2025年安徽省合肥市中考三模英语试题（中考模拟）

这是一份2025年安徽省合肥市中考三模英语试题（中考模拟），共17页。试卷主要包含了 全卷包括“试题卷”两部分等内容，欢迎下载使用。
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What can Tim prepare fr the party?
A. B. C.
2. What are the speakers prbably ging t d?
A. B. C.
3. What time is it nw?
A. 4:50 p. m. B. 5:00 p. m. C. 5:10 p. m.
4. Where are the tw speakers?
A. In the library. B. In the hspital. C. In the fd stre.
5. What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Dctr and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Driver and passenger.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. Hw des Lisa feel after putting her wrries int the bx?
A. Excited. B. Relaxed. C. Bred.
7. Whm did Lisa get the idea f making a Wrry Bx frm?
A. Her friend. B. Her parent. C. Her sister.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8. Hw ften des Jeff run?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
9. Hw lng has Jeff kept the habit f running?
A. Fr fur years. B. Fr five years. C. Fr six years.
10. Which new sprt will the by learn?
A. Basketball. B. Vlleyball. C. Skating.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When did Jacksn get hurt?
A. During the practice. B. During the game. C. After the game.
12. Which part f Jacksn’s bdy gt hurt?
A. The knee. B. The hand. C. The finger.
13 Wh was wrried when Jacksn gt hurt?
A. His parents. B. His teammates. C. His fans.
14. What did Jacksn d when the game started?
A. He watched the game silently. B. He tried t cmpete with injuries. C. He cheered as ludly as he culd.
15. Why did the team win the game?
A. Because the ther team was t weak.
B. Because their cach gave them excellent suggestins.
C. Because Jacksn’s cheers encuraged them and they wrked hard.
IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. — D yu knw smething abut the Wrld Games?
— Yes, it’s held every fur years and Chengdu gt the ________ t hst the 2025 Wrld Games.
A. rightB. dutyC. abilityD. pwer
2. Only ________ cups can hld the mst water, s learn just like yu knw nthing.
A. beautifulB. fullC. brkenD. empty
3. Planting mre trees helps ________ us with fresh air and makes ur city mre beautiful.
A. cllectB. cntrlC. prvideD. share
4. We shuld never ________ tday’s wrk till tmrrw.
A. put ffB. take inC. get tD. cut up
5. —What are yu ding nw?
—We ________ a vlunteer activity in the cmmunity next week. We are discussing the details nw.
A. hldB. heldC. have heldD. will hld
6. —Each f yu has ________ that yu’re gd at, and yur friends have theirs.
—I agree. We shuld learn frm each ther.
A. everythingB. nthingC. smethingD. anything
7. —What shuld I d when I meet smene fr the first time?
—Yu shuld intrduce yurself ________.
A. easilyB. plitelyC. nervuslyD. angrily
8. —My grandfather still reads bks every day ________ he thinks learning is a jurney that never ends.
—He sets a gd example fr us.
A. befreB. unlessC. thughD. because
9. The night reading activities ________ Wuhu studies enrich peple’s night life.
A. underB. withC. fD. fr
10. —It’s necessary fr students t receive safety educatin.
—________. After all, safety cmes first.
A. That’s fr sure.B. I dn’t think s.C. It depends.D. There’s n need.
VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
The new schl year is arund the crner. There will be ____11____ knwledge t gain (获得) ver the tw terms. Whether yu succeed r nt will ____12____ hw hard yu wrk. When it cmes t learning I think f my grandfather.
My grandfather grew up in a ____13____ family. After graduating (毕业) frm high schl, he drpped ut f schl t wrk n the ____14____ t supprt his family. Hwever, he ____15____ stpped studying chemistry. In rder t study chemistry, he saved mney t ____16____ bks. Every day, after a tiring day f farm wrk, he wuld still study hard. During ___17___ frm his day’s wrk, he wuld review the knwledge he had gained in his mind. When he came acrss smething he didn’t ____18____, he asked the educated peple fr help. ____19____ he still did nt understand, he wuld walk t the twn library t lk fr infrmatin. After many years f self-study, my grandfather ____20____ the Adult Self-Study Exam and entered university t study chemistry.
Grandfather’s experience has taught me that as lng as there is a strng desire (欲望) fr knwledge, ne can find ways t learn even in the face f many difficulties.
