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      2024-2025学年辽宁沈阳法库县七年级上册英语期中试卷及答案

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      这是一份2024-2025学年辽宁沈阳法库县七年级上册英语期中试卷及答案,共8页。试卷主要包含了单项填空,完形填空,阅读理解,阅读回答,阅读填空,任务型阅读,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
      从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
      1. Yuan Lngping is ________ great scientist. He has helped t feed the wrld.
      A. aB. anC. theD. /
      2. My grandmther ________ eats meat. She thinks it is nt gd t eat it.
      A. usuallyB. alwaysC. neverD. smetimes
      3. —What are yur favurite ________?
      —Swimming and dancing.
      A. gradesB. hbbiesC. articlesD. lessns
      4. —________ d yu want t be a dctr?
      —Because I want t help sick peple.
      A. WhyB. HwC. WhatD. When
      5. Benny likes t ________ the sccer ball n the playgrund after schl.
      A. catchB. buyC. haveD. kick
      6. After a heavy rain, the grund is very ________.
      A. dryB. farC. cldD. wet
      7. —Des Lucy have any ________ in China?
      —Yes, her aunt is in Beijing.
      A. friendsB. teachersC. relativesD. classmates
      8. There is ________ milk. Let’s g and buy sme.
      A. littleB. a littleC. fewD. a few
      9. If yu keep practicing, I think yu will ________ speaking English.
      A. be gd atB. take part inC. be clse tD. make friends with
      10. —Linda, yur English is s gd!
      —________.
      A. ThanksB. I’m fineC. See yuD. Gd mrning
      二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
      阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
      11. A. dreamsB. subjectsC. hbbiesD. sprts
      12. A. hasB. likesC. playsD. takes
      13. A. ItsB. HerC. MyD. His
      14. A. brwnB. blueC. blndD. blnde
      15. A. SB. OrC. AndD. But
      16. A. watching TVB. playing ftballC. taking phtsD. ging shpping
      17. A. hwB. whC. whenD. what
      18. A. phtsB. striesC. cmputersD. grammars
      19. A. newB. easyC. sameD. different
      20. A. asB. inC. nD. at
      三、阅读理解(共两节,满分30分)
      第一节(共16小题,每小题1.5分,满分24分)
      阅读下列四篇短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项
      A
      Fang Fang is a Grade 7 student. She gets up at 6:30 a.m. Then she washes her face and brushes her teeth. At 7 a.m., she has breakfast. She ften eats sme bread and drinks a glass f milk.
      Fang Fang lives clse t schl. s she always walks t schl at 7:30 a.m. She has classes frm 8:30 a.m. t 4 p.m.
      After schl, she plays basketball with friends twice a week. She ges hme at 4:45 p.m.
      Fang Fang usually has dinner at 6:30 p.m. She smetimes watches TV in the evening. She always ges t bed at 9 p.m.
      21. What time des Fang Fang have breakfast?
      A. At 6:30 a.m.B. At 7 a.m.C. At 7:30 a.m.D. At 8 a.m.
      22. Hw des Fang Fang g t schl?
      A. By car.B. By bus.C. By bike.D. On ft.
      23. Frm the text. we can knw that Fang Fang ________.
      A. is a student in Grade 8B. lives near her schl
      C. plays basketball nce a weekD. never watches TV at hme
      24. What’s the best title (标题) f the text?
      A. Fang Fang’s blgB. Fang Fang’s family
      C. Fang Fang’s hbbies D. Fang Fang’s daily life
      B
      25. Hw ld is Gina?
      A. 12.B. 13.C. 14.D. 15.
      26. Wh can put her feet behind her head?
      A. Gina.B. Jane.C. Jenny.D. Cindy.
      27. Where des Blackie like sleeping?
      A. On a desk.B. In a bx.C. On a bed.D. Under a chair.
      28. What can we learn frm the text?
      A. Gina can sing well.B. Jenny likes playing guitar.
      C. Cindy can dance and draw.D. This is a letter frm Jane t Cindy
      C
      Danny lives by the sea. He ften ges swimming there with his father. Under the water. there is a beautiful wrld full f living things, like sea hrses and starfish.
      Smetimes the sea is dangerus. There are ften strng winds. Ships can sink if the weather is very bad. There are als dangerus fish like sharks. They smetimes attack peple.
      The sea can be dangerus t peple, but peple can harm the sea t. There is a factry near his hme, and every day it pllutes the sea. Peple als catch thusands f fish, s there are fewer and fewer fish in the sea each year. He is angry abut this. Peple must prtect the sea and the life in it.
