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    江西省宜春市高安市2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末英语试题(含答案)

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    江西省宜春市高安市2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末英语试题(含答案)

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    这是一份江西省宜春市高安市2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末英语试题(含答案),共11页。试卷主要包含了听力理解,单项填空,完形填空,阅读理解,补全对话,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    2022—2023学年度上学期期末检测
    八年级英语试卷
    一、听力理解(每小题1分,共20分)
    A)听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    ( )1. How much butter does Nick want?
    A. A spoon. B. Two spoons. C. Three spoons.
    ( )2. Who is more outgoing?
    A. Paul. B. Paul’s brother. C. Paul’s sister.
    ( )3. How often does Lily eat chicken?
    A. Never. B. Twice a week. C. Once a week.
    ( )4. Where are they going?
    A. To the mall. B. To the airport. C. To the cinema.
    ( )5. What does the man mean?
    A. Trendy Teens is the best clothing store.
    B. Trendy Teen’s clothes are not good.
    C. The woman is talking about the clothes.
    B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
    ( )6. What does Emily drink every day?
    A. Juice. B. Coffee. C. Milk.
    ( )7. Why does Emily drink that every day?
    A. Because her mother wants her to drink it.
    B. Because she likes it very much.
    C. Because her father wants her to drink it.
    请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
    ( )8. Where is the boy going?
    A. To school. B. To his teacher’s home. C. To John’s house.
    ( )9. What are Mike and John going to do together?
    A. Study English. B. Visit their teacher. C. Help some students learn English.
    请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。
    ( )10. Where will Linda go tomorrow?
    A. To a library. B. To a hospital. C. To a park.
    ( )11. What will Sam do tomorrow?
    A. Help policemen. B. Clean up city parks. C. Cheer up sick kids.
    ( )12. What day is it today?
    A. Saturday. B. Friday. C. Sunday.
    请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
    ( )13. What is the girl going to be?
    A. cook. B. A teacher. C. A shop assistant.
    ( )14. Why does she want to take the job?
    A. She thinks it’s interesting. B. She thinks it’s relaxing. C. She likes shopping.
    ( )15. What can we get from the conversation?
    A. The girl likes eating.
    B. The boy often helps his mother with the cooking.
    C. The girl likes washing at home.
    C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
    16. The Internet can make our life nicer, easier and ________________.
    17. We can ________________ on the Internet without leaving our houses.
    18. The Internet can help us ________ jobs.
    19. The Internet can help us not to ________ our way.
    20. But spending ________ on the Internet isn’t good for us.
    二、单项填空
    ( )21.—Would you mind my opening the window?
    —________. I’ve got a bad cold.
    A. Never mind B. You’d better not C. All right D. With pleasure
    ( )22.—Did you win the game yesterday?
    —Not really. ________ we all tried our best, we lost it.
    A. As long as B. until C. Unless D. Although
    ( )23.—Why could Susan do ________ in the long jump?
    —Because no one practiced ________ than her.
    A. the best; harder B. the best; hard C. the worst; hard D. the worst; harder
    ( )24.—________ you come to my party on Sunday?
    —Sorry. I’m not available. I ________ study for the math test.
    A. Can, must B. Must, can C. Need, may D. May, can
    ( )25.—I want to give up the plan because it is too difficult.
    —No matter what difficulty you will meet, ________ your plan. I believe you can make it.
    A. carry out B. bring out. C. put out D. give out
    ( )26.—Oh dear! I have left my key to the office in my car.
    —Don’t worry. I ________ it for you. Wait a minute.
    A. get B. was getting C. will get D. got
    ( )27. —We had a ________ with them about the relationship between parents and us.
    —Good idea! Hope to make peace with each other.
    A. competition B. discussion C. prediction D. preparation
