贵州省贵阳市乌当区2024-2025学年下学期七年级期末英语卷

这是一份贵州省贵阳市乌当区2024-2025学年下学期七年级期末英语卷，共10页。
1．全卷共6页，六个大题，满分100分，考试时间90分钟。
2．请在答题卡指定位置作答，在试题卷上答题视为无效。
第一大题 听力测试（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听对话，选择与对话内容相符的图。（读一遍）
1．________ 2．________ 3．________ 4．________ 5．________
第二节 听句子，根据所听句子，选择最佳应答。（读一遍）
6．A．It’s really delicius. B．It’s five yuan. C．It’s eight ’clck.
7．A．Gd idea. B．K-I-T-E. C．I’m fine, thanks.
8．A．Tmat plants. B．Yes, there is. C．N prblem.
9．A．Here yu are. B．I’d lve t. C．Because it’s fun.
10．A．Beijing rast duck. B．The Great Wall. C．In the UK.
第三节 听对话，根据对话内容及问题，选择最佳选项。（读两遍）
听下面一段对话，回答第11、12两个小题。
11．A．Peter’s. B．Peter’s father’s. C．Peter’s brther’s.
12．A．He likes fishing. B．He likes swimming. C．He likes playing chess.
听下面一段对话，回答第13、14、15三个小题。
13．A．Blue. B．Black. C．Brwn.
14．A．On the desk. B．In the schlbag. C．Under the bed.
15．A．Brther and sister. B．Mther and sn. C．Teacher and student.
第四节 听短文，根据短文内容判断正误。（与短文内容相符填入T，不符填入F）（读三遍）
16．Bill is Lily’s father.
17．Lily’s mther is frm Lndn.
18．Lily’s grandparents like playing ping-png.
19．Lily’s brther Sam likes blue best.
20．There are six peple in Lily’s family
第二大题 完形填空（共两节，10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
第一节
从方框中选取最佳选项完成短文，选项中有一项为多余选项。
My name is Kate. I’m 13 years ld. I’m frm Guiyang, China. Nw, I live with my father, my mther, and my brther. We ____1____ a pet bird. Her name is Cc. She even speaks sme ____2____ like “Ni Ha”. My favrite fd is beef ndles and my favrite place is Qianlingshan Park. I like sprts. I play basketball every weekend with my brther and my friends. I like music ____3____ I play the guitar in the schl band. I have ____4____ gd friend—Sally. She is als 13 years ld. She cmes frm Sydney, Australia. Nw she lives in Guiyang with her parents. Map tfu is her favrite Chinese fd. Sally and I are in the ____5____ class. We are bth in Class 1, Grade 7. I am happy t have Sally as my friend.
第二节
阅读短文，从短文后所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Dngzhi Festival is very famus in China. It is als a ____6____ fr the family t get tgether just like the Spring Festival. It is arund December 22nd every year. On this day, the day is the shrtest and the night is the lngest f the year.
There is a stry abut Dngzhi Festival. In the Han Dynasty (汉朝), Zhang Zhngjing saw sme peple n the streets. They were very ____7____ and their ears were frzen (冻僵的). He made ____8____ t keep thse peple warm in the cld winter. And the dumplings lked like ears.
Usually, in nrthern China, peple always ____9____ dumplings n the day. In the suthern part f China, peple always eat Tangyuan t ____10____ this festival. They really taste delicius.
D yu like Dngzhi Festival? We feel warm with family n the day.
6. A. placeB. timeC. sprt
7. A. cldB. htC. sunny
8. A. ndlesB. supsC. dumplings
9. A. eatB. buyC. sell
10. A. findB. breakC. celebrate
第三大题 阅读理解（共两节，17小题；每小题2分，共34分）
第一节 阅读下面三个语篇，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
11. Yu can g t the ________ t jin the sprts club.
A. schl ballB. schl gymC. schl library
12. Yu can g t the club at ________ n Wednesday.
A. 9:30B. 13:00C. 16:00
13. We can find ________ kinds f sprts in the picture.
A. 6B. 7C. 8
14. The passage is a (an) ________.
A. adB. letterC. email
B
Cindy’s favurite day is Friday. At 8:30 a.m., she has her first class, English. It’s her favrite subject. She thinks it’s very easy fr her. There are 10 minutes fr students t have a break between classes. At 9:20 a.m., she has a Chinese lessn. She isn’t gd at it. After 30 minutes’ mrning exercise, she takes maths class at 10:30 am. She thinks it is difficult. Althugh Chinese and maths are nt easy, Cindy still believes that she can study them well in the future. At 11:20 a.m., it’s time fr histry. She thinks it’s meaningful because she can learn abut the past.
