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2024年下学期联考八年级期中英语试卷
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这是一份2024年下学期联考八年级期中英语试卷，共8页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
命题人：危芳 审题人：危满兰
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. Hw lng des Tina take nline pian lessns every week?
A. Fr three hurs. B. Fr fur hurs. C. Fr five hurs.
2. What is Frank in the sitcm?
A. A singer. B. A reprter. C. A dentist.
3. What subject is Nelly gd at?
A. Histry. B. Science. C. Music.
4. What did Lisa d n vacatin?
A. She went camping. B. She learned t dance. C. She fed the hens.
5. Where are the speakers nw?
A. In the cinema. B. In the hspital. C. In the park.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where des Tm's uncle wrk?
A. In a pst ffice. B. In a museum. C. In a bank.
7. Hw lng did Tm stay in Suzhu?
A. Fr three days. B. Fr seven days. C. Fr ten days.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Hw ften des Jim watch talk shws?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. What des Jim think f sap peras?
A. He lves them. B. He desn't mind them. C. He can't stand them.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
What des Jeff lk like?
A. He wears glasses. B. He has black hair. C. He is thin.
11. In what cmpetitin did Jeff win first prize?
A. Art. B. English. C. Science.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. What des Mary drink every day?
A. Milk. B. Juice. C. Tea.
13. What des Mary usually d befre she ges t bed?
A. She des sme reading. B. She writes in the diary. C. She listens t the radi.
14. Hw ld is Mary nw?
A.10. B. 12. C. 14.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. Wh des Peter plan t make fruit salad fr?
A. His grandma. B. His mther. C. His sister.
16. Hw des Peter plan t g t the supermarket this afternn?
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By bike.
17. What time d the speakers plan t meet this afternn?
A. At 1:30. B. At 2:00. C. At 2:30.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What des Je usually ck fr breakfast?
A. Pancakes. B. Burgers. C. Eggs.
19. Hw des Je ften care abut Susan?
A. He shares jkes with her. B. He gives sme cards t her. C. He helps her with hmewrk.
20. What did Je bring t Sctt?
A. The magazine. B. The ntebk. C. The CD player.
第二部分．阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读选择（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcme t Our Schl Clubs
21．Beijing Opera Club is in ________.
A．Rm 105B．Rm 201C．Rm 107
22．When can yu g t the Taijiquan Club?
A．At 5:00 pm n Sunday.B．At 6:00 pm n Wednesday.
C．At 5:00 pm n Tuesday.
23．In Chinese culture, the red knts can bring us ________.
A．gd charactersB．gd luckC．beautiful clthes
B
Almst all the children lve watching televisin, sme children will spend six hurs a day at schl, then spent anther fur t six hurs in frnt f the televisin set. Sme even watch televisin fr eight hurs r mre n Saturdays.
TV shws are like bks r films. A child can learn bth gd things and bad things frm them. Sme prgrams help children understand the wrld better. Others intrduce them t peple and places frm ther cuntries r ther times in histry. With TV, a child des nt have t g t the z t see animals r t the cean t see a ship. Bys and girls can see plays, cncerts r games at hme. Televisin brings many places and events int ur hmes.
Sme prgrams shw crime and ther things that children shuldn’t watch, s parents need t help their kids t find ut the gd prgrams.
24．Sme children usually spend ________ a day in schl.
A．fur hurs B．fur t six hurs C．six hurs
25．Sme children spend eight hurs r mre ________ n Saturdays.
A．Studying B．playing card games C．watching TV
26．What des the underlined sentence mean?
A．Televisin is bad fr children.
B．Televisin makes peple lve their hmes.
C．Peple can learn abut things withut ging t see them.
27．What is the main idea f the passage?
A．Why TV is bad. B．The gd and had sides f TV. C．Hw kids watch TV.
C
Tby likes eating at restaurants with his family r his friends. He is excited as lng as he gets his favrite fd. Hwever, eating at a restaurant t ften is nt healthy. It is difficult t knw the cking methds in restaurants behind the clsed drs f their kitchen. D they wash vegetables clean? D they use clean plates?
Des that mean yu shuldn’t eat at a restaurant any lnger? The answer is “n”. The key is t eat smartly. Here are sme tips t eat healthily at a restaurant.
