四川省眉山市仁寿县2024-2025学年下学期七年级英语期中英语试题

这是一份四川省眉山市仁寿县2024-2025学年下学期七年级英语期中英语试题，共15页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。
第 = 1 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT I 卷 (共三部分， 满分95分）
听力（共两节， 满分30分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.What des the by want t eat?
A. A salad.B. A hamburger.C. Ptat chips.
2. What will Carl d after wrk?
A. Feed the dg.B. Wash the dg.C. Walk the dg.
3. Where is the girl’s jump rpe?
A. On her desk. B. In her lcker.C. In her schlbag.
4.Where are the speakers?
A. At hme.B. In a car.C. In a shp.
5. Hw is Tmmy in the afternn?
A. Excited.B. Sleepy .C. Unhappy.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
Why des Jean feel srry?
Fr arriving late.
Fr ging t the wrng place.
Fr being absent frm a meeting.
7.What is next t the restaurant?
A. A pst.B. A park gym.C. An ffice building.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What animals des Rebecca want t see first?
A. The lins.B.The pandas.C. The giraffes.
9. Where will the speakers meet up?
A. At the z.B. At James’s hme.C. At Rebecca’s hme.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
10.Which activity des Jerry like best?
A. Jgging.B. Swimming.C. Ding sit-ups.
11. Hw ften des Ivy paint?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Three times a week.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. Hw many nins des Betty want?
A. One.B. Tw.C.Three.
13.Why des Betty d the shpping tday?
A. Her mther is t busy.
B. Her mther feels unwell.
C. Her mther is in hspital.
14. What des Betty want t make?
A. Vegetable sup.B.Vegetable salad.C. Vegetable ndles.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. Hw many times must Bb d husewrk a week?
A. Once. B. Twice.C. Three times.
16. When des Alice clean up her rm?
A. After getting up.
B. Befre ging t bed.
C. Befre having breakfast.
17. What is Alice's advice fr Bb?
A. Write t his parents.
B. Talk with his parents.
C. Understand his parents.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Which schl team is Tny in?
A. Ftball.B.Baseball. C. Badmintn.
19. Wh is strng and tall?
A. Tny.B. Steve.C. Laura.
20. What des Laura d every week?
A. She buys fast fd.
B. She ges t the reading club.
C. She plays badmintn matches.
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hw many students at N.3 Middle Schl d utdr activities fr their health?
90. B. 156. C. 168. D. 10.
Which utdr activity d the students like best?
A. Fishing.B. Swimming.
C. Riding bikes. D. Climbing muntains.
23. In which part f a magazine can we see the passage?
A. Friends & Clubs.B. Fd & Health.
C. Science & Nature. D. Schl life & Sprts.
B
Jack lves t read bks each night. He reads all day. He reads at night. Jack’s bks are here and there. He can nt even find his chair. He can nt see which clthes t wear.
“That’s enugh!” His mther says. “Clean up these bks and get t bed!”
“Clean them up? But hw? Right nw? What shuld I d? Hw d I mve them frm here?”
“Wait! What is this bk I see here? Hmmmm ... Hw T Make A Library! I can rganize (整理) by the writer’s name. That sunds like a real cl game! Organize them like the alphabet. Or I culd rganize by the title t. That’s n sweat! I’m sure I can d it.”
“All A titles. I’ll put here. This is great! Nw I see! Next will cme fr B. This is really much fun!”
Fllwing these ways. Jack rganizes them ne by ne. He srts (分类) them all frm A t Z. He rganizes them happily. His mther is als happy.
“Bks are great,” says Jack with a smile, “They help me make a library!”
24. Accrding t Paragraph 3, we can infer (推测) that ______.
A. Jack is t busy every day.
B. Jack desn’t have time nw.
C. Jack wants his mum t help him.
D. Jack desn’t knw hw t rganize(整理) his bks.
25. What des the underlined sentence “That’s n sweat!” mean?
A. That’s fun. B. That’s easy.
C. That’s small. D. That’s expensive.
26. Why is Jack’s mther happy at last?
A. Jack lves reading mre. B. She cleans up Jack’s bks.
C. Jack rganizes his bks very well. D. Jack finds his favrite bk.
27. What’s the best title fr the stry?
A. Mther and Sn B. Use the Alphabet
C. An Untidy Rm D. Make a Library at Hme
C
①Animals are imprtant t us and they are ur friends. But sme f them are in great danger nw. What can we d t help save them?