In the afternn, she has P.E. at 2:30 p.m. Students ften play ftball in PE class. After the P.E. class, she and her classmates talk abut many things in the class meeting. Schl is ver at 4:00 p.m. What a happy Friday!
15. ________ is Cindy’s favrite subject.
A. B. C.
16. Cindy thinks histry is ________.
A. difficultB. meaningfulC. bring
17. What can we infer (推断) frm the passage?
A. All the students like P.E. class.
B. Cindy has 5 classes in the mrning.
C. Students have each class fr 40 minutes.
18. What is the main idea f the passage?
A. Cindy’s favrite day.B. Cindy’s favrite hbbies.C. Cindy’s favrite schl.
C
When yu meet smene new r want t talk t smene, it’s gd fr yu t start a cnversatin first. Here are sme ways.
※Saying “Hi” r “Hey” t greet
If (如果) yu dn’t knw the persn well, “Hi” is mre plite (礼貌的). If yu knw the persn well, yu can say “Hey”. After greeting, yu can start a cnversatin. If yu dn’t have much time, yu can still say “Hi” r “Hey”.
※Intrducing (介绍) yurself
If the persn desn’t knw yu, intrduce yurself after greeting him r her. Spell yur name s he r she can remember it. Fr example, yu can say, “Hell, my name is Jake Smith. J-A-K-E, Jake. S-M-I-T-H, Smith.”
※Asking questins
Yu can ask, “Hw are yu?” The ther persn might say, “I’m fine, thank yu!” r tell yu mre. Please listen carefully s yu can answer.
19. If yu knw the persn well, yu can ________.
A. say “Hi”B. say “Hell”C. say “Hey”
20. A persn can remember yur name when yu ________.
A. say “Hell”B. spell yur nameC. call him
21. The writer tells us ________ ways t start a cnversatin.
A. 2B. 3C. 4
22. What is the best title (标题) f the passage?
A. Ways t start a cnversatin.B. Ways t intrduce yurself.C. Ways t ask questins.
第二节
阅读下面短文，根据其内容填空或回答问题。（前四小题每题答案不超过3个单词，最后一题必须用完整句子回答。）
Mike is frm Canada. He is learning Chinese. Nw he can write his Chinese name and talk with peple in Chinese. He thinks Chinese is an interesting language. He lves Chinese histry, s he wants t g t Beijing and Xi’an ne day.
In Canada, 40,000 students are learning Chinese. “I have sme friends in China. They say English can help them find gd jbs,” Mike says. “I think Chinese can help Canadian students find gd jbs, t.”
Mre and mre freign (外国的) students are interested in Chinese culture. Nw there are mre than 500 Cnfucius Schls all ver the wrld. These schls will help freign students learn Chinese well.
23. Mike cmes frm ________ and he is learning Chinese.
24. Mike can write ________ and talk with peple in Chinese.
25. Mike thinks Chinese is a(an) ________ language.
26. There are ________ students learning Chinese in Canada.
27 Why d many Canadian students learn Chinese?
_______________________________________________________________
第四大题 语言运用（共两节，8小题，共11分）
第一节 （共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
阅读短文，根据语境，选词填空。
Oct 4th is Wrld Animal Day. It’s a day when we shw hw much we lve animals.
Animals knw lve, t. Animal parents lve ____28____ (their/they) children just like humans.
In a stry, a baby bird falls frm ____29____ (an/a) tree. Cars drive past it n the busy rad. It is very dangerus (危险的). Sn, tw big ____30____ (birds/bird) quickly fly dwn t the street. They ____31____ (are/is) the parents f the little bird. They aren’t afraid f the cars and take their baby away.
Animals nt nly lve their wn children They als care fr ther baby animals. Anjana is a chimpanzee (黑猩猩). She ____32____ (lives/live) in an American z. She feeds (喂养) a baby lin carefully every day.
第二节 （共3小题，每小题2分，共6分）
阅读语篇，根据语境将画线句子翻译成中文或英文。
Feng Ta
In Chengdu, we have as many teahuses (茶馆) as leaves in a cup f blue. My grandpa ften takes me t the teahuse. He and his friends drink tea and share their news. 1．我也喜欢茶. It’s mre than a drink fr me. A cup f warm tea always makes me feel like I’m back hme.
Emma James
In Lndn, it’s n secret that the Greens lve afternn tea. But actually, peple drink tea all day. Bill can drink eight cups a day! 2．My kids and I always make tea after schl. They cme back every weekend. 3．We drink tea and feel happy. It’s ur way f cnversatin.