Drink sme fresh fruit juice when yu are eating at restaurants. Stay away frm aerated drinks (碳酸饮料) as much as pssible. They are nt gd fr yur health. Make sure t drink plenty f water. Water is nt nly imprtant fr yur bdy, but als can help yu nt eat t much. Drink sups made frm fresh vegetables, fish r white meat. Make sure that yur meal is free frm preservatives (防腐剂) .
Avid eating t much salt and fat. Als, dn’t eat t much fd that is rich in sugar. It is unhealthy fr yur teeth.
28．What can we learn frm paragraph 1?
A．Peple shuld never eat in a restaurant.
B．It’s nt gd fr ne’s health if ne ften eats at restaurants.
C．Tby likes fast fd very much.
29．When yu eat at a restaurant, yu’d better ________.
A．rder aerated drinks
B．stay away frm fresh juice
C．have sups made frm fresh materials (食材)
30．What des the underlined wrd “Avid” means ? It means______in Chinese
A．需要B．应该C．避免
31．What is the writer’s purpse (目的) f the passage?
A．T tell restaurants hw t attract(吸引）peple.
B．T tell us what fd at restaurants is usually like.
C．T advise us hw t eat healthily at a restaurant.
第二节 语篇补全(共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Mid-Autumn Festival ( 中 秋 节) is ne f the mst imprtant traditinal Chinese festivals. There are many films abut it. (32)_______
The film tells the stry f a yung girl Fei Fei. Fei Fei grws up listening t her mm telling the stry f Chang'e. Sadly, Fei Fei's mm dies. A few years later, her father plans t get married (结婚) again. Fei Fei wants t stp him. (33)_______ She believes that if she can prve(证明) there is Chang'e n the mn t her dad, he'll think f his lve fr her mther and believe true lve can last frever. On her trip, Fei Fei learns the meaning f lve. She learns t face the pain in life and mve n.
The stry f Chang'e and the traditin f celebrating the Mid-Autumn Festival have been ppular with Chinese peple. (34)_______ In Vietnam, they call the festival Tết Trung Thu, and Chang'e Hằng Nga.
At the festival, kids g utside with pretty lanterns, symblizing the mnlight. In Japan, the festival is Tsukimi, and there is a stry abut a rabbit making rice cakes n the mn. That is a symbl(象征） f Japanese peple's hard-wrking spirit. In Suth Krea（韩国）, they call the festival Chusek. Peple cme tgether, share nice fd, dance and play games.
Each cuntry has different names and ways f celebratin fr the festival. (35)_______ Peple cme tgether t shw lve fr friends and family and respect (尊重) fr their wn culture and traditins.
A. Over the Mn is ne f them.
B. She builds a rcket (火箭) t the mn.
C. Hwever, they all have ne thing in cmmn.
D. It's a stry abut Chang'e flying t the mn.
E. In fact, many ther cuntries have similar stries and festivals.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Running frm Sept 23 t Oct 8, the Hangzhu Asian Games (亚运会) have 40 sprts. But there are just 32 sprts in the Paris Olympic Games (巴黎奥运会) in 2024. Why d the Hangzhu Asian Games have 36 sprts?
Accrding t the IOC (国际奥委会), sprts in the Olympic Games shuld be 37 enugh. Fr example, fr a men’s sprt in the Olympics, peple shuld play it in mre than 75 cuntries and n fur cntinents (洲). Fr a wmen’s sprt, peple shuld play it in 38 40 cuntries and n three cntinents. What’s mre, the Hangzhu Asian Games shuld have sme different sprts and peple in Asia usually 39 playing them.
Kabaddi (卡巴迪) and sepak takraw (藤球) are tw 40 . Kabaddi, with a histry f 41 4,000 years, started in Asia. It’s just like the game “eagle catching chickens (老鹰捉小鸡)”, kabaddi nly needs a place that is 13 meters lng and 10 meters wide. Sepak takraw is als a sprt that first 42 ppular in Asia. When yu d this sprt, yu will 43 yu are playing the Chinese shuttlecck kicking (踢毽子). “ 44 it’s my first time t see these ‘nn-Olympic’ sprts, I am really interested in them. It’s always enjyable t learn 45 new.” said a sprts reprter frm the US.