      29. Where des Danny live?
      A. In the city.B. Near the sea.C. By the street. D. On the muntain.
      30. We can knw abut Danny _______.
      A. ften plays ftball with his friendsB. usually reads bks in the mrning
      C. thinks it’s bad t pllute the seaD. ften ges swimming in the swimming pl
      31. Hw many kinds f living things in the sea are mentined (提及) in the text?
      A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.D. Fur.
      32. What is the text mainly abut?
      A. The sea.B. Danny.C. A factry.D. Sea animals.
      D
      This is a new schl in Shenzhen, Guangdng. There are 45 classes fr students frm Grade One t Grade Seven. Because f a vide (视频), peple frm arund China began t knw abut this schl.
      In the vide, sme students are busy in their classrm at nn. They mve all the desks and chairs t the middle f the classrm. Then they pull beds ut f the drawers (抽屉) against the wall. At last, ne by ne, all the students find their beds t sleep in. Just in a few minutes, the classrm turns int a bedrm!
      The idea f the drawer bed is frm the head teacher Lu Can. She thinks with a gd nap (小睡) at nn, the students can learn better in the afternn. That’s why she made the drawer bed.
      “I saw the drawer bed n Duyin. It is s great. Gd schl, gd head teacher!” said ne parent.
      33. What d we knw abut this schl?
      A. It is a high schl.B. It is in Guangdng.
      C. It has seven classes.D. It has a lng histry.
      34. The underlined wrd “pull” means _______ in Chinese.
      A. 推入B. 撤离C. 阻止D. 拉出
      35. Frm the text, we can knw that _______.
      A. peple began t knw abut this schl by visiting it
      B. students turn the classrm int a bedrm in sme hurs
      C. Lu Can made the drawer bed t let the students learn better in the afternn
      D. there are 45 classes fr students frm Grade One t Grade Eight
      36. What d yu think f Lu Can?
      A. Busy.B. KindC. Free.D. Yung.
      第二节(共4小题,每小题1.5分,满分6分)
      阅读下面短文,从短文的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
      I’m Carline. I’m frm New Yrk, the US. I eat early. I have bread fr breakfast at abut 6:30. and salad fr lunch at abut 11: 30. 37. ________. When I want t eat smething between meals, it’s always fruit, like bananas, pears, and apples.
      I g t wrk by bike and run 10 kilmeters a day. I’m a waitress, s I walk a lt all day. 38. ________. I dn’t want t be fat.
      Many peple in New Yrk dn’t eat right. They say they dn’t have time t buy fd and ck. 39. ________. I dn’t think they have gd eating habits.
      40. ________. I als like playing with my little cat r reading bks with my sister befre bed.
      四、阅读回答(共4小题,每小题2分,满分8分)
      阅读材料,然后根据内容回答所提问题。
      41. Where des Kenji live nw?
      42. What are Kenji and Hir?
      43. What time des Kenji start practice?
      44. Hw many meals des Hir eat a day?
      五、阅读填空(共7小题,每小题1分,满分7分)
      阅读短文,然后用短文括号中所给词的适当形式填空。
      Shenyang is a big city in China. It is als a nice place fr peple t live in. Every year, lts f 45. ________ (visit) cme here. Hwever, hw much d yu knw abut the weather in Shenyang?
      Shenyang is in the 46. ________ (nrthern) f China. In spring, the weather is cl.
      The wind smetimes blws 47. ________ (strng) in spring. Trees turn green. In summer, the weather is 48. ________ (usual) very ht and dry. In autumn, the weather starts 49. ________ (get) cl and even a little cld. Peple need t wear thick clthes t keep warm. In winter, it is very cld. It is ften 50. ________ (snw) and many peple frm the suth f China cme here t see real snw.
      Shenyang als 51. ________ (have) many places f interest. Cme and visit Shenyang.
      六、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
      阅读短文,然后按要求完成第52-56小题。
      The fur seasns
      Spring
      Spring is the first seasn f a year. In spring, the weather (A) starts t get warm. The wind blws gently. (B) It ften rains. Plants start t grw. Everything turns green. (C) 在春天去旅行是令人兴奋的.
      Summer
      The weather is ht in summer. The Sun shines brightly. Many peple (D) like t g t the beach and swim in the sea. It is nice t eat ice cream in the ht weather.
      Autumn
      In autumn, everything changes. (E) ________ turn brwn, red r yellw and start falling frm the trees. It is nice t g n a picnic at this time f year (F) ________ the weather is cl and dry.
      Winter
      Winter is ften cld and snwy. Children lve winter because they lve t play in the snw. Peple usually spend time with their relatives during the Spring Festival.
