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    吉林省长春市南关区2023-2024学年七年级下学期5月期中考试英语试题

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    吉林省长春市南关区2023-2024学年七年级下学期5月期中考试英语试题

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    这是一份吉林省长春市南关区2023-2024学年七年级下学期5月期中考试英语试题,共11页。试卷主要包含了听力,基础知识,交际运用,阅读,语言运用,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。


    一、听力 (共25分)
    I. 根据所听到的句子,选择正确的答语。(5分)
    1. A. Srry. B. Gd. C. That's all right.
    2. A. Because it's new. B. Because it's bring. C. Because it's interesting.
    3. A. I take the subway. B. I'm gd at telling stries. C. I lve elephants.
    4. A. Yes,I can swim. B. N, I dn't like swimming. C. I jin the swimming club.
    5. A. That's great. B. Thanks. C. I see.
    II. 根据所听到的对话和对话后的问题,选择正确答案。 (5分)
    6. A. Tennis. B. Basketball. C. Ping- png.
    7. A. In the family. B. On the bus. C. In the classrm.
    8. A. It's 11:30. B. It's 10:30. C. It's 9:30.
    9. A. China. B. Africa. C. Thailand.
    10. A. The tigers. B. The giraffes. C. The lins.
    III. 听描述,选出与描述内容相符的图片。其中有一幅图片是多余的。 (5分)
    11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
    IV. 听较长对话,选择正确答案。(5分)
    听第一段对话,作答第16~17小题。
    16. Where des Daniel wrk?
    A. At a bus statin. B. At a radi statin. C. At a TV statin.
    17. What time des Daniel usually get up?
    A. At 9:00 p. m. B. At 8:00p. m. C. At 8:30p. m.听第二段对话,作答第18~20小题。
    18. When des Jhn usually g t schl?
    A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
    19. Where des the girl have lunch?
    A. At hme. B. At schl. C. At her classmate's hme.
    20. Wh des Jhn exercise with after dinner?
    A. His friends. B. His classmates. C. His parents.
    V. 听短文,根据所听到的内容,选择正确答案。(5分)
    21. Hw ld is Nancy?
    A. She is 13. B. She is 14. C. She is 15.
    22. Hw lng des it take Nancy t get t schl?
    A.55 minutes. B.50 minutes. C.15 minutes.
    23. Which is NOT Nancy's schl rules?
    A. Dn't eat in the classrm.
    B. Dn't arrive late fr class.
    C. Dn't wear a hat.
    24. Can Nancy draw well?
    A. Yes, she can. B. N, she can't. C. We dn't knw.
    25. What des Nancy think f lins?
    A. They' re scary. B. They' re beautiful. C. They' re lazy.
    二、基础知识(共15分)
    VI. 单项选择。(15分)
    从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
    26.— Can yu play pian?
    — N, but I can play chess.
    A. a B. an C. the D.\
    27. Jim Brwn is English, but he Chinese well.
    A. says B. speaks C. talks D. tells
    28. This tree is the hme f the bird family. Yu can't .
    A. cut dwn them B. cut them dwn C. cut dwn it D. cut it dwn
    29. Walking is a kind f gd and it helps peple keep healthy and strng.
    A. exercise B. life C. hmewrk D. practice
    30.—— Tm lks s in his father's big T- shirt.
    — Yeah! He is s small and the T- shirt is s big.
    A. tall B. funny C. strict D. cl
    31.—— Grace is gd with ld peple. She helps at the ld peple's hme.
    — Yes, yu are right. I can see her there every day after schl.
    A. smetimes B. always C. never D. usually
    32.— Can yu eat ut with me n Friday r Sunday?
    — is OK. I have time n that tw days.
    A. Neither B. Either C. Bth D. All
    33. It's difficult t g t that village because there is a big river the tw villages.
    A. n B. at C. in D. between
    34.— ?
    — It's abut 10 minutes' walk.
    A. Hw d yu get t the library
    B. Hw lng des it take t get t the library
    C. Hw far is it frm yur hme t the library
    D. What time d yu get t the library
    35. My mm drives me t schl s I take the subway.
    A. must B. mustn't C. have t D. dn't have t
    36.— in bed, Sam. It's nt gd fr yur eyes.
    —OK. I wn't d it again.
    A. Nt read B. Isn't reading C. Dn't read D. Desn't read
    37.—I'm srry. I left my bk at hme this mrning.
    — It desn't matter. Remember it here this afternn.
    A. t take B. bringing C. take D. t bring
    38. Peter has a basketball, he can nt play it well.