11. A. newB. easyC. uselessD. bring
12. A. believe inB. lk frC. depend nD. listen t
13. A. prB. happyC. strictD. successful
14. A. trainB. farmC. streetD. bat
15. A. alwaysB. ftenC. smetimesD. never
16. A. returnB. buyC. writeD. pen
17. A. meetingsB. fightsC. breaksD. races
18. A. findB. rememberC. expectD. understand
19. A. IfB. SC. AlthughD. Unless
20. A. missedB. frgtC. passedD. heard
B
Students sit at their desks wearing pairs f special glasses, travelling thrugh a big frest. Yu’ve prbably nly ____21____ this in mvies befre. Hwever, such things may becme ____22____ in future classrms.
Virtual reality (虚拟现实), als knwn as VR, is expected t becme widespread in the future. VR’s 3D technlgy ____23____ students t study natural wnders and histrical stries as if they were there. Students can visit many places withut walking ut f the ____24____.
Besides virtual reality, ____25____ are als expected t becme cmmn classrm tls, acting as classmates and teachers. Sme rbts are ____26____ new teaching methds t schls. Fr example, Rbin, a rbt that ____27____ a persn, uses funny games t teach freign languages. It makes learning quite ____28____.
As technlgy cntinues t shape the future in many ways, scientists say that the develpment f technlgy will ____29____ create new teaching methds as well. Thse mdern technlgies will nt nly help slve ____30____ in learning, but als turn learning int fun. They will surely have a great influence n educatin.
21. A. imaginedB. seenC. enjyedD. discussed
22. A. differentB. clC. cmmnD. private
23. A. warnsB. rdersC. allwsD. refuses
24. A. classrmB. hspitalC. museumD. market
25. A. cmputersB. phnesC. camerasD. rbts
26. A. changingB. bringingC. thrwingD. putting
27. A. lks likeB. laughs atC. cares frD. agrees with
28. A. necessaryB. strangeC. interestingD. imprtant
29. A. luckilyB. simplyC. hardlyD. certainly
30. A. difficultiesB. suggestinsC. lessnsD. stries
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从下面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Lng time n see, Jack. I need yur help!
B: Lng time n see.____31____
A: Our teacher asked us t draw different pictures fr the cming New Year’s Day party. But I have n idea! ____32____
B: Sure. D yu knw the masct (吉祥物) f the 2025 Spring Festival Gala (盛会)? It has been psted recently.
A: N. I haven’t nticed that. ____33____
B: It was psted n December 2nd. Lk! It is called “Si Shengsheng”.
A: ____34____
B: I agree with yu. Many painters draw different pictures t celebrate the new year. Yu can get sme ideas frm them.
A: Gd idea! Thanks a lt.
B: ____35____ I can’t wait t see yur wrk.
A. It lks s cute!
B. It’s my pleasure.
C. What’s the matter?
D. When was it psted?
E. Where are yu ging t draw pictures?
F. I’ll search fr the infrmatin abut it nline.
G. Culd yu please give me sme suggestins?
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Running is a great way t keep fit, but it’s imprtant t stay safe. Remember t warm up befre running and stretch (拉伸) after running. Try ding these mves befre and after yur run!
Befre running:
After running:
①Place yur right heel (脚后跟) n a step while keeping yur legs straight. Slwly lean (倾斜) yur upper bdy frward. Then change legs.
②Stand n the step with the frnt part f yur feet and yur heels in the air. Slwly lwer yur heels.
36. Why d we need t warm up befre running and stretch after running?
A. T help us stay safe.B. T help us keep fit.
C. T help us exercise mre.D. T help us mve easily.
37. Hw lng shuld peple d high knees befre running accrding t the text?
A. Fr 30 secnds.B. Fr 2 minutes.C. Fr 5 minutes.D. Fr 20 minutes.
38. Which part f yur feet shuld stand n the step first accrding t the secnd step f stretching?
A. Only the heels.B. The right heel.C. The sides f the feet.D. The frnt part f the feet.
B
He Jing, 36, cmes frm Xi’an, Shaanxi Prvince. In 2024, she climbed t the tp f Munt Shishapangma in Xizang. She became the first persn frm China and the third wman in the wrld t climb all 14 f the wrld’s peaks (顶峰) ver 8,000 meters withut using supplemental xygen (补充氧气).
He Jing didn’t start climbing muntains until she was 18. Her first climb, in 2006, was in the Qinling Muntains. That made her interested in the sprt. In 2012, she climbed her first muntain ver 5,000 meters-Munt Siguniang in Sichuan Prvince. Frm then n, she has been trying t climb high muntains. In 2016, she reached her first 8,000-meter peak, Munt Ch Oyu, using nly ne bttle f xygen. Then she decided t try future climbs withut xygen.
