山东省日照市东港区田家炳中学2025_2026学年七年级上学期12月月考英语试卷（文字版，含答案）

这是一份山东省日照市东港区田家炳中学2025_2026学年七年级上学期12月月考英语试卷（文字版，含答案），共11页。试卷主要包含了听力，完形填空，阅读理解，词汇运用，语法填空，任务型阅读，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面每段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。你有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。
1. What's the girl's family name?
A. Green.B. Brwn.C. Smith.
2. Hw many kalas are there in the z?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Seven.
3. What can Alan's father play?
4. Whse ty is it?
A. Tm's.B. Jack's.C. Amy's.
5. Why des Kathy like classical music?
A. Because it's fast.
B. Because it's relaxing.
C. Because it's ppular.
第二节（共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7小题。
6. What clur is the girl's pen?
A. Red.B. Black.C. Blue.
7. Where is the pen?
A. In the pencil bx.
B. Under the bed.
C. Under the desk.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9、10小题。
8. What are they talking abut?
A. New clthes.B. The new schl.C. New classmates.
9. Where d they read bks and magazines?
A. In the teaching building.
B. In the library.
C. In the science building.
10. Hw d they like their schl?
A. They like it.
B. They dn't like it.
C. They want t g t anther schl.
听第八段材料，回答第11、12小题。
11. What des Tim think f the new library?
A. Big.B. Quiet.C. Mdern.
12. Where are the classrms?
A. In frnt f the library.
B. Beside the schl gate.
C. Beside the library.
听第九段材料，回答第13、14、15小题。
13. What sprt can Tm play?
A. Basketball.B. Ftball.C. Ping - png.
14. What subject is Nancy gd at?
A. English.B. Science.C. Chinese.
15. Hw many clubs will Nancy jin?
A. Only ne.B. Tw.C. Three.
听第十段材料，回答第16至20小题。
16. What club is Lisa in?
A. The dance club.B. The singing club.C. The art club.
17. What will Tny bring t the party?
A. Sme flwers.B. Sme gifts.C. Sme fd.
18. What will Susan d fr the party?
A. Take phts.B. Buy flwers.C. Make cakes.
19. Wh will think f fun games?
A. Tny.B. Paul.C. Susan.
20. Where is the music hall?
A. On the first flr in Building A.
B. On the secnd flr in Building
B.
C. On the third flr in Building
B.
二、完形填空(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
My name is Kate. I'm twelve years ld. I was brn in America. But I 21 in China nw. My parents wrk in Beijing. They g t wrk 22 bus. I'm tall and slim. My eyes are big and blue. I have shrt blnde hair. But my classmates all have black hair. That's interesting. In America, the 23 f peple's hair are quite different. Sme peple have black hair, sme have brwn hair and 24 have blnde hair.
I like 25 and I'm n the schl swimming team. I like playing tennis, t. But my classmates dn't play 26 . They ften play basketball after 27 . They like playing badmintn (羽毛球), 28 . They are all very kind t me. I ften play with 29 . I lve Chinese fd. We ften 30 dinner in the restaurant. I have many 31 here. That's great. We ften have 32 in the park. We g there by bike. It 33 us half an hur t get there. There are lts f flwers in the park. They are s beautiful. We 34 many pictures f the flwers. We eat lts f delicius fd, such as bread and cakes. And we 35 milk and green tea. We have a gd time.
21.A. visitB. jinC. studyD. play
22.A. atB. nC. inD. by
23.A. sizesB. clrsC. namesD. places
24.A. the therB. therC. thersD. anther
25.A. swimmingB. readingC. fishingD. shpping
26.A. basketballB. ftballC. tennisD. vlleyball
27.A. breakfastB. lunchC. dinnerD. schl
28.A. alsB. tC. eitherD. s
29.A. himB. herC. themD. it
30.A. haveB. makeC. drinkD. ck
31.A. bksB. friendsC. treesD. children
32.A. lunchB. dinnerC. a picnicD. breakfast
33.A. takesB. spendsC. cstsD. pays
34.A. bringB. takeC. makeD. draw
35.A. sellB. eatC. drinkD. take
三、阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
A
36. Which club usually meets n the mrning f Thursdays?
A. Bk Club.B. Kindness ClubC. Riding Club.D.Kung Fu Club.
37. If Sam wants t buy fur Year Bk, hw much shuld he give?
A. 15 dllars.B. 25 dllars.C. 45 dllars.D.60 dllars.
38. What can we learn frm the Riding Club?
A. The club is nly fr girls.
B. Children under 13 can't jin the club.
C. The club members ride fr 3 hurs every time.
D. Children can jin the club n Saturday.
B
I will never frget my first English class. The bell rang and ur English teacher came in. He tld us that his English name was Jasn. Then he asked all f us t think f an English name fr urselves.