    ( )28.—Jack, I hear you had an accident. What happened?
    —Nothing serious. I was ________ hit by a car.
    A. badly B. heavily C. seriously D. nearly
    三、完形填空
    A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并将其填到答题卷的相应位置。(15分)
    Do you know Li Jiaqi? He is a very famous Internet celebrity (网红). Internet celebrities are not just movie 29 . They can include (包括) common people as well. That’s because lots of social media platforms (社交媒体) give chances to all kinds of people, as long as they can make 30 popular. They are using new ways, like live (直播) 31 to make money through their large groups of fans. It can’t be 32 before.
    Why do Internet celebrities become so 33 ? A great reason is that anyone can do it. It doesn’t cost a lot. Most of the technologies (技术) they need to use are completely free. And it doesn’t have to become a full-time job. Another great 34 is that it’s easy to get their followers and fans do something they 35 them to do. For example, 36 they ask them to click (点击) on the link to buy something or share some ideas, all fans will 37 at once.
    It’s certain that a lot of common people make their dreams 38 by being Internet celebrities and they 39 a living with it. Many teenagers 40 to be Internet celebrities when they grow up, so they spend much time on it. But as 41 , the most important thing is to study 42 and get as much knowledge as you can. The more you learn, the 43 person you will be. Then you can be anything you want in the future. As a great saying goes, “More haste, less speed (欲速则不达)!” What do you think of it?
    ( )29. A. teachers B. stars. C. pianists D. pilots
    ( )30. A. they B. them C. their D. themselves
    ( )31. A. online B. clearly C. loudly D. quietly
    ( )32. A. interesting B. dangerous C. possible D. ready
    ( )33. A. popular B. healthy C. happy D. beautiful
    ( )34. A. mind B. excuse C. reason D. problem
    ( )35. A. help B. drive C. ask D. refuse
    ( )36. A. because B. until C. although D. if
    ( )37. A. follow B. run C. shake D. fall
    ( )38. A. come out B. come true C. come on D. come in
    ( )39. A. make B. plan C. play D. catch
    ( )40. A. dream B. add C. dislike D. worry
    ( )41. A. winners B. robots C. humans D. teenagers
    ( )42. A. hardly B. hard C. easily D. slowly
    ( )43. A. good B. better C. bad D. worse
    B)先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空,每个词限用一次。
    choose, poor, hope, role, because, program, for, good, someone, cate, in
    I am Jessica Miller. I am an eighth grader 44 a junior high school.
    Every year we have a special show in our school and many students prepare (准备) 45 to show their talents in the show. Some 46 to sing songs and dance; some even have new and creative ideas. If 47 wants to come to the show, he should buy a ticket. Its price is a little high 48 the school puts on the show to get money for some children from 49 families. And we all think it is necessary for us 50 about each other.
    I am a quiet and shy girl, but this year I sang a pop song in the show. I wanted to play a 51 in helping the students in need. So I practiced singing the song hard every day 52 many weeks before the show: I 53 nothing bad would happen when I was on the stage (舞台). When I finally went on the stage, I did my 54 to give the audience (观众) a good show. After I finished singing, they all clapped (鼓掌) their hands. I was very happy. I think I will do that again.
    44. ________ 45. ________46. ________ 47. ________ 48. ________
    49. ________ 50. ________ 51. ________ 52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________
    四、阅读理解
    A)请阅读下面材料,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并将其填到答题卷的相应位置。(每小题2分)
    A
    Saturday, March 24
    Dear Kelly,
    Hi. We have arrived in the wet, hot city of Bangkok. This is our first trip to Thailand. All the different smells made us want to try the foods. We are going to eat something special for dinner tonight. The hotel where we are staying is cheap, but very clean. We plan to stay here for a few days to visit some places and then travel to Chiang Mai in the north.
    Best wishes. Benny
    Kelly Wang.
    Flat B 22/F
    Flower Mansion Shanghai 200000
    China