Climbing withut xygen is very dangerus. T get ready, she trained hard, running at least five times a week. She als climbed 200 flights f stairs (200层楼梯), carrying a 20-kilgram lad (负荷) three times a week.
With her hard wrk, n May 14, 2022, she was the first wman frm China t get t the tp f Munt Qmlangma frm the suth side withut using bttled xygen. “Climbing muntains makes me happy. I will always be prepared t set ff,” she said.
39. When did He Jing becme interested in muntain climbing?
A. In 2006.B. In 2012.C. In 2016.D. In 2022.
40. What training did He Jing d t climb withut xygen?
①Running. ②Swimming. ③Lifting weights. ④Climbing stairs with heavy things.
A. ①②B. ①④C. ②③D. ③④
41. Why des He Jing like climbing muntains accrding t the text?
A. Because it makes her happy.B. Because it makes her famus.
C. Because it helps her stay healthy.D. Because it helps her make friends.
42. Which f the fllwing best describes He Jing?
A. Clever.B. Friendly.C. Brave.D. Hnest.
C
Yixian Cunty is knwn fr its “lantern gala (灯会)”. A research and educatin team was set up in 2020 at Hngcun Village. It pays attentin t the making skills and perfrming arts f traditinal festival lanterns.
He Jixing has been studying hw t make lanterns fr ver ten years. He is a city-level inheritr f the intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产传承人). He imprves the lanterns’ materials by using traditinal skills and mixing ideas frm ther kinds f lantern making in the cuntry, making them lng-lasting.
During the day, He and his team make lanterns. At night, they put n shws. They have hsted many events, including hliday celebratins and study trips in the past few years. These events teach peple abut lanterns.
He believes that it is imprtant t teach peple hw t make lanterns. Only in this way can we pass dwn the skills and values f lder times. Thrugh effrts like thse, the wisdm f the past can be kept alive.
43. What des the underlined wrd “It” in paragraph 1 refer t (指的是)?
A. The festival.B. The team.C. The gala.D. The village.
44. What is intrduced in paragraph 2 abut the lantern?
A. Its histry.B. Its imprtance.C. Its material.D. Its imprvement.
45. Why is it imprtant t teach peple hw t make lanterns accrding t He?
A. Because it helps create new fun shws.B. Because it helps imprve lcal business.
C. Because it helps pass dwn skills and values.D. Because it helps attract mre visitrs.
D
Have yu seen the wind lifting a kite int the sky r helping a bat sail (航行)? It is a cmmn example that humans use clean energy like wind. Peple can’t cntrl hw r where the wind blws, but they can use wind with the help f science and technlgy.
Bats were ne f the mst imprtant frms f transprtatin fr ancient peple. Peple have used wind t make bats sail fr thusands f years. But tday wind energy is mstly used t prduce electricity. A windmill (风车) mves when the wind blws. As its wings mve faster, they prduce electricity. This is hw wind energy wrks. And it never runs ut.
Besides humans, plants and animals als take advantage f wind energy. Fr example, seeds (种子) are carried by the wind t new places, allwing plants t spread. Birds fly with wings, but that takes a lt f energy. With the help f the wind, they can fly much mre easily. Bees smetimes rely n gentle winds t guide themselves back t their hmes.
Using wind energy is a step twards a greener and pllutin-free envirnment. It is als a symbl f friendship between humans and nature. We shuld try t use the clean energy t make ur lives better and prtect the earth.
46. What d we knw abut wind?
A. Peple can cntrl it in the futureB. We have already made full use f the wind.
C. It is the cleanest energy in nature.D. Technlgy can help peple use the wind.
47. What’s wind energy mstly used fr tday?
A. Making bats sail.B. Prducing electricity.C. Mving water.D. Mving the windmills.
48. Hw des the writer supprt his idea in paragraph 3?
A. By telling stries.B. By asking questins.C. By giving examples.D. By making surveys.
49. Which f the fllwing is the best title (标题) fr the text?
A. The Use f Wind EnergyB. The Methds f Using Wind
C. The Meanings f Using WindD. The Advantages f Wind Energy
E
Have yu ever felt as if everyne saw a stain (污渍) n yur shirt? Or thught everyne wuld remember a small mistake yu made while talking? If s, yu have experienced the “sptlight effect (聚光灯效应)”
The sptlight effect means we think peple pay mre attentin t us than they actually d. In the 1990s, researchers Thmas Gilvich and Kenneth Savitsky did sme tests. They asked sme students t wear ugly T-shirts in class. The students thught half f the ther students wuld ntice their shirts. But nly abut 25% did. The explanatin is simple: we are all the center f ur wn wrld. We are used t experiencing everything frm ur wn view, including ur mistakes, successes and failures.
