishes of sea turtles. D. The overhunt of turtle eggs.
25. How does Williams explain her study in paragraph 2?
A. By listing scientific data. B. By distinguishing the differences.
C. By clarifying the process. D. By demonstrating an expert’s statement.
26. The researchers tracked so many spy eggs to____________.
A. test the GPS trackers B. arrest the egg thieves
C. look into the whole deal of turtle eggs D. perceive the current situation of sea turtles
27. Which of the following is the best title for the text?
A. Spy Eggs Save Endangered Sea Turtles B. Sea Turtles Draw Constant Concern
C. Spy Eggs Help Locate Egg Thieves D. Advanced Technology Protects Sea Turtles
C
You’re stuck in a sea of standstill traffic when it begins: hunger pangs, the kind that release a steady stream of fast food fantasizing. With your grumbling stomach growing louder, your options are limited: You can wait a few hours for the roadways to clear or leave your car idling (挂空挡) on the highway while you set off on foot (please don’t do this).
Now Burger King, is betting that hungry drivers will welcome a third option: a direct-to-driver delivery concept the company has labeled the “Traffic Jam Whooper.” Reached by email, Gustavo Lauria, co-founder of the advertising agency We Believers, which developed the vehicle delivery concept, said the new approach allows the burger chain to gain advantage on a time of day in which the city’s terrible traffic typically slows business. “This was an opportunity for Burger King to generate new profits out of those hungry drivers”, Lauria added.
Lauria claims Burger King is the first fast food brand to deliver food to people in the middle of a traffic jam. In Mexico City, the company said, delivery drivers are already receiving an average of 7,000 orders per day, mostly to homes and offices. To make the traffic jam delivery process possible, Burger Kings Mexico app activates the service after identifying crowded areas in Mexico City during periods of high traffic. Customers can only place an order if the app determines that the driver will be locked in traffic for at least 30 minutes and they are within a 1.8-mile distance of a Burger King restaurant, the company said.
Early on, Lauria wrote, the act was met with disbelief. The challenges were complex: making sure real-time data of geographic location was accurate enough, and the creation of a hands-free way to take orders on cellphones in a country that has adopted serious punishment for drivers who use cellphones behind the wheel.
Though the company did not offer a timeline, Burger King says it expects to roll out the Traffic Jam Whopper in other overcrowded cities, such as Los Angeles, Sao Paulo and Shanghai.
28. What does the “Traffic Jam Whopper” (paragraph 2) refer to?
A. A proposal intended to ease the traffic jam during peak hours.
B. A practice which allows drivers to have food delivered directly to their cars.
C. A platform which makes it convenient for drivers to order food via cellphones.
D. An association monitoring whether drivers are observing traffic rules strictly.
29. Burger King is launching the Traffic Jam Whopper mainly to ____________.
A. promote its business culture B. make a shift in its sales pattern
C. achieve an increase in its profit D. popularize its business into more cities
30. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The Traffic Jam Whopper poses a threat to the safety of cyclists.
B. Drivers will be allowed to type on their cellphones during traffic jams.
C. Technological barriers may block the traffic jam delivery process.
D. Drivers can instantly choose to activate Burger Kings app at will.
第二节： (共5个小题; 每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项多余选项。
Natural Therapy（疗法）
The great outdoors：it’s the place to head for when you’re in need of peace and quiet, open spaces, beautiful scenery and exercise. Whether a huge mountain range or a local country park, these natural areas are perfect for us to refresh ourselves when we live a stressful life. 31 .
As an example, in the foothills of the Snowdonia National Park in the UK，specialist therapy sessions are held to help people who suffer from depression, anxiety and stress. 32 . Actually, it’s believed that the setting alone can improve the mood of patients. Art psychotherapist Pamela Stanley told the BBC that there was a “growing body of evidence” to support eco-therapy.
It’s true that for most of us connecting with the natural world definitely lifts our spirits. But the mental health charity Mind says eco-therapy has been recognized as a formal type of treatment that can sometimes be prescribed to someone by a doctor. It doesn’t involve taking medication. 33 . This natural treatment can take on many forms, including doing yoga in a forest, gardening or even hugging a tree.
Evidence has shown there are many benefits of this “green” therapy. 34 . Dr. Rachel Bragg from the University of Essex calls it “psychological restoration”. She told the BBC’s All in the Mind programme that nature-based therapies should be part of a “toolkit” of care for patients. 35 . However, it is an option for therapists to use. And as we become more aware of the causes and effects of mental health, it’s good to know that help might lie outside our towns and cities, and that nature can give us a helping hand.
