2022届山东省泰安肥城市高三下学期5月高考仿真模拟（三）英语试题含答案

这是一份2022届山东省泰安肥城市高三下学期5月高考仿真模拟（三）英语试题含答案，共19页。
肥城市2022届高三下学期5月高考仿真模拟
英 语 试 题 （三）
注意事项:
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
It’s enjoyable to travel like a local around Sydney on this city cycling tour with different options. Various tour lengths allow you to choose a bike tour that suits your schedule and budget.
Overview
● Covering more than 30 of the top Sydney sights
● Use of bicycle and all safety equipment include
● Led by a cycling guide so travelers can focus on scenery instead of directions
● Refuel with included lunch and a drink on the Sydney Harbour Bridge Ride
Details
Meet your group and guide at The Rocks at the appointed time for your tour. Choose from several tour options, including the Sydney Classic Tour, the Sydney Highlights Tour, the Sydney Harbour Bridge Ride and the Manly Beach and Sunset Cruise Tour. Highlights include Royal Botanic Gardens, Hyde Park, Darling Harbour, Harbour Bridge and Sydney Opera House. Your tour ends at its original departure point.
Important Information
● Secure storage is available for backpack, purse, or other items which need to be stored until you return from your tour.
● Baby seats for children up to 25 kg can be provided free of charge.
● Tour operates in wet weather, and raincoats will be provided.
● No wheelchair is accessible.
● Animals aren’t allowed.
● Travelers have to keep a normal physical fitness level.
1. What can the tourists enjoy during the cycling tour?
A. All Sydney sights. B. Free lunch.
C. Wheelchair service. D. Watching many animals.
2. Where is the departure point of the tour?
A. The Rocks. B. Hyde Park.
C. Harbour Bridge. D. Sydney Opera House.
3. Which is a must for the tourists?
A. Living in Sydney. B. Bringing raincoats.
C. Being in good health. D. Riding their own bikes.

B
Eddie Browning and his wife Cindy were living in a run-down camper that had been ruined by a fire. Because of its poor state, the couple found themselves freezing during the cold weather. Sadly, they couldn’t afford to have it repaired.
They desperately needed a roof over their head and prayed every night that they would someday have a home. Eventually, their prayers were answered—and they have children to thank for it. Dozens of students from Elm Street Elementary in Rome, Georgia, and volunteers built a tiny house for Eddie and Cindy in 2017. The group presented it to the couple at the Georgia Tiny House Festival in Eatonton at the Lavender Farm.
The couple was overwhelmed with delight upon seeing their new home. And they were surprised to hear that this project was initiated by school children. The students had started constructing the tiny house a year before but could not present it to the Brownings because they didn’t have a place to legally put it. Thankfully, the Georgia Tiny House Festival and Lavender Farms organizers heard about their dilemma and allowed them to put it on the farm.
The groups’ act of kindness didn’t stop there. They also assisted the kids in adding electricity, plumbing, and a larger extension to the home. Eventually, what started out as a really tiny home with only sleeping bags, supplies, and a propane heater grew bigger than anyone had ever imagined.
The spirit of generosity further spread around. Soon, donors, corporate sponsors, and volunteers began pitching to fill the house with appliances and make it livable for the Brownings. The project was so successful that the Elm Street Elementary School pledged to build a new house each year for a family who needed it. They even have a motto for their mission: “tiny house, big dreams.”
4. What happened to the Brownings?
A. They escaped from a fire.
B. They were in poor physical state.
C. They were homeless and struggling.
D. They suffered from cold and hunger.
5. What was the new house like with the help of the groups?
A. It was illegally built. B. It was poorly equipped.
C. It was small beyond imagination. D. It was convenient to live in.
6. What does the underlined word “pledged” in the last paragraph probably mean?
A. Promised. B. Paused. C. Remembered. D. Hesitated.
7. What can we learn from the text?
A. Helping others is helping yourself.
B. The future lies in the hands of children.
C. One act of kindness can change the world.
D. Youths make a difference and kindness spreads.