36．A．mreB．lessC．better
37．A．necessaryB．ppularC．pretty
38．A．as lng asB．at leastC．at last
39．A．enjyB．mindC．stand
40．A．prizesB．cartnsC．examples
41．A．verB．atC．by
42．A．wnB．triedC．gt
43．A．bring utB．feel likeC．find ut
44．A．IfB．ThughC．S
45．A．smeneB．smewhereC．smething
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号内所给单词的正确形式（每空最多不超过三个单词）。
I dn’t like t stay at hme during the vacatin. Last summer, my family tk a trip t Hng Kng. It was a 46 (wnder) trip.
We went there 47 plane, because we wanted t get there as sn as pssible. We 48 (arrive) there at abut eleven ’clck and we had lunch there. We ate 49 (ndle). They were delicius. The weather was 50 (sun) and ht, s we swam in the sea. There 51 (be) abut 100 peple n the beach.
Disneyland is ne f the 52 (gd) places in Hng Kng, s we als visited the Disneyland. After visiting it, we had a meal in ne f the restaurants in the park. My parents felt 53 little tired, s I met Mickey Muse and Dnald Duck by myself. We stayed in Hng Kng fr a week. We tk many phts but we didn’t buy 54 (smething) because things in the stre were t expensive. And then, we went back hme.
It was 55 (real) a fantastic trip. I enjyed the trip.
第四部分 综合技能 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题或将划线部分译成英文或中文。
Ella lves her grandpa. He lives in Texas and cmes t visit her nce a mnth. Ella wishes he culd cme t visit every week because he tells great stries and makes her favrite dinner.
(59)爷爷做饭很有天赋。Ella lves the barbeque chicken ( 烤 鸡) that Grandpa makes.
One day, Ella asked her mm t make the chicken. Ella’s mm said,“OK, I will try.” Ella watched her mm prepare the sauce (准备酱汁) fr the chicken. It lked delicius. When the chicken was ready, Ella’s family sat dwn t eat. Her mm tasted the chicken and then said, “(60) It desn’t taste as gd as Grandpa’s. What d yu think f it, Ella?”Ella thught s, t.
The next time her grandpa came t visit, Ella tld him the stry abut her mm trying t make the chicken. Her grandpa laughed,“That is a fantastic stry.”Then he taught Ella and her mm hw t make the chicken.
Ella and her mm make the barbeque chicken nce a week. But they still can’t make the barbeque chicken as well as Grandpa.
56. Where des Ella’s grandpa live?
_________________________________
57. What did Ella tell her grandpa?
_________________________________
58. Hw ften d Ella and her mm make the barbeque chicken?
_________________________________
59. 将短文中画线句子翻译成英文。
_________________________________
60. 将短文中画线句子翻译成中文。
_________________________________
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
61．朋友就像是夜空里的星星和月亮，彼此鼓励，彼此守望。学校英语社以“朋友”为主题发起征文活动。假如Mike是你最好的朋友，请以“My best friend”为题，从以下五个方面写一篇英文作文介绍他:
1.是一个帅气的男孩，在班上他个子最高，性格最外向；
2.每天起得最早，喜欢做运动，每周锻炼三四次，身体很健康；
3.喜欢吃蔬菜和水果，有一个好的饮食习惯；
4.在班上学习最努力，最喜欢英语学科，平时爱看英语书，认为英语比数学有趣；
5.喜欢看新闻，希望了解世界各地正在发生的事情。
注意:
文中不得出现真实人名和校名。可适当发挥，但必须包含所给信息，80词左右。
My best friend
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
温馨提示：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
试卷分为四个部分，共8页，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
Chinese Calligraphy (书法) Club
D yu want t learn hw t write traditinal Chinese characters? D yu want t enjy the beauty f Chinese Calligraphy?
Ms. Zha is waiting fr yu.
Time: Every Thursday afternn
Rm: 105
Beijing Opera Club
Are yu interested in music, dancing, painting r beautiful clthes? Yu can enjy all f these in ur club. Smetimes we g t Mei Lanfang Theatre t watch Beijing Opera.
Time: Friday afternn
Rm:107
Taijiquan Club
Chse smething new and fun. Taiji is an interesting and traditinal kind f exercise. It’s slw and quiet, but very gd fr yur health.
Time: 5:30 pm—6:30 pm (frm Mnday t Friday)
Rm: 201
Chinese Knt Club
D yu like art? Cme t ur Chinese Knt (结) Club. Make yur wn knts and learn smething abut Chinese culture. The traditinal red knts bring yu gd luck.