②Dn’t eat meat frm wild animals. Sme f us like t eat meat. But d yu knw sme meat cmes frm endangered (濒危的) animals? T save these animals, we must stp eating their meat.
③Dn’t wear clthes made f fur. Smetimes peple kill animals fr fur. If we stp buying clthes made f fur, peple will nt kill animals. Everyne shuld remember this.
④Save the envirnment. Many wild animals are in great danger because they are lsing their hmes. Peple need mre huses, s they cut dwn mre and mre trees. They als make air and water dirty.
⑤Give mney t Animal Helpers. The grup des everything t help save animals. But it ften needs mney. S save sme mney and give it t the grup t help animals in danger. Or yu can just jin them t help save endangered animals.
⑥Tell peple t save animals. Nt all peple knw animals are ur friends. Nt everybdy understands the imprtance f saving animals. Saving animals is smething we shuld d tgether. S yu can tell them stries abut these lvely animals. This way, they may start t care.
Why d sme peple kill animals accrding t the passage?
①Because they want the meat. ②Because they want mre trees.
③Because they dn’t like animals. ④Because they sell the fur fr mney.
A．①②B．③④ C．①④D．②③
29．If yu have enugh mney, yu can give it t ________ t save animals.
A．z.B．schl. C．animal helpers.D．animal lvers.
30．What can we knw frm the passage?
A．All the animals are in danger.
B．Peple shuld wear clthes made f fur.
C．All the peple knw animals are ur friends.
D．Everybdy shuld play a part in saving animals.
31．Hw is the text rganized? (①= Paragraph 1, ②= Paragraph 2, …)
D
Dear girls and bys, d yu think backpacks are imprtant fr yu? D yu have any ideas abut the new rule—N backpacks in the classrm? Our schl wants t carry ut (执行) the rule next mnth. Here are the reasns.
Students may bring smething unhealthy and dangerus. They may take sme junk fd like chips. And sme f them may bring smething dangerus like knives (刀). T deal with (应对) these prblems, the schl makes the rule—N backpacks in the classrm.
Students’ backpacks use much space in the classrm. Because f them, the classrms are always crwded (拥挤的). If we dn’t have backpacks, the classrm will nt be crwded.
▲ Sme backpacks are big and heavy. If a student carries a heavy backpack, he r she may have prblems in the back and shulders (肩膀).
With the rule, students can’t bring backpacks int classrms. They need t keep them in lckers. D students like this rule?
“If I dn’ t bring a backpack, it’s hard fr me t take many things with my hands, such as bks, a cup, a pencil bag and mre,” Amelia says. “I will feel better if I dn’t keep my backpack,” Nick says. “I’d like t keep my backpack because my lcker is far frm my classrm,” says Linda.
32．Hw des the writer start the passage?
A．By telling a stry. B．By giving reasns.
C．By asking questins. D．By giving numbers.
33．The underlined wrd “them” in Para ③ refers t “________”.
A．chips.B．students.C．backpacks.D．classrms.
34．Which f the fllwing can be put in “ ▲ ”?
A．Using backpacks can make life easy.
B．Backpacks make the classrms nt tidy.
C．Backpacks help students t keep healthy.
D．Heavy backpacks are nt gd fr students.
35．What’s Amelia’s attitude (态度) t the new rule?
A．Agree. B．Disagree. C．Nt sure. D．Dn’t care.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。
Schls always make rules fr their students. Sme students dn’t like them. 36 .
First, schl rules keep students away frm danger. 37 . Then they make sme rules fr their students, like “n running in the hallway”.
Next, fllwing schl rules helps everyne in the classrm learn better. Fr example, teachers ask students t raise their hands befre they speak. 38 . If sme students dn’t fllw them, they may affect (影响) ther students’ learning.