I thught abut it fr a lng time. Then I gt an idea—why didn't I call myself Apple? I lved the fruit. I wrte the name n a piece f paper and gave it t Jasn. Later, when Jasn called "Apple", three girls std up at the same time.
The class laughed. Jasn stpped them and said, "Girls, I'm srry t say Apple is nt really an English name. Wuld yu like me t give yu ne?"
Of curse we'd lve t. Finally, Jasn called me April. He said it was a beautiful name. I felt s happy.
That's really an interesting lessn. I like my English name, and I like my English teacher t.
39. Why did the writer call herself Apple?
A. Because she lved apples.
B. Because her mther called her Apple
C. Because Apple was a ppular name.
D. Because there were many apples in her hme.
40. The underlined wrd "it" refers t ______.
A. the appleB. the paperC. the fruitD. the bk
41. Jasn called the writer April because ______.
A. it was in April thenB. it was a beautiful name
C. he didn't knw ther namesD. the writer was brn in April
42. What d we knw frm the passage?
A. Jasn was strict (严格的) with the class.
B. Tw girls gt the same name.
C. The writer didn't like apples.
D. Jasn was a very nice teacher.
C
D yu knw bamb (竹子)? It's always green in a year and it is everywhere in Bali. There are 1,450 kinds f bamb arund the wrld, but we nly use seven kinds f them t make things. We can use bamb t make things like beds, desks and chairs.
My father uses bamb t build Green Schl in Bali. In Green Schl, all f the rms are made f bamb. There are a lt f bamb things in the classrm. Every classrm has a bamb blackbard, sme bamb desks and bamb chairs. But every classrm has n windws, drs r walls. It nly has a bamb rf (屋顶).
Green Schl is very nice. Students are frm 40 cuntries. They have math, English, art and music. In their free time, all students grw fruit and vegetables arund the schl. And they als keep pigs, sheep, chickens and ducks. A lt f fd cmes frm their hands.
Cme and have a lk at ur Green Schl. It's a nice schl.
43. Hw many kinds f bamb can we use t make things?
A. 7.B. 14.C. 40.D. 1,450.
44. Where is Green Schl?
A. In Beijing.B. In Yunnan.C. In Bali.D. In Lijiang.
45. All the classrms dn't have ______.
A. windws, drs r rfsB. desks, chairs r walls
C. desks, chairs r blackbardsD. windws, drs r walls
46. What's the best title (标题) fr the passage?
A. Bamb RmB. Schl ThingsC. Green SchlD. Green Things
D
Tw students frm Park Middle Schl saved their teacher's life last week. When they saw Peter fall t the grund, they immediately ran t help him. This happened during a schl basketball game n the 23rd f March. The 56-year-ld PE teacher felt strange during the game. Suddenly, he felt a pain in his chest (胸部) and fell t the flr. Peter thught he was ging t die. Luckily, tw f the students, Mary and Linda, remembered their first - aid training (急救训练) frm a few mnths befre. They knew what t d—Mary and Linda started ding CPR(心肺复苏术). They did their best t keep Peter alive until the ambulance (救护车) arrived.
"We thught we might use it at sme pint in ur lives, but nt that sn," Mary tld a lcal TV channel. Tday, Peter is happy t be alive, and he has thanked Mary and Linda fr saving his life.
