浙江省余姚市六校2025-2026学年七年级上学期期中联考 英语试卷

这是一份浙江省余姚市六校2025-2026学年七年级上学期期中联考 英语试卷，共13页。
温馨提示：
1. 本试卷满分120分，考试时间100分钟；
2. 全卷分为试题卷和答题卷，考生须按要求在答题卷规定区域内作答。
听力部分（20分）
I、听力 (共三节； 1-10每小题1分，11-15每小题2分，共计20分)
第一节：听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
( )1. What des the girl want t brrw?
A ruler. B. An eraser. C. A pencil.
( )2. Hw many birds are there?
A. 4. B. 6. C. 8.
( )3. What are they talking abut?
A. PLA. B. PRC. C. BBC.
( )4. Where are they?
A. At the park. B. On the farm. C. At the z.
( )5.What’s the relatinship(关系）between the tw speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Brther and sister. C. Dad and daughter.
第二节：听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6～7两个小题。
( )6. When is the dialgue (对话) happening?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening.
( )7. What is the girl’s name?
A. Kate. B. Katy. C. Kite.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8～10三个小题。
( )8. What is in the girl’s schlbag?
A. Schl things. B. Fd and drink. C. Fruit and tys.
( )9. What clur is the girl’s schlbag?
A. Blue. B. Yellw. C. White.
( )10. What can we knw frm the dialgue?
A. The girl can find things fast.
B. The girl’s schlbag is nt tidy.
C. The by ften puts things in the right places.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。
( )11.Whse farm is it?
A. Brwn’s father’s. B. Brwn’s. C. Brwn’s uncle’s.
( )12. What clur are the sheep?
A. White. B. Black. C. Yellw.
( )13. What animals are brwn?
A. Chickens. B. Cws. C.Pigs
( )14. Where are the chickens?
A. Behind the sheep. B. Behind the tree. C. Behind the cws.
( )15. What des Brwn think f the farm?
A. Small. B. Big. C. Nt tidy.
笔试部分（100分）
II. 完形填空(共15小题；每小题1分，共计15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Dra is frm America, but she studies in Shanghai nw. Dra and her parents 16． near her new schl. She is in Grade Seven. On her 17． schl day, Dra's classmate Li Ting says t her, "Hi, I'm Li Ting. Nice t 18． yu! D yu like 19． classrm?" Dra says, "Yes. 20． I miss（想念）my ld class and friends in America."
"Can yu tell me sme stries 21． yur ld friends?" says Li Ting.
Dra says, "Yes, f curse. I have tw 22． friends at my ld schl. They are Lily and Mnica. We are the 23． age. We are all thirteen 24． ld. We all like sprts. We play basketball n the 25． every Saturday. It's 26． the left f the art building. Every Mnday afternn, we can 27． there. The art teacher, Ms Wd, is really nice."
"It's gd t have friends, isn't it?" says Li Ting. Dra says, "Yes, but I can't 28． them nw."
"Well, it's gd t have 29． friends, t." Li Ting says. "We can be friends. And I als like basketball."
"Sure," Dra says. Nw she really has 30． in the new schl.
16．A． liveB． wrk C． walkD． keep
17．A． firstB． full C． lastD． next
18．A． hearB． call C． meetD． draw
19．A． yursB． ur C． hisD． her
20．A． OrB． And C． SD． But
21．A． withB． abutC． frm D． fr
22．A． gdB． mdern C． funnyD． delicius
23．A． greatB． cute C． different D． same
24．A． days B． weeks C． years D． mnths
25．A． sprts fieldB． art building
C． music hallD． science building
26．A． nB． in C． atD． with
27．A． draw picturesB． listen t music
C． play the guitarD． play games
28．A． seeB． study C． helpD． cunt
29．A． ldB． new C． largeD． clean
30．A． interestB． kind C． funD． happy
III. 阅读理解(本题有15小题，每小题2分； 共计30分)
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Mary is new here, s she wants t make sme friends. Then she talks with her classmates n WeChat（微信）.
( )31. What clr des Mary like?
A. Red. B. Green.C. Blue. D. Black.
( )32. Wh is the last persn t speak n WeChat?
A. Jim Hand. B. Mary Green. C. Cherry Black. D. Bb Miller.
( )33. When are the fur students talking nline?
A. In the mrning. B. In the afternn. C. In the evening. D. At night.
B
Hi, I am Jim. My schl is big and it's very beautiful. There is a big garden in ur schl. There are many flwers in it. The flwers are clurful. There are all kinds f clurs. In the centre f the garden, there is a pl. The fish are swimming happily and freely in it.