39 Teachers dn’t make rules withut (没有) a gd reasn. When students fllw the rules, teachers will feel happy.
Lastly, schl rules prepare students fr the future. When students fllw the schl rules, they may get int gd habits (习惯). 40 . S, let’s fllw schl rules and be gd students.
第三部分 语言知识运用（一） （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据对话内容，从对话后的选项中选出适当的选项补全对话。
A: D yu like animals, Peter?
B: Yes. 41 Hw abut yu?
A: I like pandas t, but I hear they are in danger.
B: Yu are right. 42 There will be mre and mre pandas.
A: Yu knw a lt abut pandas. 43
B: Yes. We learn abut animals there and help thse in need.
A: Sunds great. 44 I’d als like t help the animals.
B: Sure. 45 I can take yu t the club.
A: Yes, Peter. That’s very nice f yu. See yu n Friday.
B: See yu.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Lewis lves sprts. He 46 them n TV. He reads abut them in the newspaper. He 47 t them n the radi (收音机).
One day, Lewis decides (决定) t 48 a player. “I want t find a sprt. I can d well 49 it,” he says. “I will help yu,” his friend Kirby says.
They g t the 50 , Lewis thinks diving (跳水) can be easy. Then he climbs up t the diving bard quickly. 51 he feels scared and is afraid t jump!
“Diving is nt fr me,” says Lewis.
They g t play 52 . There Lewis thrws the ball and hits it with his 53 . The tennis ball flies right int the net.
“Tennis is nt fr me,” says Lewis.
He then 54 ftball, basketball, table tennis, baseball and s n.
“It’s s 55 ! Maybe I can d 56 ,” says Lewis.
Kirby als thinks that 57 a suitable(合适的) sprt is really difficult. “But, Lewis, yu just try each sprt nly 58 ,” says Kirby. “A gd player 59 mre practice.”
“Practice?” asks Lewis. “Yu mean I can’t 60 right away (马上)?”
“That’s right,” answers Kirby.
Lewis smiles. “Thanks, Kirby, I knw what t d frm nw n!”
46. A. sees B. rders C. plays D. watches
47. A. ges B. listens C. sends D. gets
48. A. win B.visit C. respect D. becme
49. A. in B. as C. with D. at
50. A. gym B.library C.hspital D. restaurant
51. A. If B. S C. But D. Because
52. A. ftball B. tennis C. baseball D. basketball
53. A. bk B. racket C. friend D. glve
54. A. tries B. remembers C. kicks D. leaves
55. A. mdern B. exciting C. bring D. difficult
56. A. smething B. anything C. nthing D. everything
57. A. practising B. finding C. finishing D. jining
58. A. nce B. twice C. seldm D. never
59. A. lves B. needs C. enjys D. knws
60. A. arrive B. relax C. lse D. succeed
第Ⅱ卷 （共两部分，满分55分）
第四部分 语言知识运用（二）（共三节， 满分30分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据句意、音标和首字母提示，将相应单词的正确形式完整地填入空白处。
In children’s stries, w_________ are always scary and can eat ther animals.
--Hw d yu like the fruit salad?
--It t_________ delicius.
I h_________ ever eat fast fd because it usually has a lt f sugar, salt and fat.
Mr Black usually arrives at schl very early and leaves the schl l_________.
We have _______ /ɪˈnʌf/ fd fr the party, s we dn’t need t g shpping at the mment.
第二节 语法填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内所给单词的正确形式。
There is a clever mnkey. He lives n a beautiful island, in an apple tree. He enjys 66 (share) his apples with ther animals. One day, a crcdile(鳄鱼) swims t the island. “I’m hungry,” he says.
S the mnkey 67 (give) a red apple t the crcdile. The crcdile likes it. The next day, the crcdile cmes back. “Please, can I have tw apples?” he asks. He eats ne and gives the 68 (tw) ne t his wife.