47. What happened t the PE teacher during the basketball game?
A. He fell and hurt his knee.
B. He fell and hurt his head.
C. He felt a pain in his chest and fell t the grund.
D. He felt a pain in his back when he was cleaning the flr.
48. What did the tw students learn a few mnths earlier?
A. They learned hw t play basketball.
B. They learned hw t d CPR.
C. They learned hw t drive an ambulance.
D. They learned when t call an ambulance.
49. What did Mary say abut their first - aid training?
A. She did nt think it wuld be useful s sn.
B. She thught they wuld never use it.
C. She thught it might be useful during a basketball game.
D. She thught it wuld be useful very sn.
50. Where wuld yu find this text?
A. In a guide (指导书) t first aid.
B. In a fashin magazine.
C. In a safety bklet (小册子).
D. In a lcal newspaper.
第II卷（非选择题 共45分）
四、词汇运用（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据首字母或汉语提示，在答题卡上写出下列句子中单词的完全形式。
51. When Lucy meets her classmates, she always g______ them with a big smile.
52. All my family like t eat dinner t______ every night.
53. My brther always s______ a lt f time playing sprts, he is very healthy.
54. When the light turns green, yu can g a______ the street.
55. Paul is frm Paris and he can speak F______.
56. The pictures can be shwed n the ______ (银幕).
57. Daniel likes ______ (收集) many paintings f snakes fr the cming year.
58. These students are frm 5 different ______ (国家).
59. Ding sprts is ______ (重要的) in ur life.
60. She ______ (注意到) them playing ftball in the playgrund when she is n her way t the classrm.
五、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We knw that Sunday is the 61 (ne) day f a week and Saturday is the last. Hw interesting! And my favurite day f the week is Friday. I like Fridays because I have my favurite 62 (subject) that day: PE and gegraphy. Gegraphy is difficult but 63 (interest). I lve 64 (read) maps and knw abut ther peple and places. Als, Mr King is great fun.
He 65 (teach) us gegraphy very well and all my classmates lve him. What abut PE?
I like playing basketball best, 66 having a PE class always makes me happy.
We als have maths n Fridays. 67 is very useful t study maths.
We think numbers are very imprtant in ur lives. The last class finish at abut 4 'clck. On Friday evenings, I g t my 68 (friend) huse fr a party r watch TV at hme.
I can relax and have 69 gd time because I have n classes the next day. Saturday and Sunday are happy days 70 me t have. Hw abut yur favurite day? Please let me knw.
六、任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，回答短文后的各个小题。
Lily is my pen pal. She lives in New Zealand, a beautiful cuntry. She is a quiet and shy girl. She has lng hair and big eyes. She likes playing the vilin (小提琴) and drawing cmic (漫画的) pictures. She wants t be an artist in the future (将来) because she lves making beautiful things. She ges t schl n ft every day.
She has a brther. His name is Peter. Peter is nly five. He likes riding his small bike in the garden and playing with his ty cars in the living rm. He has many different ty cars.
Lily's father is a baseball (棒球) player. Her mther is a clever scientist. She wrks in a university (大学). They bth g t wrk by car. Every weekend, they g n a family trip r have a picnic. Lily has a happy family.
根据短文内容回答问题.
71. What des Lily lk like?
_____________________________________________________
72. What des Lily want t be in the future?
_____________________________________________________
73. Des Peter like riding his small bike in the garden r playing baseball?
74. Hw d her parents g t wrk?
75. What d yu think f Lily's family?
七、书面表达（满分15分）
假如你是李华，住在日照，想和美国的Sam成为笔友，请你根据下表提供的内容，写一封电子邮件给Sam，做一下自我介绍。
注意：
（1）短文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
（2）可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