Time: Tuesday afternn
Rm: 308
命题人：危芳 审题人：危满兰
第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1. Hw lng des Tina take nline pian lessns every week?
A. Fr three hurs. B. Fr fur hurs. C. Fr five hurs.
2. What is Frank in the sitcm?
A. A singer. B. A reprter. C. A dentist.
3. What subject is Nelly gd at?
A. Histry. B. Science. C. Music.
4. What did Lisa d n vacatin?
A. She went camping. B. She learned t dance. C. She fed the hens.
5. Where are the speakers nw?
A. In the cinema. B. In the hspital. C. In the park.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where des Tm's uncle wrk?
A. In a pst ffice. B. In a museum. C. In a bank.
7. Hw lng did Tm stay in Suzhu?
A. Fr three days. B. Fr seven days. C. Fr ten days.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Hw ften des Jim watch talk shws?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
9. What des Jim think f sap peras?
A. He lves them. B. He desn't mind them. C. He can't stand them.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
What des Jeff lk like?
A. He wears glasses. B. He has black hair. C. He is thin.
11. In what cmpetitin did Jeff win first prize?
A. Art. B. English. C. Science.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12. What des Mary drink every day?
A. Milk. B. Juice. C. Tea.
13. What des Mary usually d befre she ges t bed?
A. She des sme reading. B. She writes in the diary. C. She listens t the radi.
14. Hw ld is Mary nw?
A.10. B. 12. C. 14.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15. Wh des Peter plan t make fruit salad fr?
A. His grandma. B. His mther. C. His sister.
16. Hw des Peter plan t g t the supermarket this afternn?
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By bike.
17. What time d the speakers plan t meet this afternn?
A. At 1:30. B. At 2:00. C. At 2:30.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What des Je usually ck fr breakfast?
A. Pancakes. B. Burgers. C. Eggs.
19. Hw des Je ften care abut Susan?
A. He shares jkes with her. B. He gives sme cards t her. C. He helps her with hmewrk.
20. What did Je bring t Sctt?
A. The magazine. B. The ntebk. C. The CD player.
第二部分．阅读理解（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 阅读选择（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcme t Our Schl Clubs
21．Beijing Opera Club is in ________.
A．Rm 105B．Rm 201C．Rm 107
22．When can yu g t the Taijiquan Club?
A．At 5:00 pm n Sunday.B．At 6:00 pm n Wednesday.
C．At 5:00 pm n Tuesday.
23．In Chinese culture, the red knts can bring us ________.
A．gd charactersB．gd luckC．beautiful clthes
B
Almst all the children lve watching televisin, sme children will spend six hurs a day at schl, then spent anther fur t six hurs in frnt f the televisin set. Sme even watch televisin fr eight hurs r mre n Saturdays.
TV shws are like bks r films. A child can learn bth gd things and bad things frm them. Sme prgrams help children understand the wrld better. Others intrduce them t peple and places frm ther cuntries r ther times in histry. With TV, a child des nt have t g t the z t see animals r t the cean t see a ship. Bys and girls can see plays, cncerts r games at hme. Televisin brings many places and events int ur hmes.
Sme prgrams shw crime and ther things that children shuldn’t watch, s parents need t help their kids t find ut the gd prgrams.
24．Sme children usually spend ________ a day in schl.
A．fur hurs B．fur t six hurs C．six hurs
25．Sme children spend eight hurs r mre ________ n Saturdays.
A．Studying B．playing card games C．watching TV
26．What des the underlined sentence mean?
A．Televisin is bad fr children.
B．Televisin makes peple lve their hmes.
C．Peple can learn abut things withut ging t see them.
27．What is the main idea f the passage?
A．Why TV is bad. B．The gd and had sides f TV. C．Hw kids watch TV.
C
Tby likes eating at restaurants with his family r his friends. He is excited as lng as he gets his favrite fd. Hwever, eating at a restaurant t ften is nt healthy. It is difficult t knw the cking methds in restaurants behind the clsed drs f their kitchen. D they wash vegetables clean? D they use clean plates?
Des that mean yu shuldn’t eat at a restaurant any lnger? The answer is “n”. The key is t eat smartly. Here are sme tips t eat healthily at a restaurant.