The crcdile ges t see the mnkey every day, t listen t lts f his interesting 69 (stry) and eat his apples. He wants 70 (be) clever, just like the mnkey. The crcdile’s wife has 71 idea. “Why dn’t yu eat his heart? Then yu can be as clever as the mnkey, just like him!”
The next day, he says t the mnkey, “Cme t my huse! We can have lunch tgether t thank yu 72 the apples.”
73 when the mnkey arrives, the crcdile laughs and says, “Mnkey! I want t eat yur heart, s I can be as clever as yu!”
The clever mnkey thinks and says, “But... dn’t yu knw? My heart isn’t with me. 74 (my) is n the island, in the apple tree.”
They all g back t the island. “Wait here, and let me get my heart fr yu,” says the mnkey. The mnkey 75 (quick) climbs the tree and sits at the tp. “Oh, crcdile. Yu are greedy. Of curse yu can’t have my heart. And nw, yu can’t have my apples, either!” And the clever mnkey laughs and laughs.
第三节 任务型阅读 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，完成下列空格。每空仅填一词。
Having a pen pal (笔友) is fun and can be a great way t imprve yur writing skills. But mst peple have truble knwing what t write t their pen pal. Luckily, here are sme ways t get t knw a pen pal.
Share yur infrmatin
Break the ice by telling yur pen pal a little abut yurself. Start with yur name, age, jb and what yu like t d r what’s n yur mind that day. What yu pass n will encurage yur pen pal t tell yu smething abut himself. And this will be helpful in starting yur friendship.
Ask questins
Write questins fr yur pen pal t answer in his next e-mail. This will help yu get t knw him and prbably get yu a faster answer. Make yur questins int the e-mail by telling him smething yu like t d and then asking him if he’s ever tried it.
Ask fr advice
Yu may have sme difficulties in yur life and want t ask fr advice. Yur pen pal may tell yu what t d. Yu dn’t have t take all his advice, but it will give yu smething abut his pinins. Als, talking abut real-wrld questins will prmte（促进）yur friendship.
第五部分 写作（满分25分）
书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华, 下周你校英语社团将要举办一次主题为 “My Healthy Life” 的演讲活动。请你根据以下表格提示写一篇英语演讲稿，介绍自己的生活方式，并呼吁同学们拥有健康的生活方式。
注意：
短文应包括以上全部信息，条理清楚，适当扩充，行文连贯。
短文中不能出现真实的姓名和学校等信息。
词数80词以上（开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua. Tday I want t tell yu hw I keep healthy. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all fr my speech. Thank yu fr yur listening!
【参考答案】
第一部分 听力 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1 — 5 BCBBB 6 — 10 ABBBA 11 — 15 BBBAC 16 — 20 BCABC
第二部分 读
第一节 阅读理解 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
21 — 25 CADDB 26 — 30 CDCCD 31 — 35 DCCDB
第二节 阅读填空 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
36 — 40 ADCFB
语言知识应用(一)
第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
41 — 45 BECAD
第二节 完形填空 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
46 — 50 DBDAA 51 — 55 CBBAD 56 — 60 CBABD
第四部分 语言知识应用(二)
第一节 词汇 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
61. wlves 62. tastes 63. hardly 64. late 65. enugh
第二节 语法填空 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66. sharing 67. gives 68. secnd 69. stries 70. t be
71. an 72. fr 73. But 74. Mine 75. quickly
第三节 任务型阅读（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
76. knw 77. hbby/hbbies 78. answer 79. difficult/hard 80. talk
第五部分 书面表达 （满分25分）
One pssible versin
Hell, everyne! I’m Li Hua. Tday I want t tell yu hw I keep healthy.
I have sme gd eating habits. First, I have three meals a day, and I have them n time. Secnd, I always eat a lt f vegetables and fruit. I smetimes have vegetable salad r fruit salad fr lunch. Third, I hardly ever eat fast fd. I think it's bad fr me because fast fd usually has a lt f sugar, fat and salt.
Als, I like playing sprt very much. My favrite sprt is basketball. I play it three times a week. I think playing basketball keeps me fit and builds team spirit. (94 wrds)
That’s all fr my speech. Thank yu fr yur listening!