C
Several studies have shown that listening to music can be highly beneficial. One study revealed that music could improve blood flow in ways that decrease levels of stress-related hormones and ease pain. But even without the knowledge of these research outcomes, we all know that music holds great power over our lives. How many times has music cheered us up when we were feeling down?
The Croatian architect Nikola Basic understood the importance of music in people’s lives. So, he came up with an unusual collaboration between an object and the ocean. In 2005, he designed a 230-foot morse orgulje, also known as the sea organ (风琴). The musical instrument is made up of a system of pipes and whistles that plays actual music as the waves of the Adriatic Sea push air through it.
At first glance, this invention might appear like an ordinary set of white stone steps, but its bottom stairs are covered in various holes. Water and wind enter through these openings, leading to chambers (室) within the giant instrument that connects to 35 organ pipes. As the waves flow, the air pushes through the inner channels, while the holes in the above steps sound out calming tunes.
This sea organ’s home is in Zadar, Croatia, which faced complete destruction during the Second World War. The city was eventually rebuilt, but it was filled with dull concrete structures that robbed the place of its natural charm. Seeking to restore it back to its former glory, local authorities brought in award-winning architect Nikola Basic, who, inspired by the hydraulis, an instrument built by the ancient Greeks that used water to push air through tuned pipes, designed and overlooked the construction of the sea organ.
Thanks to Basic’s artistic creation, life and joy have been brought back to the 3,000-year-old city. Now, it is a popular lunch place for tourists who want to feel the refreshing wind of the sea and hear the beautiful sounds coming from the sea organ.
8. What attitude does the author show in the first paragraph?
A. He is quite sure of the importance of music.
B. He is against the conclusion of the studies.
C. He is in some doubt about the impact of music.
D. He is unconcerned about the results of the studies.
9. What’s the main idea of paragraph 3?
A. The value of the invention. B. The structure of the instrument.
C. The principle of the invention. D. The appearance of the instrument.
10. What makes the sea organ unique and attractive?
A. It was created by a famous architect.
B. It’s the combination of art and nature.
C. It’s located in a city with long history.
D. It was introduced from ancient Greek.
11. What can we infer about the city Zadar?
A. It’s no longer popular after the destruction.
B. It has lost its natural resources after the war.
C. It is under constant construction at present.
D. It has come to life and become an attraction.
D
A sense of belonging to a group of co-workers is a better motivator for some employees than money, according to a study by University of Lowa researchers. “We find that some self-managed teams show increased performance, when their members work together well,” says Greg Stewart, the lead professor in the study.
At the beginning, Stewart’s group studied how managers of self-managed teams decided payment. They studied 587 workers in 45 self-managed teams in Lowa. The members were allowed to give suggestions on how much their teammates should be paid for their work. The managers collected their ideas and then made decisions. The members were asked about how much their team spirit attracted them, and managers were asked about the productivity of both individuals and teams.
“In high functioning teams the group members work actively with each other, and they encourage and support each other,” says Stephen Courtright, member of the research group. The reason is that peer pressure acts as an important social force. Members don’t want to disappoint their teammate, so team spirit is more effective even than money as a motivating tool. People have a social need to be accepted, to be regarded as a part of a group and want to perform well.
However, this works only when team members get along. When they don’t, then self-managed teams perform badly. When team members don’t care much for each other, Courtright says team spirit as a motivating factor won’t work. So money becomes the main motivating factor to improve productivity.
The carrot and stick method is that managers offer team members things in order to persuade them to work and punish them if they refuse. “Teams perform better when there is pressure from peers to perform well than when managers wave a carrot and stick,” Courtright says. “However, the carrot and stick method works well when team members just can’t get along.”
12. According to paragraph 2, what could members of the self-managed teams do?
A. They took pride in their teams.
B. They put great efforts into their work.
C. They preferred team work to personal work.
D. They could advise managers on incomes of their teammates.
13. Why can some teams have high functions according to paragraph 3?
A. Their team leaders are professional and strict.
B. Their team members get high money rewards.
C. Their members attach importance to team spirit.
D. Their team members have less work pressure.
14. What’s the key factor for team spirit to work well?
A. Team members are highly educated.
B. Teammates care for their productivity.
C. Team leaders set clear goals for their work.
D. Team members have a good relationship with each other.
15. What does the study focus on?
A. How to deal with peer pressure at work.
B. How motivators work in jobs.
C. The advantages of self-managed teams.
D. The importance of building team spirit for managers.