    Tuesday, March 27
    Dear Kelly,
    Bangkok is wonderful and surprising. The places in Bangkok are interesting. We visited the most famous market which is on the water and saw a lot of fruits and vegetables. Everything is so colorful and we took hundreds of photos already. Later we will leave for Chiang Mai. We will take a train there and stay for two days. Then we will catch a bus to Chiang Lai.
    Best wishes. Benny
    Kelly Wang.
    Flat B 22/F
    Flower Mansion
    Shanghai 200000
    China

    Friday, March 30
    Dear Kelly,
    Our trip to Chiang Lai was long and boring. We visited a village in the mountains in Chiang Lai today. The people there live a very quiet life—no computers or phones. They are the kindest people I have ever met. They always smile and say “Hello”. We can only say a few words of Thai, so smiling is the best way to show our kindness. ________________ And we will go back by air tomorrow.
    Best wishes. Benny
    Kelly Wang
    Flat B 22/F
    Flower Mansion
    Shanghai 200000
    China

    ( )55. Benny and his family visited Thailand in ________.
    A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter
    ( )56. In the third postcard, which of the following sentence is missing?
    A. Helping others makes yourself happy and pleased.
    B. Happiness means showing kindness to others.
    C. We feel good here and hope to come back again next year.
    D. We feel sorry here and don’t want to stay here anymore.
    ( )57. Which of the following is NOT true?
    A. They spent about a week visiting Thailand.
    B. Chiang Mai is in the north of Thailand.
    C. They are not good at the Thai language.
    D. Life in the village in Chiang Lai is poor and noisy.
    B
    The dragon is a great animal in Chinese culture. It brings the wind and rain. It is said that every year on the second day of the second lunar month, the dragon wakes up from its winter sleep and raises its head. Because of this, the day is called “Dragon Heads-raising Day” (Longtaitou). This year, it falls on March 14th.
    Old people believed that after Longtaitou, there would be more rain. And rain is very important to farming. So Longtaitou was the start of spring and farming.
    People have many ways to celebrate the festival. The most popular one is to have a haircut. Many people believe that a haircut during the first lunar month may bring bad luck to your uncles—mainly your mother’s brothers. They hope getting a haircut on Longtaitou keeps them away from bad luck.
    Among Chinese people’s festival traditions, there is always a place for food. During the Longtaitou festival, people eat food named after dragons. Noodles are called dragon’s beard (longxu). Dumplings are dragon’s ears (long’er). And spring roll (春卷) are dragon’s skin (longlin).
    ( )58. What does the dragon bring according to the passage?
    A. The rain and wind B. The wind and snow C. The rain and snow D. The rain and cloud
    ( )59. When is Longtaitou every year?
    A. On February 2nd B. On March 14th
    C. On the second day of the first lunar month D. On the second day of the second lunar month
    ( )60. What did old people think of Longtaitou?
    A. It was a good time for sleeping. B. It was the end of the Spring Festival.
    C. It was the start of spring and farming. D. It meant the weather would become colder.
    ( )61. Why do people have a haircut on this day?
    A. It’s believed it will bring good luck to their uncles.
    B. It’s believed it will keep their uncles away from bad luck.
    C. It may help their hair grow.
    D. It may bring more rain.
    ( )62. What is the purpose of this writer’s story?
    A. To introduce a traditional festival. B. To tell people how to avoid bad luck.
    C. To make a traditional festival popular again. D. To introduce some tasty food and fun activities.
    C
    Imagine a world full of robot cars and planes, and lab-grown burgers. It predicts what the world might be like in 2050.
    The researchers predict everyone will have more free time and be much healthier. Today’s killer illnesses like cancer will be beaten and new organs (器官) will be grown in a lab.
    Driverless cars are another important invention. Instead of driving, car owners will tell the car where to go and then they can get into the car with some work or even having a sleep.
    “There will be new vegetables by 2050. Lab-grown burgers will be as normal as today’s burgers. A rapid growth of the population will drive (驱动) changes to food production,” the scientists said today.
    3D printers will be common in every family. Most of the simple things will be easily printed at home. The printer will be filled up with different materials. Then the magic materials will create the things you need.
    Brain research allows the complete understanding and recording of dreams. They can then be reviewed and quickly studied. Besides, a computer can give right directions during the night. So your brain will stay away from dreaming something terrible.
    As a result of the fast population growth, mushroom (快速发展的) cities have been showing up all around the world. These cities, usually built to support 2-5 million people, can be built in just a few years.
    ( )63. Why do researchers predict everyone will be much healthier?
    ①Because today’s killer illnesses will be beaten.
    ②Because new organs will be grown in a lab.
    ③Because new vegetables will grow.
    ④Because lab burgers will be very popular.
    A.①② B.③④ C.①③ D.②④
    ( )64. What does the underlined word “they” refer to?
    A. The researchers. B. 3D printers.
    C. Robot cars and planes. D. Driverless car owners.
    ( )65. What may you dream at night in 2050?
    A. You leave the key at home when closing the door.
    B. You are run after by a dog.
    C. You are hit by a bike.
    D. You get high marks in final exams.
    ( )66. What made mushroom cities show up all around the world?
    A. Different magic materials. B. The brain research.
    C. The fast population growth. D. The changes in food production.
    ( )67. What would be the best title for this passage?
    A. How to live a much healthier life
    B. What will the life be like in 2050