There are tw classrm buildings arund the garden. There are 36 classrms in them. And there are many ther rms in them t, such as the music rm, the reading rm, the language lab and the library. There are lts f bks in the library, such as strybks, picture bks and magazines. We can read them after class.
The sprts field is behind the classrm buildings. We d mrning exercises n the sprts field every day. On the sprts field, yu can play sprts-running, playing basketball, playing table tennis and s n.
I like my schl very much.
34．Hw is Jim's schl?
A．small and dirty.B．small but beautiful.
C．big and beautiful.D．big but nt beautiful.
35．What des the underlined wrd "magazines" mean in Chinese?
A．杂志B．报纸C．工具D．家具
36．Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A．There is a swimming pl in the garden.
B．Jim can read cartn bks in the library.
C．There are 35 classrms in the classrm buildings.
D．The classrm buildings are in frnt f the sprts field.
37．What are nt mentined(提及)in the text?
A．Sprts. B．Flwers. C．Buildings.D．Cmputer rms
C
Three kinds f bears live in Alaska, America. They are the plar bear(北极熊), the black bear and the brwn bear.
Peple can als call plar bears white bears because they are white. They usually live n the ice and like t eat seals(海豹). They always wrk hard t find seals. Plar bears always have a gd wash after eating fd. Black bears live in the frests. They lve t eat many kinds f plants very much. Brwn bears usually live in the muntains. Once a year, the brwn bears g t the rivers and lakes t find fish t eat. Brwn bears als lve t eat fruit like strawberries.
Plar bears are very dangerus(危险的) and peple dn't live near their hmes. Peple must be far frm black bears t. If yu meet a black bear in the frest, yu must keep quiet first and then yu can back away slwly (慢慢后退). Brwn bears smetimes cme t peple fr fd. Yu can't let the brwn bears find yur fd n the flr, s yu must put it in yur bag and keep it tidy.
38．What des the underlined wrd "They" in Paragraph 2 refer t(指的是)?
A．Fish.B．Plar bears.C．Black bears.D．Brwn bears.
39．Where d brwn bears usually live?
A．On the ice. B．Near the river. C．In the frests. D．In the muntains.
40．What d plar bears and black bears have in cmmn(共同之处)?
A．They are very tidy.B．They are dangerus.
C．They like eating fruit.D．They like living near peple.
41．Why des the writer write the passage?
A．T ask peple nt t see bears. B．T tell peple t live in Alaska.
C．T let peple knw abut the bears in Alaska.
D．T tell peple hw t knw abut Alaska well.
D
We all study in the classrm in the schl, but what are classrms like in different cuntries?
In China, children have a fixed (固定的) classrm. In a classrm, yu can see desks and chairs in lines. There are usually abut 40 r mre students in every class. They always face the blackbard.
In the UK, mst classrms are similar. There are usually abut 30 students in every class. Usually, tw children have a lng desk.
In the US, classrms usually have single (单人的) desks fr every student. There are abut 15-25 students in a class. The US children dn't have a fixed classrm. They always g t different classrms when the classes are different.
Students in Japan have a fixed classrm and they have single desks, t. At the back f the classrm, there are places fr students' clthes. At the gate f the schl building, there are places fr their shes.
42．Hw many desks are there in a classrm in the UK?
A．Abut 15.B．Abut 25.C．Abut 30.D．Abut 40.
43．In which cuntry d students have single desks?
A．China; Japan. B．the UK; the US C．the UK; Japan D．the US; Japan
44．What des the passage mainly want t tell us?
A．Schls in different cuntries. B．Students in different cuntries.
C．Classes in different cuntries. D．Classrms in different cuntries.
45．What is the RIGHT structure(结构) f the passage?
A．B．C．D．
IV、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分。共计5分）
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A、B、C、D、E五个选项中选择正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入小题，并回答第50题。
Friends are very imprtant t us. They are always there when we need help. This year, I have many new friends.
This is Li Wei. He is furteen years ld and frm Beijing. 46． And basketball is his favurite. I always play it with him after schl n the sprts field.
That is Mei. She is a kind girl. She always helps me with math. 47． In her free time, she likes t play the pian.
48． He is frm the UK and nw lives in Hangzhu with his parents. 49． He always makes us laugh.
Having friends like Li Wei, Mei, and Tny makes schl mre fun. We help each ther and share happy times every day.