第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Baking Is Good for Mental Health
The new coronavirus brings out panic shoppers. They buy everything off supermarket shelves in preparation for the days to come. 16 So, if you have never made bread, now may be good time to learn.
With very few simple things, you can bake a fresh loaf of bread for your family, neighbors or coworkers. Baking is not just a useful survival skill. 17 In fact, baking and cooking have been used to treat people with mental health issues. Julie Ohana, a social worker, explains that baking works on many levels.
18
“When you’re baking, it really requires a certain level of focusing the mind. Kneading the dough (揉面) or rolling something out, you get the full benefit of being able to put aside all the other thoughts and just focus on the here-and-now. And there really are very strong benefits of being able to do that.”
Baking is a labor of love.
“ 19 It not only makes you feel good but also produces something you can touch and eat! When you bake, you go through this whole process and it really is a labor of love … and you end up with this finished product that not only is tangible but eatable and delicious.”
Baking is emotional.
Often our food experiences are tied to family memories and stories. We remember meals our grandmothers made. We teach our children important recipes for family favorites. “To be able to pass that on to someone else certainly can make the day for the person receiving it. But giving delicious, baked goods makes the giver feel as good as the receiver.” 20
A. Baking requires mindfulness.
B. Baking skills are essential in life.
C. So Ohana calls baking a win-win.
D. Baking is a process filled with love.
E. It can also make you feel better at stressful times.
F. So the baker can really get to benefit from the act as well.
G. Bread is often among the first products to disappear in emergency.

第二部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Volunteering has been a way of life for me for the past few years since I was fifteen. In 2020 I volunteered with a newly founded social enterprise, which 21 cooking lessons for visually impaired (视障) trainee 22 at the Enabling Village kitchen. I absolutely loved it as it involved meaningful 23 with people and I was fully 24 throughout the entire time I was there. This was unlike some other types of volunteering, which may involve mostly behind-the-scenes work that can get 25 after a while.
We called ourselves “sighted assistants” and each of us was 26 with a visually impaired trainee chef. As a volunteer, I would 27 with the trainee to the Enabling Village kitchen, and then ensure their 28 as they learned to cook a new dish. This included helping them 29 the position of the sink, ensuring eggshells were completely peeled off (剥掉), 30 boiling and hot objects, as well as being careful with knives among other things.
Being there with them made me truly 31 how difficult life can be when you are 32
or completely blind. Every tiny task 33 massive effort.  There are so many people with disabilities, I realised. While medicine still does not have the power to 34 all of these conditions, we are never short of ways to empower these individuals by making life 35 and more meaningful for them.
21. A. observed B. prepared C. designed D. conducted
22. A. manager B. lawyer C. chef D. doctor
23. A. interaction B. agreement C. greeting D. conflict
24. A. confused B. engaged C. surprised D. disturbed
25. A. boring B. frightening C. challenging D. promising
26. A. faced B. compared C. paired D. equipped
27. A. flee B. dash C. escape D. walk
28. A. satisfaction B. safety C. pleasure D. optimism
29. A. leave out B. miss out C. figure out D. point out
30. A. avoiding B. touching C. approaching D. feeling
31. A. appreciate B. wish C. predict D. assess
32. A. temporarily B. partly C. frequently D. initially
33. A. simplifies B. prohibits C. requires D. offers
34. A. cure B. hide C. preserve D. increase
35. A. luckier B. tougher C. softer D. easier

第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Every month, Zhang Lingling holds a party with her friends. At the party, all the people dress
36 (they) in hanfu, a type of dress worn by the ancient Han people, and sing songs that 37
(accompany) by traditional instruments or inspired by ancient poems.
Like Zhang, there are many young people who have a passion 38 traditional Chinese culture. They are interested in clothes, songs and games 39 (base) on traditional culture. A report released by Bilibili shows that over 177 million of the platform’s users loved 40
(video) featuring traditional culture. Young people may think traditional culture 41 (be) the best way to distinguish their national identity. They want to tell the world who they are.
While some prefer inheriting (继承) traditional Chinese culture, others are transforming it to be 42 (accessible) to the young generation. Pop culture designer Yu Yang is one of them,
43 works feature the ancient God of Fortune. The god wears fashionable Chinese shoes and a cap, and has a microphone in his hand. “Pop culture is a universal language. 44 (hopeful), more people would accept and love my work and know Chinese culture through my art pieces,” he said in 45 interview with China Daily.
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假如你是李华，你校高三年级将举办主题为“珍惜青春”的英语演讲比赛。请你结合自身经历，写一篇发言稿参赛。内容包括：
1. 你对青春的理解；
2. 你今后的目标。
注意:
1. 词数80左右；
2. 题目已为你写好。