（3）词数80个左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear Sam,
I want t be yur pen pal. My name is Li Hua. I live in Rizha.
Yurs,
Li Hua
试卷答案
1. 听力部分略
2. 完形填空（每题1分，共15分）
21. C（study“学习”，根据上下文可知现在在中国学习，visit“参观”，jin“加入”，play“玩”，均不符合语境）
22. D（by bus“乘公共汽车”，固定搭配）
23. B（clrs“颜色”，根据后文头发颜色不同可知，sizes“尺寸”，names“名字”，places“地方”，均不符合）
24. A（the ther“其他的”，这里指其他人，ther“其他的”后接名词复数，thers“其他人”，anther“另一个”，根据语境选A）
25. A（swimming“游泳”，根据后文“n the schl swimming team”可知，reading“阅读”，fishing“钓鱼”，shpping“购物”，均不符合）
26. C（tennis“网球”，前文提到喜欢网球，同学们不玩网球，basketball“篮球”，ftball“足球”，vlleyball“排球”，均不符合）
27. D（after schl“放学后”，breakfast“早餐”，lunch“午餐”，dinner“晚餐”，均不符合）
28. B（t“也”，用于肯定句末，als“也”，用于句中，either“也”，用于否定句末，s“所以”，根据语境选B）
29. C（them“他们”，指代同学们，him“他”，her“她”，it“它”，均不符合）
30. A（have dinner“吃晚餐”，make“制作”，drink“喝”，ck“烹饪”，均不符合）
31. B（friends“朋友”，bks“书”，trees“树”，children“孩子”，根据语境选B）
32. C（have a picnic“野餐”，lunch“午餐”，dinner“晚餐”，breakfast“早餐”，均不符合）
33. A（It takes sb. sme time t d sth.“花费某人时间做某事”，spends“花费”，主语是人，csts“花费”，主语是物，pays“支付”，均不符合）
34. B（take pictures“拍照”，bring“带来”，make“制作”，draw“画”，均不符合）
35. C（drink“喝”，sell“卖”，eat“吃”，take“拿”，均不符合）
3. 阅读理解（每题2分，共30分）
36. D（Kung Fu Club的时间是周一和周四早上6:00 - 7:00，Bk Club是周五下午4:30 - 6:30，Kindness Club是周六下午3:30 - 4:30，Riding Club是周日早上8:30 - 10:30）
37. D（每本Year Bk 15美元，4本就是15×4 = 60美元）
38. B（Riding Club要求超过13岁且有自行车，A选项文中未提及只对女孩开放，C选项每次骑行2小时，D选项是周日参加）
39. A（根据文中“I lved the fruit.”可知）
40. B（it指代前面的“a piece f paper”）
41. B（根据“He said it was a beautiful name.”可知）
42. D（从文中可知Jasn是个很好的老师，A选项文中未提及严格，B选项是三个女孩，C选项作者喜欢苹果）
43. A(根据 “but we nly use seven kinds f them t make things.” 可知)
44. C(根据 “My father uses bamb t build Green Schl in Bali.” 可知)
45. D(根据 “But every classrm has n windws, drs r walls.” 可知)
46. C（文章主要介绍Green Schl）
47. C(根据 “Suddenly, he felt a pain in his chest (胸部) and fell t the flr.” 可知)
48. B（根据 “Mary and Linda started ding CPR(心肺复苏术).” 可知）
49. A(根据 “We thught we might use it at sme pint in ur lives, but nt that sn.” 可知)
50. D（这是一篇新闻报道，可能出现在当地报纸上，guide“指导书”，fashin magazine“时尚杂志”，safety bklet“安全小册子”，均不符合）
4. 词汇运用（每题1分，共10分）
51. greets（greet“问候”，主语she是第三人称单数，用greets）
52. tgether（tgether“一起”）
53. spends（spend time ding sth.“花费时间做某事”，主语my brther是第三人称单数，用spends）
54. acrss（g acrss“穿过”）
55. French（French“法语”）
56. screen（screen“银幕”）
57. cllecting（like ding sth.“喜欢做某事”，cllect“收集”）
58. cuntries（cuntry“国家”，5个不同国家用复数cuntries）
59. imprtant（imprtant“重要的”）
60. ntices（ntice“注意到”，主语she是第三人称单数，用ntices）
5. 语法填空（每题1分，共10分）
61. first（first“第一”，the first day“第一天”）
62. subjects（subject“科目”，PE and gegraphy是两门科目，用复数subjects）
63. interesting（interesting“有趣的”，修饰物）
64. reading（lve ding sth.“喜欢做某事”，read“读”）
65. teaches（teach“教”，主语He是第三人称单数，用teaches）
66. s（s“所以”，表示因果关系）
67. It（It“它”，指代maths）
68. friend’s（friend’s“朋友的”，名词所有格）
69. a（have a gd time“玩得开心”）
70. fr（fr“对于”，fr me“对我来说”）
6. 任务型阅读（每题2分，共10分）
71. She has lng hair and big eyes.
72. An artist.
73. Riding his small bike in the garden.
74. By car.
75. Happy.（答案不唯一，合理即可）
7. 书面表达（15分）
Dear Sam,
I want t be yur pen pal. My name is Li Hua. I live in Rizha. There are fur peple in my family, my father, my mther, my brther and me. My favrite subjects are English and math. I like music and reading bks. I als like playing basketball and ging swimming. I hpe we can be gd friends.
Yurs,
Li HuaRiding Club
If yu enjy riding a bike, dn't miss ur club. Isn't it exciting t get t knw abut ur city by riding a bike? T jin us, yu shuld be mre than 13 and have a bike.
Teacher: Mr. Hlmes
Time: 8:30~10:30 a. m. (n Sundays)
Kung Fu Club
D yu like Kung Fu? Cme t practice Kung Fu with us. Yu can learn t prtect (保护) yurself and thers. At the end f the year, there is a Kung Fu shw.
Teacher: Mr Chu
Time: 6:00-7:00 a. m. (n Mndays and Thursdays)
Name
Li Hua
Family members
father, mther, brther...
Favrite subject
English, math...
Hbbies
music, reading bks...
Sprts
play basketball, g swimming...