50. What is yur hbby? (n mre than 10 wrds)
V、单词辨音 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
观察下列每组单词的读音，选出划线部分读音与其他三个不同的选项。
VI．词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分）
A．用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文通顺、正确。每词仅用一次(每空一词)。
Bb is my cusin. He is my 56. sn. His 57. name is Green. I can 58. it, G-R-E-E-N, Green. He has many hbbies. He likes t sing and dance. He 59. lves reading. He is nice s he has a lt f 60. in the schl.
B．根据提示，写出空白处各单词的正确形式
61. The red light _______ (意思是) “stp”.
62. There is n rice. We _______(需要) t buy sme.
63. Jhn is a nice by and he always ________(问候) thers with a smile.
64. Gd friends shuld always help each ______ in study.
65. Please c______ frm ne t twenty in English.
66. His _______(膝盖) is hurt, s he can’t play tennis with us.
67. Peter is my c_______. We study in the same class.
68. We usually change ________(座位) every tw weeks.
69. The schl is ging t r_______ the flag at 8:00 tmrrw mrning.
70. A lt f ________(错误) in my paper make the teacher angry.
VII．语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分；共计10分）
Hell. I am Sanma. I cme frm China. I'm 14 years ld. Nw I am a student in a middle schl. I am 71. Class 3, Grade 9. I like ding sprt. Lk at this pht. The girl next t 72. (I) is my cusin, Jane. She is 13. We 73. (be) in the same grade, 74. nt in the same class. She has big blue 75. (eye) and a wide muth. Her hair is shrt and blnde. And her nse is small. We dn't lk the same. In this pht, I wear 76. black T-shirt and blue pants. She 77. (wear) a yellw T-shirt and a pink skirt. 78. (Jane) cap is yellw and her shes are black. She 79. (like) playing the pian. She plays it really 80. (gd). We are different, but we have a lt f fun tgether.
VIII. 句型转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据所给句子及括号内的要求，在空白处填入适当的内容； 每空填一词。
81.I am Peter. (改为一般疑问句)
Peter?
82.It is my mther’s pian. (对划线部分提问)
pian it?
83.Is there a white bard in yur classrm? (给出否定回答)
N, .
84.My father spends a lt f time fishing. (改为否定句)
My father a lt f time fishing.
85.Helen sits n my left and Ella sits n my right. (改为同义句)
I sit Helen Ella.
IX. 书面表达 (满分15分)
假设你是李华，新学期已经过半，请写一封e-mail给你的美国朋友Jenny介绍自己的情况，具体内容见表格。
要求:
(1)包含所提供的信息，条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确。
(2)文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称。
(3)词数60~80词。信的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jenny, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I’m lking frward t yur reply.

Yurs,
Li Hua
班级 姓名 学号 座位号
装订线
2025学年第一学期七年级期中考试英语学科答题卷
听力（本题有 15 小题，1-10每小题 1 分，11-15每小题2分；共计 15 分）
完形填空（本题有 15 小题，每小题 1 分；共计 15 分）
阅读理解（本题有 15 小题，每小题 2 分；共计 30 分）
四、任务型阅读（本题有 5 小题，每小题 1 分；共计 5 分）
50.___________________________
五、单词辨音（本题有 5 小题，每小题 1 分；共计 5 分）
六、词汇运用（本题有 15 小题，每小题 1 分；共计 15 分）
56. __________ 57. __________ 58. __________59. __________60. __________
61. _________ 62. __________ 63. ___________64. __________ 65.__________
66. __________ 67. __________ 68. ___________ 69. __________ 70.__________
七、语法填空（本题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共计 10 分）
71. __________ 72. __________ 73. ___________ 74. __________ 75.__________
76. __________ 77. __________ 78. ___________ 79. __________ 80.__________
八、句型转换（本题有 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共计 5 分）
81. 82. 83.
84. 85.
九、书面表达（共 1 小题；共计 15 分）
Dear Jenny,








I’m lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li Hua
参考答案及评分标准
I. 听力 (共三节； 1-10每小题1分，11-15每小题2分，共计20分)
1-5 ABBCC 6-10 ABABA 11-15 CBCAB
II. 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，共计15分)
16-20 AACBD 21-25 BADCA 26-30 AAABC
III. 阅读理解(本题有15小题，每小题2分； 共计30分)
31-33 ACA 34-37 CADD 38-41 BDBC42-45ADDB
IV．任务型阅读(共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分)
46-49 EBCA 50. My hbby is playing the guitar./ I lve singing English sngs.