Treasure Our Youth







第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
On a rainy night in March 2013, my husband Reece went out to get a box that he had forgotten in his car. On his way back inside, he noticed a small shadow moving on the driveway. He walked towards it quietly, and found it was a small hedgehog (刺猬), all wet in the grass, eating mud. Reece quickly removed his jacket and picked him up. The hedgehog was very weak and unable to move about quickly. But he did not seem to be frightened; nor did he resist being scooped up (抱起).
Once he was inside, Reece called out to me, saying that he had something that would make my heart melt, and he was right! We named the hedgehog Alf, because just like the TV show character of the 80s, he came out of nowhere. And like Alf the alien, this little hedgehog was amazingly intelligent. Not only did he learn to eat his dinner and drink water from his bowls, but he also learnt to wait for us inside his little indoor cubby house and hop into his pet carrier whenever we took him out with us.
Alf knows us very well and recognizes both our voices. He does not roll into a ball or put his spines up. Every day he allows us to pat him. He loves playing with paper and towels and will bite and tug (拽) on the bed sheets if given a chance. Like all pets, Alf loves his treats, in particular small pieces of sugar-coated biscuits.
Unfortunately, in April 2014, I was in a car accident and had to spend two months in the hospital. And boy, did I miss Alf! Reece told me that Alf would search around the house for me, checking in places where I’d normally be, such as my desk, my favorite seat in front of the TV and even my side of the bed.
注意: 1. 续写词数应为150左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

One evening, Reece set up a video call for me from my hospital bed.





I cannot describe the feeling when 1 arrived home and saw his little face again.






肥城市2022届高三下学期5月高考仿真模拟
英语试题（三）参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
1—3 BAC 4—7 CDAD 8—11 ACBD 12—15 DCDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
16—20 GEADC
第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
21—25 DCABA 26—30 CDBCA 31—35 ABCAD
第二节 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)
36. themselves 37. are accompanied 38. for 39. based 40. videos
41. is 42. more accessible 43. whose 44. Hopefully 45. an
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
评分原则：
1. 本题总分为15分，按三个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4. 拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5. 词数少于70，从总分中减去2分。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第三档（11-15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整，条理清楚；
·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。
·完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（6-10分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
·基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第一档（1-5分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整；
·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
·未能清楚地传达信息。
0分
未能传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。
第二节 (满分25分)
One possible version:
One evening, Reece set up a video call for me from my hospital bed. When the video phone was connected, I saw Reece holding Alf in his arms and Alf was staring at the screen. Alf seemed shocked when he saw me. He kept scratching the screen with his claws, which made me so excited that tears filled my eyes. At this moment, I knew he also missed me very much. How I wanted to run back to him and pat him. Then we could play with each other.
I cannot describe the feeling when I arrived home and saw his little face again. As Alf saw me again, he rubbed my trousers with his little face and then grabbed my pants tightly with his claws as if I would disappear. When Reece saw us like this, he said he thought Alf had regarded me as his mother. I looked at him with great excitement and said, “I also think of him as my own child.” People and animals can cultivate such affection. And then we would live happily with Alf.
1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.所续写短文的词数应为150左右（词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分）。
4.阅卷评分时，主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）故事发展的合理性和上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可。
6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（21-25分）
与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
内容丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语；
所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16-20分）
与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
内容比较丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语；
所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11-15分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了若干有关内容，应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语；
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
第二档（6-10分）
与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
写出了一些有关内容，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语；
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达；
较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1-5分）
与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；
产出内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词语；
语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；
缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0分
白卷，内容太少，无法评判。所写内容与所提供内容无关。