黑龙江大庆市肇源县超等蒙古族乡学校等几校2021-2022学年七年级（五四学制）上学期期中联考英语【试卷+答案】

这是一份黑龙江大庆市肇源县超等蒙古族乡学校等几校2021-2022学年七年级（五四学制）上学期期中联考英语【试卷+答案】，共6页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2021--2022学年度第一学期期中检测初二年级英语试题题号第一部分第二部分I第三部分第四部分I总分核 分人 得分       第一部分听力（共四部分，满分25分）  (Ⅰ)录音中有五个句子, 听一遍后, 选择与之相符的图片。(5分)(    ) 1.(    )2. (    )3.  (    )4. (    )5. (Ⅱ)录音中有五组对话及五个问题, 听两遍后, 选择最佳答案。(5分)(   )6. A. Beef. 　　　B. Oranges. 　　　 C. Fruit. (   )7. A. Blue.   B. Red.       C. Black. (   )8. A. They’re behind the chair.   B. They’re beside the bed. C. They’re under the bed. (   )9. A. Three.   B. Four.    C. Five. (   )10. A. Pandas.  　　B. Elephants.      C. Pandas and elephants. (Ⅲ)录音中有一段对话, 听两遍后, 选择最佳答案。(5分)(   )11. Why does Maria call Sam?A. She says happy birthday to Sam.   B. She asks Sam some questions. C. She only wants to talk with Sam. (   )12. What are Sam’s family doing?A. Eating a cake.                  B. Visiting Sam’s grandfather. C. Having a party for Sam. (   )13. What are Sam and Maria doing?A. They’re staying at home.         B. They’re having lunch. C. They’re making a telephone call. (   )14. What’s the weather like in Moscow?A. Cold.     B. Hot.    C. Warm. (   )15. Who lives in London?A. Maria’s grandfather.   B. Sam’s family.    C. Maria’s family. (Ⅳ)录音中有一篇短文, 听两遍后, 选择最佳答案。(10分)(   )16. It’s a picture of_______. boys and girls       B. desks and chairs    C. a classroom(   )17. Where are the two pens?A. They are in the pencil case.    B. They are on the teacher’s desk. C. They are in the classroom. (   )18. How old is Linda?A. Ten. 　　　　   B. Eleven. 　　　　   C. Twelve. (   )19. Who is not in the picture?    A. Mike.  B. Miss Green. C. Linda. (   )20. Mike and Linda are　　　. teacher and student   B. brother and sister     C. friends第二部分阅读理解：（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）  A  Jim is going to do a lot of things this week. First he is going to do his homework on Monday morning. Then he is going to revise(复习) for his test. On Tuesday afternoon he is going to a party at the Children’s Palace. On Thursday, he is going to get up early and then play table tennis with his classmates. On Friday afternoon, he is going to send some emails to his pen pals. In the evening, he is going to watch Animal World. He likes it very much.  （   ）21. When is Jim going to do his homework? A.On Thursday afternoon          B.On Monday morning C.On Sunday morning （   ）22. What is Jim going to do on Tuesday afternoon?   A. Go to a party.     B. Go to the park        C.. Go to the library （   ）23. Who is going to play table tennis with Jim?   A. Jim’s parents     B. Jim’s classmates     C. Jim’s pen pal （   ）24. What is Jim going to do on Friday afternoon?   A. Play computer games    B. Send emails      C. Write letters （   ）25. Is Jim going to watch TV on Friday evening?   A. Yes, he is.     B. No, he isn’t.     C. We don’t know.                                     B    Tom and Kate are brother and sister. They like music. Kate can play the piano. But she can’t play the violin. Tom can’t play the piano but he can play the violin. Today they want to carry a piano to Kate’s bedroom,. The piano is big. They can’t carry it. Kate and Tom’s parents aren’t at home. They can’t help them to carry the piano. But they have two cousin sisters here today. They ask them to help them.  （   ）26. Tom and Kate are ______.   A. brothers      B. twins      C. brother and sister   D. sisters  （   ）27. What can Kate play?   A. The piano.    B. The violin.  C. The flute.         D. The guitar.  （   ）28. Who plays the violin?   A. Tom      B. Kate    C. Their cousin sisters.     D. Their parents.  （   ）29. Why do their parents not help them to carry the piano?   A. Because it’s big.              B. Because they aren’t at work.   C. Because they are at home.     D. Because they aren’t at home.  （   ）30. Who do they ask to help them?   A. Their parents.               B. Their cousin sisters.   C. Their classmates.             D. Their teachers. C May has just moved (刚刚搬到) to Sunshine Town. Read the map below and help her find the way. （   ）31. The museum is ______.A. on York Street                B. beside the pet shop C. next to the hospital            D. between the bookshop and the library（   ）32. If she wants to see a doctor, she can go to the hospital on ______.A. Hill street                    B. Adam Street C. York Street                   D. King Street（   ）33. The nearest place for the students at school to buy stationery( 文具）is ______.A. the shopping mall             B. the shoe shop C. the post office                     D. the supermarket（   ）34.The park, a nice place in the town, is ______.A. south of the cinema                B. north of the library C. south-west of the museum          D. north-east of the post office（   ）35. Start from A, walk along Adam Street, turn left at the second crossing, and she will find ______.  A.the park on the left               B. the cinema on the right   C. he library on the left             D. the bookshop on the right第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Now people are getting richer and richer. Let's think ,what will the life be like in the future?    In the future we won't have to change many clothes every day. (36)________. We can be warm when we feel cold and be cool when we feel hot. (37)___________. We can change the color we like any time.    In the future (38)__________.Everyone will have a small but useful plane, and we can go anywhere we like by plane. How great it will be!   