      52. 写出文中划线部分(A)和(D)的同义词:________;________
      53. 将文中划线部分(B)改写为:It ________ ften ________.
      54. 将文中划线部分(C)译成英语:________________________________________.
      55. 在文中(E)和(F)的空白处填入适当的单词:________;________
      56. 从文中找出两个描写“Winter”的形容词:________;________
      七、书面表达(满分20分)
      假如你是李华,你校将举办以“It is imprtant t prtect the Earth”为题目的英文演讲比赛,请你写一篇演讲稿,参加比赛。
      内容包括:
      1. 地球现状;2. 应对措施;3. 呼吁大家保护地球。
      要求:
      1. 词数60-80,开头结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
      2. 短文须包括所给内容信息。可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
      3. 鼓励写出真情实感,对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
      Gd mrning, bys and girls,
      I am happy t stand here and give my speech. ______________________________________________________
      _______________________________________________________________________________________________
      _______________________________________________________________________________________________
      _______________________________________________________________________________________________
      Thank yu!
      参考答案
      一、单项填空(共10小题,每小题0.5分,满分5分)
      1—5 ACBAD 6—10 DCAAA
      二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
      11—15 CBDAD16—20 CBACA
      三、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题1.5分,满分30分)
      21—24 BDBD 25—28 BCDC 29—32 BCCA 33—36 BDCB 37—40 CABD
      四、阅读回答(共4小题,每小题2分,满分8分)
      41. In Japan. (介词没写或写错扣1分)
      42. (They are) tennis players.
      43. At 5 a.m. (介词没写或写错扣1分;a.m.没写扣1分)
      44. 5 (meals a day).
      注意:
      1. 只要意思对即可得分。
      2. 时态错误扣1分。
      3. 应该加的介词错或没写扣1分
      4. 单词拼写错误2个扣1分,单词重复错误不累计扣分,如果是关键词写错影响意思表达扣2分。
      5. 单词大小写错误不扣分,标点符号错误不扣分。
      五、阅读填空(共7小题,每小题1分,满分7分)
      45. visitrs 46. nrth 47. strngly 48. usually 49. t get/getting 50. snwy 51. has
      六、任务型阅读(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
      52. begins; lve
      53. is; rainy
      54. It’s exciting t take a trip in spring. / Taking / T take a trip is exciting in spring.
      55. Leaves (第一个字母没大写扣1分); because
      56. cld; snwy
      七、书面表达(满分20分)
      Amy’s blg
      Peple in the same family ften have the same eyes r hair. But d they have the same 11 ?
      In my family, my mm Kate has brwn eyes and blnde (金黄色的) hair. She 12 bks and music. My dad Peter has blue eyes and brwn hair. 13 hbbies are sprts and cmputers. My brther, Max, has blue eyes and blnd hair. He likes music and sprts. What abut me? I have my mm’s 14 eyes and my dad’s brwn hair. 15 my hbby is phtgraphy (摄影).
      My parents dn’t have a camera. They dn’t like 16 , and phtgraphy is nt ne f their hbbies. But d yu knw 17 likes phtgraphy in my family? My grandpa, Paul. He lves taking phts and his 18 are great! My grandpa desn’t have brwn eyes r brwn hair, but we like the 19 thing. Abut 25% f the peple in the UK like the same things 20 their parents, grandparents, r grandparents’ parents!
      Dear Jane,
      Hw are yu? Thanks fr yur letter. Here are sme phts fr yu. There’s a pht f my sister. She’s thirteen years ld. Her name’s Gina. She has a new guitar (吉他). She can play the guitar but she can’t sing.
      There’s a pht f my friend Jenny t. She can put her feet behind her head! Can yu put yur feet behind yur head? I can’t. but I can dance and draw!
      Here’s a pht f my cat. She likes sleeping under her favrite chair. Her name’s Biackie.
      Write t me!
      Yurs,
      Cindy
      A. I think that’s gd fr me
      B. They always g ut fr their meals
      C. Fr dinner, I always eat chicken r fish
      D. At hme, I like cking fr my family
      E. Many peple like eating different kinds f fd
      Name
      Kenji
      Hir
      Cuntry
      Japan
      Japan
      Jb
      tennis player
      tennis player
      Practice start time
      at 5 a.m.
      at 5:30 a.m.
      Practice finish time
      at nn
      at 11:30 a.m.
      Lunch
      ndles, fish, meat, vegetables and fruit
      rice, vegetables, meat and fruit
      Meals
      6 meals a day
      5 meals a day

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