    C. 3D printers in every family in the future
    D. How to avoid terrible dreams at night
    D
    Almost all cultures celebrate the end of one year and the beginning of another year in some ways. Different cultures celebrate the beginning of a new year in different ways, and at different times on the calendar.
    In western countries, people usually celebrate New Year’s Day from the midnight on December 31st to the morning of January 1st. People may go to the party, sometimes dressing in formal (正式的) clothes, and they may drink champagne (香槟) at midnight. During the first minute of the new year, people cheer and wish each other happiness for the year ahead. But some cultures like to celebrate New Year’s Day by waking up early to watch the sunrise. ▲
    Many cultures also do special things to say goodbye to bad luck at the beginning of the new year. For example, in Ecuador, families make a big doll and burn it to show the bad things from the past year are gone and the new year can start. There are also other common traditions that can keep away bad luck in the new year, such as throwing things into rivers or seas, or saying special things on the first day of the new year and so on.
    People around the world think some new year traditions can bring good luck in the new year. One widespread Spanish tradition for good luck is to eat grapes on New Year’s Day. The more grapes a person eats, the more good luck the person will have in the year. In France, people eat pancakes for good luck on New Year’s Day. In the United States, some people eat black-eyed peas for good luck—but to get good luck for a whole year you have to eat 365 of them.
    ( )68. What is the passage mainly about?
    A. The meaning of having the new year. B. Several different new year traditions.
    C. What to eat on New Year’s Day. D. Why people dress up nicely on New Year’s Day.
    ( )69. Which of the following can be put in the “ ▲ ”?
    A. They welcome the new year with the first light of the sunrise.
    B. Some cultures celebrate New Year at night.
    C. Some cultures do special things to celebrate New Year.
    D. They do different things at different times.
    ( )70. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
    A. Bringing good luck. B. Planning for the next year.
    C. Keeping away bad luck. D. Remembering the past.
    ( )71. What can we know from this passage?
    A. No cultures do special things to celebrate New Year’s Day.
    B. The western people celebrate New Year only on New Year’s Day.
    C. People in Ecuador go to parties at the end of a year.
    D. Some cultures celebrate New Year in the morning.
    ( )72. Which of the following shows the structure (结构) of the passage?
    A. B..
    C. D..
    B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中,选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整。
    Smog and haze (雾霾) has been heavy in recent days in some big cities. It is a form of air pollution. 73 Everyone can do something to help reduce the pollution.
    Drive less. Try walking, riding a bike, or taking public transportation instead of driving. 74 Choose public transportation, such as buses, subways, or trains if it is far away. Don’t drive during certain periods, For example, drive less during busy traffic periods If driving is necessary, try setting up a carpool (拼车) plan. Then there will be fewer cars on the road and less pollution will be made.
    Buy local products. When you buy products that are made locally, it will cut down on the cost of transportation and reduce pollution. You can buy things like vegetables and fruit from farmers’ market. 75 .
    Save energy in your home. The less energy you use at home, the less pollutants (污染物) are released (排放) into the air. There are many ways to save energy. For example, we can turn off the lights when we leave the room. 76 .
    Influence the people around you. You can also tell others about it. 77 You can do this by telling your family and friends face to face or influencing more people through the Internet.
    We can protect the environment by doing little things every day.
    A. We can wash our clothes by hand.
    B. There are more and more cars on the road.
    C. If it is close enough, you can walk or ride a bike.
    D. It is harmful to both humans and the environment
    E. Tell them what you are doing to help reduce pollution.
    F. To keep healthy, we should eat more vegetables and fruit.
    G. It is also good to grow your own vegetables and fruit in the garden.
    73. ________74. ________ 75. _________ 76. ________ 77. ________
    五、补全对话:根据对话内容在方框中选择恰当的句子将对话内容补充完整(其中有两项是多余的)。(每小题1分)
    A: 78
    B: Yes, I do.
    A: 79
    B: English Today? I love it. I can learn much English from it.
    A: I agree with you. How about Sports News?
    B: 80 It’s boring.
    A: 81
    B: She often watches soap operas.
    A: Do you like soap operas?
    B: I don’t mind them. 82
    A: I like them very much.
    A. I don’t like it.
    B. Do you like to watch TV?
    C. What kind of TV shows does your mother watch?
    D. How about you?
    E. What do you think of English Today?
    F. I like it.
    G. Thank you.
    78. ________79. ________ 80. ________81. _________82. ________
    六、书面表达(共15分)
    最近,某报社在你校做了一个关于“中国和美国中学生怎样过周末”的调查。调查发现两国学生过周末的方式有很多差异,请你根据以下要点写一篇80词左右的英语短文,并提出你的看法。你的看法:谈谈你周末最想做的事有哪些?
    内容
    中国学生
    美国学生
    周末主要活动
    1.80%的学生在家做作业,或去补习中心(tutorial center)上课。
    2.20%的学生在家看电视、上网玩游戏等。
    1.25%的学生选择做兼职(如送报纸、牛奶等)赚零花钱;
    2.27%的学生参加社区活动(community events),如捡垃圾、照顾老人等。
    提示词:兼职:part-time job 零花钱:pocket money 送:deliver 捡垃圾:pick up rubbish
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________



    八年级英语期末检测参考答案
    听力材料
    参考答案
    一、听力理解(20分)
    1-5 BCACA 6-10 CACAB 11-15 ABABA
    16. more colorful 17. go shopping 18. find 19. lose
    20. too much time
    二、单项填空(8分)
    21-28 BDAAACBD
    三、完形填空(25分)
    29-33 BDACA 33-38:CCDAB 39-43:AADBB
    44. in 45. programs 46. choose 47. someone
    48. because 49. poor 50. to care 51. role
    52. for 53. hope 54. best
    四、阅读理解(46分)
    55-57 ACD 58-62 ADCBA 63-67 ADDCB 68-72 BACDA
    73-77 DCGAE
    五、补全对话(5分)
    78-82 BEACD



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