Hwever, mst peple are busy with their wn lives. When yu make a small mistake, thers are prbably thinking abut their wn prblems. If yu wrry abut yur hair, thers are likely t be t busy thinking abut their wn lks. This desn’t mean n ne ever ntices anything abut yu-they d. But they dn’t pay as much attentin as yu think they d.
Understanding the sptlight effect can help yu relax. Next time yu feel wrried abut little things, remember: the sptlight in yur mind is likely much brighter than that which thers see yu in. It’s kay t make mistakes, and we dn’t need t be perfect all the time.
50. What did the students in the research have t wear?
A. New shes.B. Bright hats.C. Ugly T-shirts.D. Cl jeans.
51. Why d we experience the “sptlight effect”?
A. Because f ur failures in life.B. Because f ur way f thinking
C. Because f a lack f cnfidence.D. Because f the envirnment we live in.
52. What des the writer advise us t d?
A. Knw ur advantages and be a bright persn.B. Make sure everything is OK in a public place.
C. Relax and dn’t wrry t much abut little things.D. Pay mre attentin t ur mind rather than thers’.
第二节
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。
Calvin’s summer camp teacher, Mr. White, gave each student a piece f paper with pictures and descriptins f birds. “We’re ging t d a ne-week challenge and call it ‘Big Week’. Whever sees the mst different birds during this week will win,” explained Mr. White. “But I wn’t knw if yu really see them. It is based n hnesty.” Calvin thught it must be exciting and he wanted t win the game.
On the third day, everyne called ut the ttals. The number f birds Calvin fund was nt the largest, s he felt upset. But he believed his lucky place was in the preserve (保护区). That was where his class wuld g next.
Later in the week, Calvin reviewed his list. There were a lt f “unknwn” birds he hadn’t seen yet. His face turned red with shame. “Is this really the way I want t beat ther kids?” he asked himself.
On the last day, the teacher waved (挥舞) Gladys’s checklist. “Twenty-six is the number t win.” Calvin checked ff 29, but in fact, he saw 22 birds at mst. “It sunds like Gladys wins,” Calvin said. When Mr. White presented Gladys with the Big Week T-shirt, Calvin cngratulated his friend, and he felt relaxed.
At that mment, he realized that the activity wasn’t abut winning, but abut discvering the beauty f nature by himself.
53. Wh will win in the “Big Week” accrding t Mr. White? (不超过10个词)
___________________________________
54. Why did Calvin check ff “unknwn” birds n his list? (不超过10个词)
___________________________________
55. What can we learn frm the stry f Calvin? (不超过10个词)
___________________________________
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
56. Pandas live in Suthwest China and their m________ (主要的) fd is bamb.
57. A picnic is a c________ (机会) t have a pleasant experience with family and friends.
58. The high-speed train frm Shaanxi can nw g d________ (直接地) t Hng Kng.
59. Cmmunicatin s________ (技能) play an imprtant part in grup prjects.
60. We can use nline dictinaries t lk up wrds and knw hw t s________ (拼写) them.
X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
61. 我们所有人皆有可能经历成功与失败。一部分人会竭尽全力规避失败，然而，还有一部分人却选择直面失败，并将其转化为自身的优势。正所谓 “失败乃成功之母” ， “阳光总在风雨后” !请以 “Failure Is the Mther f Success” 为题，分享一次你失败的经历，以及你的感受和收获。
内容包括：1. 事情经过；
2. 个人感悟
注意：1. 短文须包含上述要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称；
3. 词数80~100（短文题目已给出，不计入总词数）。
Failure Is the Mther f Success
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2025年安徽省初中学业水平考试·英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卡”（2页）两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分）
I. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What can Tim prepare fr the party?