    A. and B. but C. s D. r
    39.— When d yu eat lunch at schl, Gina?
    — We usually have lunch .
    A. in the classrm B. at 12:00 C.12:00 ’ clck D. at hme
    40.— Grace is really nice.
    — . I want t make friends with her.
    A. I'm afraid nt B. Gd luck C. Sunds gd D. Yes, yu' re right
    三、交际运用 (共5分)
    VII. 根据对话内容,运用方框中所给的句子选项补全对话。选项中有一项是多余的。(5分)( Jim is talking with his teacher Miss White in the hallway.)
    A: Hell, Miss White!
    B: Hell, Jim. 41
    A:I'm running t play sccer.
    B: But d yu knw the rule“ Dn't run in the hallways.”?
    A: 42
    B: Dn't d it again.
    A: All right. We have t many rules at hme. And there are als t many rules at schl. 43
    B: But I think yu shuld fllw them. 44
    A: Then can we make ur wn rules?I think it's gd.
    B: 45
    A. I think the rules. are terrible. B. They are gd fr yu.
    C. Why are yu running? D. That's a great idea.
    E. Can we run in the hallways? F. Srry, Miss White.
    四、阅读 (共45分)
    VIII. 完形填空。(15分)
    阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    I'm Julie, a middle schl student. I'm sixteen years ld. I like 46 animals, like pandas, giraffes, tigers... S I find a part- time (兼职) 47 in the city z in my free time. The z is 48 my hme. It is nly abut 2 kilmeters 49 where I live. S I ften ride a bike t wrk. After I 50 the z,I clean the animals' cages(笼子) and make fd fr them.
    On weekends, mre peple cme t the z t 51 animals. S smetimes I am a little busy. And I need t tell 52 what they can d and what they can't d. There are als sme rules that they need t 53 in the z. I like my wrk 54 I can play with thse lvely animals.
    Of all the animals in the z,I like the cute kala best, althugh(尽管) it is a little 55 . It can sleep fr 20 56 a day. It 57 Australia and is ne f the 58 f Australia, butI dn't think it is a gd idea fr animals t 59 in the cages. They are frm nature(大自然). S I think they will be happy and free if they 60 live in nature. D yu agree with me?
    46. A. all kinds f B. a kind f C. kind f D. tw kinds f
    47. A. wrk B. jb C. hbby D. lve
    48. A. next t B. far frm C. befre D. near
    49. A. frm B. t C. at D. near
    50. A. arrive in B. g n C. get t D. walk t
    51. A. lk B. watch C. wash D. eat
    52. A. her B.him C.them D.us
    53. A. bring B. shw C. break D. fllw
    54. A. but B. and C. s D. because
    55. A. smart B. lazy C. interesting D. scary
    56. A. hurs B. minutes C. secnds D. times
    frm B.cmes ut C.cmes back D.cmes int
    58. A. friends B. flags C. symbls D. hmes
    59. A. dance B. sleep C. live D. sing
    60. A. mustn't B. must C. can't D. can
    IX. 阅读理解。(30分)
    (A)
    As the“ Duble Reductin” plicy(“双减”政策) cmes ut, students have time t d what they like after schl. We ask 1,000 students abut their after- schl activities and sleep hurs.
    Chart I Chart II
    Many students like t jin clubs after schl. Amng the clubs, students like t jin sprts clubs best. They think playing sprts helps them be healthy and study better. Many students jin music clubs and art clubs, t. Music and art help them relax. Few students jin learning clubs because they think they are very busy at schl and they just want t d smething fr fun after schl.
    根据短文和图表内容,选择最佳答案。 (5分)
    61. The students like t best after schl.
    A. read bks B. d exercise C. jin clubs D. practice English
    62. students ften help with husewrk after schl.
    A.150 B.100 C.160 D.90
    63. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
    A. Fifty students in Grade 8 sleep fr six hurs.
    B. 100 students sleep fr 7 hurs in Grade 9.
    C. There are six activities in Chart L
    D. 200 students like t read bks after schl.
    64. Students want t keep healthy and strng by jining .
    A. sprts clubs B. music clubs C. art clubs D. learning clubs
    65. can help students relax themselves.
    A. Sprts and music B. Sprts and art C. Music and art D. Art and learning