Drink sme fresh fruit juice when yu are eating at restaurants. Stay away frm aerated drinks (碳酸饮料) as much as pssible. They are nt gd fr yur health. Make sure t drink plenty f water. Water is nt nly imprtant fr yur bdy, but als can help yu nt eat t much. Drink sups made frm fresh vegetables, fish r white meat. Make sure that yur meal is free frm preservatives (防腐剂) .
Avid eating t much salt and fat. Als, dn’t eat t much fd that is rich in sugar. It is unhealthy fr yur teeth.
28．What can we learn frm paragraph 1?
A．Peple shuld never eat in a restaurant.
B．It’s nt gd fr ne’s health if ne ften eats at restaurants.
C．Tby likes fast fd very much.
29．When yu eat at a restaurant, yu’d better ________.
A．rder aerated drinks
B．stay away frm fresh juice
C．have sups made frm fresh materials (食材)
30．What des the underlined wrd “Avid” means ? It means______in Chinese
A．需要B．应该C．避免
31．What is the writer’s purpse (目的) f the passage?
A．T tell restaurants hw t attract(吸引）peple.
B．T tell us what fd at restaurants is usually like.
C．T advise us hw t eat healthily at a restaurant.
第二节 语篇补全(共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Mid-Autumn Festival ( 中 秋 节) is ne f the mst imprtant traditinal Chinese festivals. There are many films abut it. (32)_______
The film tells the stry f a yung girl Fei Fei. Fei Fei grws up listening t her mm telling the stry f Chang'e. Sadly, Fei Fei's mm dies. A few years later, her father plans t get married (结婚) again. Fei Fei wants t stp him. (33)_______ She believes that if she can prve(证明) there is Chang'e n the mn t her dad, he'll think f his lve fr her mther and believe true lve can last frever. On her trip, Fei Fei learns the meaning f lve. She learns t face the pain in life and mve n.
The stry f Chang'e and the traditin f celebrating the Mid-Autumn Festival have been ppular with Chinese peple. (34)_______ In Vietnam, they call the festival Tết Trung Thu, and Chang'e Hằng Nga.
At the festival, kids g utside with pretty lanterns, symblizing the mnlight. In Japan, the festival is Tsukimi, and there is a stry abut a rabbit making rice cakes n the mn. That is a symbl(象征） f Japanese peple's hard-wrking spirit. In Suth Krea（韩国）, they call the festival Chusek. Peple cme tgether, share nice fd, dance and play games.
Each cuntry has different names and ways f celebratin fr the festival. (35)_______ Peple cme tgether t shw lve fr friends and family and respect (尊重) fr their wn culture and traditins.
A. Over the Mn is ne f them.
B. She builds a rcket (火箭) t the mn.
C. Hwever, they all have ne thing in cmmn.
D. It's a stry abut Chang'e flying t the mn.
E. In fact, many ther cuntries have similar stries and festivals.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Running frm Sept 23 t Oct 8, the Hangzhu Asian Games (亚运会) have 40 sprts. But there are just 32 sprts in the Paris Olympic Games (巴黎奥运会) in 2024. Why d the Hangzhu Asian Games have 36 sprts?
Accrding t the IOC (国际奥委会), sprts in the Olympic Games shuld be 37 enugh. Fr example, fr a men’s sprt in the Olympics, peple shuld play it in mre than 75 cuntries and n fur cntinents (洲). Fr a wmen’s sprt, peple shuld play it in 38 40 cuntries and n three cntinents. What’s mre, the Hangzhu Asian Games shuld have sme different sprts and peple in Asia usually 39 playing them.
Kabaddi (卡巴迪) and sepak takraw (藤球) are tw 40 . Kabaddi, with a histry f 41 4,000 years, started in Asia. It’s just like the game “eagle catching chickens (老鹰捉小鸡)”, kabaddi nly needs a place that is 13 meters lng and 10 meters wide. Sepak takraw is als a sprt that first 42 ppular in Asia. When yu d this sprt, yu will 43 yu are playing the Chinese shuttlecck kicking (踢毽子). “ 44 it’s my first time t see these ‘nn-Olympic’ sprts, I am really interested in them. It’s always enjyable t learn 45 new.” said a sprts reprter frm the US.