A. B. C.
2. What are the speakers prbably ging t d?
A. B. C.
3. What time is it nw?
A. 4:50 p. m. B. 5:00 p. m. C. 5:10 p. m.
4. Where are the tw speakers?
A. In the library. B. In the hspital. C. In the fd stre.
5. What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Dctr and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Driver and passenger.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。
6. Hw des Lisa feel after putting her wrries int the bx?
A. Excited. B. Relaxed. C. Bred.
7. Whm did Lisa get the idea f making a Wrry Bx frm?
A. Her friend. B. Her parent. C. Her sister.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。
8 Hw ften des Jeff run?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
9. Hw lng has Jeff kept the habit f running?
A. Fr fur years. B. Fr five years. C. Fr six years.
10. Which new sprt will the by learn?
A. Basketball. B. Vlleyball. C. Skating.
Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. When did Jacksn get hurt?
A. During the practice. B. During the game. C. After the game.
12. Which part f Jacksn’s bdy gt hurt?
A. The knee. B. The hand. C. The finger.
13. Wh was wrried when Jacksn gt hurt?
A. His parents. B. His teammates. C. His fans.
14. What did Jacksn d when the game started?
A. He watched the game silently. B. He tried t cmpete with injuries. C. He cheered as ludly as he culd.
15. Why did the team win the game?
A. Because the ther team was t weak.
B. Because their cach gave them excellent suggestins.
C Because Jacksn’s cheers encuraged them and they wrked hard.
IV. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分）
V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】D
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】D
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】D
【9题答案】
【答案】C
【10题答案】
【答案】A
VI. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. A
Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. C 32. G 33. D 34. A 35. B
第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分）
Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【36~38题答案】
【答案】36. A 37. A 38. D
B
【39~42题答案】
【答案】39. A 40. B 41. A 42. C
C
【43~45题答案】
【答案】43. B 44. D 45. C
D
【46~49题答案】
【答案】46. D 47. B 48. C 49. A
E
【50~52题答案】
【答案】50. C 51. B 52. C
第二节
【53~55题答案】
【答案】53. The persn wh sees the mst different birds.
54. Because he wanted t beat ther kids.
55. We shuld always be hnest./Hnesty is mre imprtant than winning.
第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分）
IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
【56题答案】
【答案】(m)ain
【57题答案】
【答案】(c)hance
【58题答案】
【答案】(d)irect##(d)irectly
【59题答案】
【答案】(s)kills
【60题答案】
【答案】(s)pell
X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分）
【61题答案】
【答案】普通范文：
Failure Is the Mther f Success
I had an experience f failure when I was learning t ride a bike.
At first, I always fell dwn. And my knees and hands gt hurt. I really wanted t give up. But I didn’t. I thught abut why I kept falling. And then I realized that I wasn’t balancing right and wasn’t using the brakes crrectly. S, I practiced fr hurs and hurs. Finally, I culd ride the bike smthly and didn’t fall anymre!
Thrugh this experience, I learned that failure is nt the end. And it taught me t be patient and keep trying in the face f difficulties.
高分范文：
Failure Is the Mther f Success
Needless t say, failure is the mther f success. One f my failures cmes frm learning t ride a bike.
At the beginning, I fell dwn again and again, which hurt my knees and hands. S I had a strng desire t give up. Nevertheless, I tried t figure ut why I kept falling instead f giving up. Then I fund that I culdn’t balance well and didn’t knw hw t use the brakes prperly. S, I spent hurs practicing ver and ver again. Eventually, I managed t ride the bike smthly withut any falls!
This experience made me understand that failure desn’t mean the end. It als taught me t be patient and keep trying when I face difficulties.Praise Others Mre
The reasns why many peple seldm praise thers
They are 16 that the receivers will feel uncmfrtable.
They dn’t realize the advantages they will get in return.
The advantages f praising thers
Give thers curage and help them believe in 17 .
Bring happiness t thers.
Help peple 18 gd relatinships with thers.
The speaker’s 19
Praise thers mre.
Influence thers t give mre praise.
Share yur 20 with thers.
①
Walking 2-5 minutes Start by walking slwly, and gradually walk fast.
②
Leg swings 20 swings per leg
Swing each leg frward and frm side t side.
③
Side shuffles (侧向左右跳步)
20 shuffles per side Keep dwn and shuffle sideways.
④
High knees 30 secnds
Run in place while raising yur knees up tward yur chest.
Praise Others Mre
The reasns why many peple seldm praise thers
They are 16 that the receivers will feel uncmfrtable.
They dn’t realize the advantages they will get in return.
The advantages f praising thers
Give thers curage and help them believe in 17 .
Bring happiness t thers.
Help peple 18 gd relatinships with thers.
The speaker’s 19
Praise thers mre.
Influence thers t give mre praise.
Share yur 20 with thers.