A. Of course, eco-therapy won’t cure everything.
B. The patients organize activities for relaxation.
C. Outdoor art-related activities are held for patients.
D. Instead, it just develops a person’s relationship with nature.
E. These include improving social contact, social and work skill.
F. In nature you can do many things, including reading papers and watching TV.
G. Their relieving power is being used more and more to treat mental health problems.
第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从36~55各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项标号涂黑。
Ciudad Perdida, Colombia’s “Lost City” is older than Machu Picchu(马丘比丘古城). There are no trains or buses allowing of 36 travels to reach its ruins. The chance of getting to this remote place is merely 37 on foot: a tiring hike lasting several days nonstop.
Despite this, I couldn’t 38 the opportunity to visit Ciudad Perdida. Twelve other hikers and I went there in 39 with a licensed guide. The dirt path, which 40 through towering palms and dangling vines（藤蔓），proved 41 right from the start. It’s suggested that hikers have good physical 42 , as the journey is difficult. Horses helped to carry basic 43 like food to the cottages where we would sleep. Along the way we also met the 44 . They have been left undisturbed for centuries and there’s a deep 45 between them and the land.
The next morning, we were off early to 46 the heat, but high temperatures and muscle pain had already 47 by the time we reached the final stage — 1,200 stone steps to 48 . Finally, my eyes rested on the splendid scene that had 49 the hard journey to Ciudad Perdida, 50 lifting my painful body up the long flight of stairs.
I looked down and 51 at the beautiful site below. We were among a handful of other groups visiting, which seemed like 52 compared to other crowded tourist attractions. While the return trip included 53 the mental barrier of having already achieved our goal, the experience is the one I would do 54 . It is the difficulty that makes the journey a more 55 one. Earned views are always better.
36. A. endless B. easy C. frequent D. fake
37. A. dangerous B. impressive C. identical D. available
38. A. resist B. obtain C. promote D. employ
39. A. comparison B. combination C. company D. communication
40. A. buried B. swung C. wound D. leaked
41. A. disappointing B. embarrassing C. challenging D. amazing
42. A. character B. fitness C. independence D. confidence
43. A. equipment B. furniture C. possessions D. supplies
44. A. natives B. visitors C. guides D. drivers
45. A. conflict B. distance C. bond D. belief
46.A. reduce B. avoid C. lower D. detect
47. A. set in B. cut off C. watched out D. gave in
48. A. cover B. catch C. display D. explore
49. A. predicted B. convinced C. motivated D. evaluated
50. A. before B. after C. even though D. as if
51. A. aimed B. pointed C. puzzled D. wondered
52. A. something B. nothing C. anything D. everything
53. A. overcoming B. memorizing C. observing D. witnessing
54. A. otherwise B. instead C. though D. again
55. A. luxurious B. relevant C. flexible D. rewarding
非选择题部分 (请在答题卷上作答)
第二节：语法填空(共10个小题; 每题1.5分, 满分15分)
By the end of June, 2020, fifty-five BeiDou satellites 56._________ (send) up, meaning the completion of China’s self-developed BeiDou Navigation（导航）Satellite System (BDS). 57._________ BDS appears later than America’s GPS, Russia’s GLONASS and EU’s Galileo, it can equal them. As one of the four global navigation satellite systems, BDS involves 58._________（combine） efforts of over 400 agencies and 300,000 research personnel and technicians.
Originally drafted in the 1980s, the project represents a milestone(里程碑) in China’s space effort. BDS is comparable to GPS in terms of the 59._________ (accurate) of positioning and it has been applied 60._________ shared bikes in Daqing. It also offers short message communication, 61._________ provides emergency communications in areas that fail to pick up clear conventional communication signals occasionally. In 62._________ effort to improve the quality of some positioning 63._________ (serve), Apple and Samsung phones, among others, are already using BDS’ signals, and so is every Chinese brand.
The construction of complete BDS is a huge technical achievement for China and can 64._________ (true) pay off in the near future. Meanwhile, 65._________ (promote) the world’s economic and social development as well as peaceful use of space with BDS’s remarkable contribution has attracted the world’s attention.
第四部分：书面表达（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Jerry邀请你下周日去北京环球影视城（Universal Beijing Resort）游玩,并来信询问特色游玩项目。因下周日你需要参加学校的志愿者活动而无法赴约，你回信表示歉意。内容包括：
1.表示歉意；
2.推荐娱乐项目: 各类骑乘设施；哈利波特主题公园等
3.表示祝愿
注意：（1）词数80-100；（2）可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Joe was 75-year-old. His children grew up and moved to different cities in pursue of better career and future. However, he chose to lead a simple yet satisfying life in the small village carrying the memories of his deceased wife. Joe had four lovely grandchildren, Adam, Mary, Kate and Bill, who would make regular visits to him during their holidays.