33. _____________________________________________________________
34. _____________________________________________________________
35. _____________________________________________________________
第五大题 书面表达（共两节，共15分）
第一节 （每空1分，共5分）
按字母表顺序，写出所缺字母的大小写。
36. Aa Cc
37. Kk Mm
38. Nn Pp
39. Rr Tt
40. Xx Zz
第二节 话题作文（共10分）
41. 进入冬季，流感爆发，严重影响了部分学生的生活和学习。假如你是李华，作为一名学校“健康宣传小卫士”，请根据以下提示，以“My Gd Living Habits”为题，从健康饮食和体育运动两方面写一篇短文，向同学们介绍自己的生活习惯。
写作要求：
1．需全面反映图文信息，可适当补充；
2．文中不得出现考生的真实姓名及学校名称；
3．词数50词左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
My Gd Living Habits
Hell! My name is Li Hua. I have gd living habits. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第六大题 口试（10分）
乌当区2024—2025学年度第一学期期末监测试卷
七年级英语
同学你好，答题前请认真！阅读以下内容：
1．全卷共6页，六个大题，满分100分，考试时间90分钟。
2．请在答题卡指定位置作答，在试题卷上答题视为无效。
第一大题 听力测试（共四节，20小题；每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听对话，选择与对话内容相符的图。（读一遍）
1．________ 2．________ 3．________ 4．________ 5．________
第二节 听句子，根据所听句子，选择最佳应答。（读一遍）
6．A．It’s really delicius. B．It’s five yuan. C．It’s eight ’clck.
7．A．Gd idea. B．K-I-T-E. C．I’m fine, thanks.
8．A．Tmat plants. B．Yes, there is. C．N prblem.
9．A．Here yu are. B．I’d lve t. C．Because it’s fun.
10．A．Beijing rast duck. B．The Great Wall. C．In the UK.
第三节 听对话，根据对话内容及问题，选择最佳选项。（读两遍）
听下面一段对话，回答第11、12两个小题。
11．A．Peter’s. B．Peter’s father’s. C．Peter’s brther’s.
12．A．He likes fishing. B．He likes swimming. C．He likes playing chess.
听下面一段对话，回答第13、14、15三个小题。
13．A．Blue. B．Black. C．Brwn.
14．A．On the desk. B．In the schlbag. C．Under the bed.
15．A．Brther and sister. B．Mther and sn. C．Teacher and student.
第四节 听短文，根据短文内容判断正误。（与短文内容相符填入T，不符填入F）（读三遍）
16．Bill is Lily’s father.
17．Lily’s mther is frm Lndn.
18．Lily’s grandparents like playing ping-png.
19．Lily’s brther Sam likes blue best.
20．There are six peple in Lily’s family.
第二大题 完形填空（共两节，10小题；每小题1分，共10分）
第一节
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. F
3 A 4. E
5. D
第二节
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. C
第三大题 阅读理解（共两节，17小题；每小题2分，共34分）
第一节 阅读下面三个语篇，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【11~14题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. A 13. C 14. A
B
【15~18题答案】
【答案】15. A 16. B 17. C 18. A
C
【19~22题答案】
【答案】19. C 20. B 21. B 22. A
第二节
【23~27题答案】
【答案】23. Canada
24. his Chinese name
25. interesting
26. 40,000 27. Because they think Chinese can help them find gd jbs.（答案不唯一，合理即可）
第四大题 语言运用（共两节，8小题，共11分）
第一节 （共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
【28~32题答案】
【答案】28. their
29. a 30. birds
31. are 32. lives
第二节 （共3小题，每小题2分，共6分）
【33~35题答案】
【答案】33 I als like tea.
34. 放学后，我和我的孩子们总是泡茶。
35. 我们喝茶，感到很开心。
第五大题 书面表达（共两节，共15分）
第一节 （每空1分，共5分）
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. Bc 37. Ll
38 O 39. Ss
40. Yy
第二节 话题作文（共10分）
【41题答案】
【答案】例文
My Gd Living Habits
Hell! My name is Li Hua. I have gd living habits. I like playing sprts. I have tw basketballs, three vlleyballs and fur tennis balls. Basketball is my favrite sprt. I always play basketball with my classmates after schl. I think it’s gd fr my health.
I als have gd eating habits. Frm Mnday t Friday, I get up at 6:30. Then, I have an egg, milk and bread fr breakfast. I always have lunch at schl. Fr lunch, I like rice, vegetables and chicken. Fr dinner, I have fruit. Because I dn’t want t be fat.
Let’s d sprts and eat well t be healthy.
第六大题 口试（10分）
A．
B．
C．
D．
E．
A．and B．have C．in D．same E．a F．Chinese
A．
B．
C．
D．
E．