In the future, (39)___________.Our mothers won't be busy with housework. They won't be tired. When we feel bad, we won't have to go to hospital to see a doctor. (40) _____________ because they can teach students through world wide web.36.             37.           38.          39.          40.        They will have many beautiful colors.We can buy them with little money.The teachers won't need to go to school to work .We will wear a kind of special clothes.maybe each family will have a robot. All of us will live in beautiful houses.we won't have to go to work by bus or bike第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节：（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分）Dear Linda,   My birthday is coming. And I’ll __41___ a party at my house this Sunday. I really __42__- you can come to my birthday party, but it’s not easy to ___43__ my house. Now I will give you a ___44__, and it shows you __45__to get to my house. Go __46___ Guangming Street and do not turn left or right. Just walk straight for about 10 minutes, and you can ___47_ a bus stop on your left. You can take a NO. 5 __48__ and get off at the fifth stop. Then __49__ are on Happy Street. Walk along the street and you’ll see a __50__ at the corner of the street. My house is behind the bank. (   ) 41. A. visit       B. have       C. arrive     D. laugh (   ) 42. A. want      B. need       C. hope      D. think(   ) 43. A. get        B. sweep     C. find       D. paint(   ) 44. A. map       B. chalk      C. book      D. cake (   ) 45. A. who       B. where      C. what      D. how (   ) 46. A. along      B. from       C. to        D. with  (   ) 47. A. put        B. know      C. leave      D. see (   ) 48. A. taxi       B. bike        C. bus       D. train (   ) 49. A. we        B. you        C. they      D. she (   ) 50. A. bank     B. house       C. school     D. shop   第二节：（共10小题：每小题2分，共20分）阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。In one hundred years， everyone will carry a small computer. And the computer will give people the answers to all their 51_______( question). We will all have 52            (robot) at our home. So we’ll be 53 a          to  let robots do most of the 54 h         . While making a telephone call, we’ll also be able to see the people on the end at the same time.    A lot of people will live and work under sea or in 55 s         because there will be big towns and 56          （city） there. Robots will do most of the work, and people will just 57           (work) two or three days a week. They’ll be able to 58           (fly) to the moon in a spaceship and 59            (spend) their holidays there. How 60__________  (happily) life in the future will be!第四部分：写作部分（共两节，满分25分）第一节阅读表达。（共10分；每空1分，满分10分）根据短文内容，用符合语意及语法规则的词填空。 Dear Grace, How are you? Thank you for your last email .You want to know about my school clubs, right? Well, I can tell you about the school clubs. There are many clubs in my school, like the English Club, the Art Club, the Music Club and the Sports Club,.I have two good friends, Jack and Lisa. We all want to join the school clubs.   I want to join the Music Club because I can play the guitar.I can't speak English well, but I also want to join the English Club.   Jack likes sports.He plays soccer well.He wants to join the Sports Club. He can play the violin. But he doesn't want to join the Music Club.   Lisa likes drawing. She wants to join the Art Club. She also speaks English very well.I think she can be in the English Club. But she can't be in the Music Club. She can't play any instruments. Are there any clubs in your school? What club are you in?     Please write an email and tell me about your school clubs.                                                   Yours,                                                    Jane61.Jane has two good _________,Jack and Lisa .They all want to join the school ___________ .62.Jane isn’t__________ at English ,but she also want to join the _______Club.63. Jack can play the _________.But he doesn’t want to join the ________Club .64. Lisa likes __________.She wants to join the __________Club.65. Jane thinks Lisa can be in the ________Club .But she can’t be in the _________ Club.  第二节书面表达  （满分15分）假如你的一位笔友Jack正在学习中文，常从网上了解中国。他将于下周参观你校。请你根据下列信息，用英语向你的同学介绍Jack，60个词左右。短文开头已给出，不计入总词数内。  1．Jack，16岁，在Park学校就读，最喜欢的学科之一是数学。 2．和爸爸、妈妈和姐姐一起生活在英国伦敦(London)。 3．最感兴趣的不仅是音乐，还有足球。 4．闲暇时间经常上网并学习中文。 5．他期待着来中国。  Jack is my good pen friend on the Internet. He’ll visit our school next week.                                                                                                                                                      
2021-2022学年度第一学期期中检测初二英语答案听力部分（25分）1-5  CABAB   6-10 ACBBC   11-15 ACCAB    16-20 CABBC笔试部分（95分）第二部分阅读理解：（共两节，满分40分）第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）   21-25 BABBA    26-30 CAADB    31-35 DBACC第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）36-40 DAGEC第三部分语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）第一节：（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分）41-45 BCCAD   46-50 ADCBA第二节：（共10小题：每小题2分，共20分）阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式questions 52.robots 53.able 54.housework 55.space 56.cities57.work 58.fly 59.spend 60.happy 第四部分：写作部分（共两节，满分25分）第一节阅读表达。（共10分；每空1分，满分10分）friends 62.clubs 63.good 64.English 65.violin 66.Music 67.drawing  68.Art 69.English 70.Music.VIII.书面表达（15分）略