    (B)
    Tday is the weekend. Judy desn't g t schl. And there is a cncert (音乐会) at the music rm at 7:00 p. m. She likes listening t music very much. She thinks it makes her relaxed. Judy and her friend Nancy get there early, and they are reading the“ Ntice t the Audience”(听众须知) .
    Ntice t the Audience
    ●Wear neat clthes and dn't wear slippers (拖鞋) int the music rm.
    ●Dn't take fd r drinks int the music rm.
    ●Keep quiet in the music rm.
    ●Keep ff mbile phnes at the cncert.
    ●Dn't take phts at the cncert.
    根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。 (5分)
    66. What day is it tday?
    A. It's Mnday. B. It's Tuesday. C. It's Friday. D. It's Saturday.
    67. What des Judy think f music?
    A. It's interesting. B. It's nisy. C. It's relaxing. D. It's beautiful.
    68. Judy and her friend Nancy are .
    A. listening t the cncert B. having sme fd and drinks with friends
    C. reading the ntice D. watching a mvie
    69. What des the underlined wrd“ neat” mean?
    A. dirty B. cute C. shy D. tidy
    70. If yu are in the music rm, yu have t .
    A. take fd r drink int it B. wear slippers
    C. take phts at the cncert D. keep ff mbile phnes
    (C)
    Eric is my brther. He is a gd student. But he cannt get up early. He usually gets up at nine r ten in the mrning, s he ften arrives late fr schl.
    My father desn't want him t be late fr schl, s he buys a clck fr Eric. He says t Eric,“ Yu must get up when the clck rings(响起铃声).”
    “ Yes, Dad,” Eric says. After that Eric gets up at six when the clck rings.
    Tday my father frgets t wind up (上发条) the clck. And Eric desn't get up at six this mrning. It's time fr breakfast. My father ges t his rm. Eric is in bed and his eyes are pen.“ Why dn't yu get up?” My father says angrily.
    “ Yu tell me I must get up when the clck rings. And nw I am waiting fr the clck.”
    根据短文内容,判断句子正(T)、误(F)。 (5分)
    71. Eric isn't a gd student and he ften arrives late fr schl.
    72. Eric's father desn't want him t get up late and buys him a clck.
    73. Eric frgets t wind up the clck fr himself.
    74. Tday the clck desn't ring s Eric gets up late.
    75. Eric is waiting fr the clck t ring.
    (D)
    Cathy and her parents live in a village in Canada. There are many green trees and nice flwers near their hme. 76
    There is a big tree near Cathy's windw. In the tree, there are many big birds. 77 But every week ne f the birds flies int the windw and breaks(打破) it. 78
    One day a bird breaks the windw again(又一次). 79 Then she has an idea. The birds like t fly int my windw because they can't see it. Then she draws sme pictures n her windw. 80 What a smart girl!
    阅读短文,把A~E五个句子填入文中空缺处,使短文内容完整。 (5分)
    A. Nw, the birds can see the windw and they dn't break her windw.
    B. Cathy likes t live there and she enjys the clean air.
    C. Cathy says t herself, “I must stp the bird.”
    D. Cathy desn't knw what t d.
    E. Cathy likes watching them singing and flying in the sky.
    (E)
    Every day, yu may g t schl by schl bus. But d yu have lessns n the bus?
    On a small farm in Mexic, there are n schls. A bus is the schl. The driver f the bus is the teacher. It's a schl bus, but it desn't take the children t schl. It just ges arund frm place t place, and smetimes it cmes t this farm. The bus stays here and leaves after three mnths. The farmers call it a schl n wheels. Every time the bus cmes, the farmers will cme, running t it, shuting and laughing.
    When the bus is n the farm, the teacher teaches the small children in the mrning. The elder(年长的) children must wrk in the mrning s they cme t have their lessns in the afternn. At night, the fathers and mthers cme t schl. They want t learn, t. Hwever, the farmers hpe(希望) that they can have a real schl sme day.
    根据短文内容,回答下列问题。 (10分)
    81. Wh is the teacher f the schl n this small farm in Mexic?