36．A．mreB．lessC．better
37．A．necessaryB．ppularC．pretty
38．A．as lng asB．at leastC．at last
39．A．enjyB．mindC．stand
40．A．prizesB．cartnsC．examples
41．A．verB．atC．by
42．A．wnB．triedC．gt
43．A．bring utB．feel likeC．find ut
44．A．IfB．ThughC．S
45．A．smeneB．smewhereC．smething
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面的材料，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号内所给单词的正确形式（每空最多不超过三个单词）。
I dn’t like t stay at hme during the vacatin. Last summer, my family tk a trip t Hng Kng. It was a 46 (wnder) trip.
We went there 47 plane, because we wanted t get there as sn as pssible. We 48 (arrive) there at abut eleven ’clck and we had lunch there. We ate 49 (ndle). They were delicius. The weather was 50 (sun) and ht, s we swam in the sea. There 51 (be) abut 100 peple n the beach.
Disneyland is ne f the 52 (gd) places in Hng Kng, s we als visited the Disneyland. After visiting it, we had a meal in ne f the restaurants in the park. My parents felt 53 little tired, s I met Mickey Muse and Dnald Duck by myself. We stayed in Hng Kng fr a week. We tk many phts but we didn’t buy 54 (smething) because things in the stre were t expensive. And then, we went back hme.
It was 55 (real) a fantastic trip. I enjyed the trip.
第四部分 综合技能 （共两节，满分25分）
第一节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题或将划线部分译成英文或中文。
Ella lves her grandpa. He lives in Texas and cmes t visit her nce a mnth. Ella wishes he culd cme t visit every week because he tells great stries and makes her favrite dinner.
(59)爷爷做饭很有天赋。Ella lves the barbeque chicken ( 烤 鸡) that Grandpa makes.
One day, Ella asked her mm t make the chicken. Ella’s mm said,“OK, I will try.” Ella watched her mm prepare the sauce (准备酱汁) fr the chicken. It lked delicius. When the chicken was ready, Ella’s family sat dwn t eat. Her mm tasted the chicken and then said, “(60) It desn’t taste as gd as Grandpa’s. What d yu think f it, Ella?”Ella thught s, t.
The next time her grandpa came t visit, Ella tld him the stry abut her mm trying t make the chicken. Her grandpa laughed,“That is a fantastic stry.”Then he taught Ella and her mm hw t make the chicken.
Ella and her mm make the barbeque chicken nce a week. But they still can’t make the barbeque chicken as well as Grandpa.
56. Where des Ella’s grandpa live?
_________________________________
57. What did Ella tell her grandpa?
_________________________________
58. Hw ften d Ella and her mm make the barbeque chicken?
_________________________________
59. 将短文中画线句子翻译成英文。
_________________________________
60. 将短文中画线句子翻译成中文。
_________________________________
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
61．朋友就像是夜空里的星星和月亮，彼此鼓励，彼此守望。学校英语社以“朋友”为主题发起征文活动。假如Mike是你最好的朋友，请以“My best friend”为题，从以下五个方面写一篇英文作文介绍他:
1.是一个帅气的男孩，在班上他个子最高，性格最外向；
2.每天起得最早，喜欢做运动，每周锻炼三四次，身体很健康；
3.喜欢吃蔬菜和水果，有一个好的饮食习惯；
4.在班上学习最努力，最喜欢英语学科，平时爱看英语书，认为英语比数学有趣；
5.喜欢看新闻，希望了解世界各地正在发生的事情。
注意:
文中不得出现真实人名和校名。可适当发挥，但必须包含所给信息，80词左右。
My best friend
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温馨提示：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
试卷分为四个部分，共8页，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
Chinese Calligraphy (书法) Club
D yu want t learn hw t write traditinal Chinese characters? D yu want t enjy the beauty f Chinese Calligraphy?
Ms. Zha is waiting fr yu.
Time: Every Thursday afternn
Rm: 105
Beijing Opera Club
Are yu interested in music, dancing, painting r beautiful clthes? Yu can enjy all f these in ur club. Smetimes we g t Mei Lanfang Theatre t watch Beijing Opera.
Time: Friday afternn
Rm:107
Taijiquan Club
Chse smething new and fun. Taiji is an interesting and traditinal kind f exercise. It’s slw and quiet, but very gd fr yur health.
Time: 5:30 pm—6:30 pm (frm Mnday t Friday)
Rm: 201
Chinese Knt Club
D yu like art? Cme t ur Chinese Knt (结) Club. Make yur wn knts and learn smething abut Chinese culture. The traditinal red knts bring yu gd luck.
Time: Tuesday afternn
Rm: 308
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