With the vacation time around the corner, Joe was eagerly waiting for the arrival of his grandchildren. To well prepare his home for the kids, Joe was as busy as a bee, occupying himself cleaning the home, harvesting the garden, rearranging the household items, buying the favourite gifts for the children, etc. It was in such busy arrangements that he lost his beloved watch. The watch was gifted by his wife when their first child was born. Joe treasured the watch and it became his only companion after his wife’s death.
However, Joe was unaware of the missing watch and was joyful receiving the kids at home. When he was about to take a bath the next day, it struck him that the watch was missing. He recalled that the last time he saw the watch, he was arranging things in the barn(谷仓). Heartbroken, Joe stood still in silence. Noticing his dullness, all the grandchildren gathered around and asked what troubled him.
“Dear children, I lost the most precious watch I have ever had and I ever got in my life. It was gifted by your grandma and I lost it while cleaning the home! I feel like I’m missing my heart,” Joe said in tears. Figuring out what had happened, the children promised Joe that they would search for the old watch for him.
注意：1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右； 2.应使用5个以上短文中标有下划线的关键词语。
Paragraph 1: The children decided to search for the watch in the barn.___________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2. One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again.____________ ___________________________________________________________________________________
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
答 卷
第三部分 语言运用
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
56.____________57.____________ 58.____________ 59. _____________ 60. _____________
61.____________62.____________63._____________ 64. _____________ 65. _____________
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节应用文(满分15分)
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
Paragraph 1: The children decided to search for the watch in the barn.___________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again ______________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
浙北G2期中联考
2021学年第一学期高二英语试题
答 案
I．听力（共20题，每小题1分，满分30分）
1-5 ABBCC 6-10 ABBBC 11-15 ACCAC 16-20 CACBA
II．阅读（共两节, 第一节25分，第二节10分，满分35分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题2.5分，满分25分）
21-23 BDB 24-27 DCCA 28-30 BCC
第二节(共5个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
31-35 GCDEA
III. 完形（共20小题; 每小题1.5分，满分30分）
36-40 BDACC 41-45CBDAC 46-50 BAACB 51-55 DBADD
IV. 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. had been sent 57. Though/ While/ Although 58. combined 59. accuracy
60. to 61. which 62. an 63.service（s） 64. truly 65. promoting
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于60和多余100的,从总分中减去2分。
4.应注意的主要内容:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6.如书写较差,以致影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(13~15)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
(10—12)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(7—9)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(4—6)
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺乏连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
(1—3)
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
三、上下文的连贯性
按照内容要点展开写作,使用恰当的连接词或表达法使文章内容连贯。
四、词数少于60和多于100的,从总分中减去2分。
五、参考范文:
Dear Jerry,
I’m terribly sorry that I can’t join you to visit Universal Beijing Resort next Sunday since I’m fully occupied with the voluntary work in school.
As is known to all, Universal Beijing Resort is gaining increasing popularity at home and abroad. Personally, the breathtaking rides, ranging from incredible pirate ships to terrifying 5D roller coaster, are bound to appeal to thrill-seekers like you. Moreover, as a top tourist destination for fun and relaxation, the theme park of Harry Potter will bring you into a fantasy world, where not only will you encounter your favorite characters, you can also have a deeper insight into the stories behind it.
Hope you have fun and more than fun there.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3.词数少于130的,从总分中减去2分。
4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性和对所标出的关键词的应用情况;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(21—25)
—与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
—内容丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档
(16—20)
—与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
—内容比较丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档
(11—15)
—与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了若干有关内容,应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档
(6—10)
—与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了一些有关内容,应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档
(1—5)
—与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
—产出内容较少,很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
0
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
三、 参考范文
The children decided to search for the watch in the barn. As they arrived and opened the door, they realized that Joe’s barn was full of waste materials, books, scraps, broken household items, totally in a mess. They searched every corner for the watch with their eyes wide open, as if to seek a needle in the sea. However, hard as they tried, their efforts turned out in vain. Depressed and a bit spiritless, they returned to Joe emptyhanded in the end. Joe was heartbroken and sank to the chair with a gloomy cloud taking on his wrinkled face. He squeezed a smile, gave a wave to the grandchildren and let out a sigh: “Let it go!”
One grandson Adam then said that he would like to go to the barn again. Adam went alone and after what seemed a while, to their literal amazement, he came back with the missing watch in his hand. With the questioning eyebrows raised on others' face, he explained bluntly that he squatted in the barn, desperately trying to keep quiet, and holding his breath without making a single noise. Ultimately, the silence enabled him to catch the sound of the watch. Under the guidance of the slight sound, he discovered the watch, which was treasured by his grandpa. Cheerful and a bit excited, Joe felt great weight off his mind with his eyes lit up.
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