    82. Des the schl bus take the children t schl r just g arund frm place t place t teach students?

    83. Hw lng des the bus stay(停留) n this farm?

    84. Why des the elder children have lessns in the afternn?

    85. What's the farmers' dream?

    五、语言运用(共10分)
    X. 短文填空。 (10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Mike is 86 bus driver. He lves his jb. He wrks 87 7:00 a. m. t 3:00 p. m. He needs t g t wrk very early. But he is 88 late fr wrk. He wants peple 89 ( feel) happy, s he cleans the bus t keep it tidy. He is 90 ( friend) t every passenger(乘客) and all the peple like him.
    Tday he gets t a small bus stp. Usually he desn't stp at this stp because n peple get ff(下车) r wait at the stp. 91 tday he sees an ld wman want t take the bus. S he quickly stps the bus. The ld wman is nt 92 frm the stp but she walks very slwly(慢慢地). S Mike waits fr abut tw 93 ( minute). Then he helps her t get n(上车) the bus and 94 ( want) t clse the dr.
    “ Please wait.” The ld wman says,“ 95 (I) mther is cming, t!”
    六、书面表达 (共20分)
    XI.(A) 来自美国的 Jenny Brwn 想加入京剧俱乐部。请你根据以下要点和要求, 帮助 Jenny写一封申请信。(5分)
    要点:1. Jenny喜爱唱歌,并且会讲一点汉语;
    2. 她希望学习中国历史、练习汉语;
    3. 她的电话号码是473-9302, 电子邮箱为jenny@sina.cm。
    要求:要点齐全; 表述通顺。不少于 40词。开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Sir r Madam,



    Yurs,
    Jenny Brwn
    (B) 校报开设了投稿专栏, 本期主题为“ My best friend”, 请你写一篇不少于 60词的短文介绍你最好的朋友。(15分)
    内容要点: 1. 最好的朋友是汤姆, 13岁, 来自纽约 ( New Yrk) ;
    2.每天六点起床,花费15分钟走路上学;
    3、友好善良且乐于助人;
    4. 酷爱打篮球,每周二下午练习篮球;
    要求:以上信息仅供参考,内容可适当发挥; 文中不得出现真实的人名及校名。
    My best friend