V．单词辨音(共5 小题：每小题1分，满分5分)
51-55 DCACA
VI. 词汇运用(共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分)
56. uncle’s57. last 58. spell59. als60. friends
61. means62. need 63. greets 64. ther 65. cunt
66. knee 67. classmate 68. seats 69. raise 70. mistakes
VII. 语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分；共计10分）
71．in；72．me；73．are；74．but；75．eyes；76．a；77．wears；78．Jane's；79．likes；80．well
VIII．句型转换(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
81. Are; yu82. Whse; is83. there; isn’t
84. desn’t; spend85. between; and
IX. 书面表达(满分15分)
One pssible versin :
Dear Jenny,
I am Li Hua. I cme frm China. I’m 13 years ld. I study in Sunshine Middle Schl. I’m in Class Fur/ 4, Grade 7. There are tw libraries, ne playgrund and ne dining hall in my schl. My favurite sprt is tennis because it’s easy fr me. Apples, rice, hamburgers and milk are my favrite fd. My father is a teacher and my mther is a dctr. I lve them very much. I’m very happy in this schl because my classmates and teachers are all nice t me. Hw abut yu? I’m lking frward t yur reply.
Yurs,
Li Hua
一、评分原则
1.本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
4. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑：英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
6.词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
二、档次划分
第五档(12-15)完全完成了试题规定的任务。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(9-12)完全完成了试题规定的任务。达到了预期的主要写作目的。
第三档(6-9)基本完成了试题规定的任务。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (3-6)未恰当完成试题规定的任务。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1-3) 未完成试题规定的任务。信息未能传达给读者。
0分未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判： 所写内容与所要求内容无关或无法看清。
听力材料
1 W: Hey,Bb, can I brrw yur ruler ?
M: Sure, here yu g.
2 M: Lk at the birds. Hw many can yu see ?
W: I can see fur black birds and tw white birds.
3 W: Excuse me, what des PRC mean?
M: Oh it means Peple Republic f China.
4 M: I lve the funny mnkey at this z.
W: Me t. Lk !The panda is s cute.
5 M: Wuld yu like sme bread and juice, Helen?
W: Yes, Dad. And I want a cake t.
6-7
M: Gd mrning, May I have yur name, please?
W: Gd mrning I am Katy.
M: Hw d yu spell that? K-A-T-E right?
W N It is K-A-T-Y.
M: Oh, srry!
8-10
M: Hi, hw d yu keep yur schl things?
W: I put them in my schlbag.
M: What clur is yur schlbag?
W: It’s yellw. It’s my favurite clur.
M D yu keep yur schlbag tidy?
W: Yes I ften put things in the right places.
M: That’s gd. It helps yu find things fast.
11-15
Hell my name is Brwn. Let me say smething abut my uncle’s farm. On the farm there are sme animals. The cws are black and white and the sheep are black. There are three pigs and they are brwn. The lvely chickens are yellw. They are behind the sheep. The farm is big and clean, and the animals are happy.
The sun is shining and the sky is blue.
A. He is s funny.
B. She lves music a lt.
C. The by in the blue hat is Tny.
D. And vilin is his favurite.
E. He likes ball games very much.
( )51. A. bread
B. head
C. bed
D. meat
( )52. A. clck
B. ht
C. nte
D. sck
( )53. A. me
B. leg
C. bed
D. set
( )54. A. back
B.lamp
C. make
D. have
( )55. A. tennis
B. find
C. white
D. kite
friend als last spell uncle
Name
Li Hua
Age
13
Class
704
Schl
Sunshine Middle Schl
(2 libraries, a sprts field, a dining hall)
Favurite sprt
tennis
Favurite fd
apples, ...
Family
father (teacher), mther( dctr )
1
2
3
4
5
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9
10
11
12
13
14
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19
20
21
22
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24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
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35
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37
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40
41
42
43
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49
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54
55
采分点
满分
可给分值
1.内容充实，覆盖要点
（内容、要点）
5
4～5分 3～4分
1～2分 0分
描述了所有要点，内容合理、丰富 描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 描述了小部分信息，内容不合理
没有作答或描述内容与主题无关
2.用词适切，语法正 确，句型多样
（词汇、语法、句型）
5
4～5分 3～4分
1～2分 0分
用词适切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本 没有语言错误
用词基本适切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错 误但不影响理
有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 有大量语言错误，影响理解
结构紧凑，意思连贯
（语意、连词、指代）
3
2～3分 1～2分
0分
行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰
行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不 够清晰
没有连贯的意识
4.书写规范，词数适宜 （标点符号、大小 写、词数）
2
2分
1分
0分
大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整
大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚 可辨认
大小写、标点错误较多，语言应用不规范，词 数严重不足，书写难以辨认