    南关区 2023—2024学年度下学期七年级期中质量调研题
    参考答案及评分标准 (英语)
    一、听力部分 (共25分)
    I.根据所听到的句子,选择正确的答语。(5分)
    1. Bill, dn't eat in the classrm!
    2. Why dn't yu like this bk?
    3. Hw d yu get t schl?
    4. D yu like swimming?
    5. Have a gd day at schl!
    II.根据所听到的对话和对话后的问题,选择正确答案。(5分)
    6. M: Hi, Jenny. What club d yu want t jin?
    W:I can play ping- png. I want t jin the ping- png club.
    Q: What sprt can Jenny play?
    7. W: Tny, yur things are everywhere! Please clean yur rm!
    M: Srry, mm. I' ll clean it right nw.
    Q: Where are they?
    8. M: What time is it nw?
    W: It's half past ten.
    Q: What time is it nw?
    9. M: Where are yu frm?
    W:I'm frm Thailand.
    Q: Where is the wman frm?
    10. M: What animals d yu like?
    W: I like the giraffes because they' re beautiful.
    Q: What anımals des the wman like?
    III.听描述,选出与描述内容相符的图片。其中有一幅图片是多余的。(5分)
    11. My father drives t wrk every day.
    12. It's gd fr yur health t eat mre vegetables and fruit.
    13. Peple buy IC cards t take the bus.
    14. N talking in the library.
    15. Dgs are ur friends. We must be friendly t them.
    IV.听较长对话,选择正确答案。(5分)
    听第一段对话,作答第16~17小题。
    W: Hey, Daniel. I hear that yu wrk at a TV statin.
    M: Yes. And my TV shw is frm 11:00 p. m. t 3:00 a. m.
    W: What time d yu usually get up?
    M: At 8:00 in the evening.
    W: That's a funny time.
    M: Yeah. And I usually d sme sprts after that.
    W: Sunds gd.
    听第二段对话,作答第18~20小题。
    W: Hi, Jhn. When d yu usually g t schl?
    M: I usually g t schl at six thirty.
    W: Oh, it's early. I usually g t schl at seven thirty. D yu have lunch at hme?
    M: Yes, I d. What abut yu?
    W: I have lunch at schl. After lunch, I play chess with my classmates.
    M: Great! I als like playing chess.
    W: D yu exercise in the mrning?
    M: N, I dn't have much time. I usually exercise with my parents after dinner.
    v.听短文,根据所听到的内容,选择正确答案。(5分)
    Nancy is an American girl. She is thirteen years ld. Every mrning she gets up at six frty. Then she has a quick breakfast and then ges t schl at seven ten. It takes her fifteen minutes t get t schl n the bus. There are many rules at her schl. Nancy must be n time fr the class and wear the schl unifrm. Als, she can't eat in the classrm r fight with her classmates. There are many clubs in the schl, t. Nancy can draw very well s she jins the art club. She wants t be an artist ne day. Nancy ften ges t the z t draw pictures f the animals n weekends. She likes the lins best because she thinks they' re beautiful.
    一、听力部分 (共25分)
    I.1-5 ABABB II. 6-10 CABCB III.11-15 CDAEB
    IV.16-20 CBABC V.21-25 ACCAB
    二、基础知识 (共15分)
    26-30CBDAB 31-35 BBDCD 36-40 CDBBD
    三、交际运用 (共5分)
    41-45 CFABD
    四、阅读 (共45分)
    46-50ABDAC 51-55 BCDDB 56-60 AACCD
    61-65 BDBAC 66-70DCCDD 71-75 FTFTT 76-80BEDCA
    81. The driver f the bus ( is the teacher).
    82. It just ges arund frm place t place ( t teach students).
    83. Fr three mnths./ It stays n the farm fr three mnths.
    84. Because they must wrk in the mrning.
    85. They hpe that they can have a real schl sme day. / Their dream is that they can have a real schl sme day.
    五、语言运用 (共10分)
    86. a 87. frm 88. never/ nt 89. t feel 90. friendly
    91. But 92. far 93. minutes 94. wants 95. My
    六、书面表达 (共20 分)
    (A)
    Dear Sir r Madam,
    I am a student frm America. My name is Jenny Brwn. I want t jin the Beijing pera club. I lve singing and I can jenny@sina.cm.I really hpe that I can jin yu.
    Yurs,
    Jenny Brwn
    评分标准:
    第一档:(4~5分) 要点齐全,表达充分,基本上无语法、拼写错误,书写工整。
    第二档:(2~3分)要点不够齐全,表达比较充分,有个别语法、拼写错误,书写比较工整。
    第三档:(0~2分) 只有部分要点,表达不充分,只写出个别词语,内容不可读。
    (B) My best friend
    Tm is my best friend. He is a 13- year- ld by frm New Yrk.
    He gets up at 6:00 every mrning. That's early, s he never arrives at schl late. After having a healthy breakfast, he ges t schl n ft. It usually takes him 15 minutes. He has 6 classes every day and has lunch at schl. He likes playing basketball very much. Every Tuesday afternn, he practices basketball with me.
    He is kind and always helps us with study. He is such a gd by. We all like him.
    评分标准:
    第一档:(14~15分)内容完整,表达充分,层次结构清晰,语言流畅,可读性强,基本上无语法、拼写错误,书写工整。
    第二档:(11~13分) 内容比较完整,表达比较充分,层次结构比较清晰,语言比较流畅,有个别语法、拼写错误,书写比较工整。
    第三档:(8~10分)内容不够完整,表达基本充分,语句基本通顺,有一些语法、拼写错误,书写不够工整。
    第四档:(4~7分)内容不完整,表达不充分,层次结构不合理,语言不流畅,语法、拼写错误较多,书写不工整。
    第五档:(0~3分) 只写出个别词语,内容不可读。

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