湖南省长沙市湖南师大附中集团思沁学校2024-2025学年上学期七年级第一次月考英语试题

这是一份湖南省长沙市湖南师大附中集团思沁学校2024-2025学年上学期七年级第一次月考英语试题，共7页。试卷主要包含了答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名，必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸，请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整，答题卡上不得使用涂改液，9小题等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
试卷分四个部分，61小题，时量100分钟，满分100分。
= 1 \* ROMAN I．听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the by’s name?
A. Li Ming. B. Li Hua.C. Li Peng.
2. What clur is Peter’s new bicycle?
A. Black and white. B. Black and range. C. Black and blue.
3. Hw many baby chickens des Betty have n the farm?
A. 10. B. 12. C. 14.
4. Hw is Grace?
A. She is nt OK. B. She is fine. C. She is ill.
5. Wh can spell “brwn”?
A. Tina. B. Bb. C. Cindy.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6. What clur is the girl’s new cap?
A. Red. B. Blue. C. Yellw.
7. Where is the girl’s new cap?
A. In the desk. B. On the teacher’s desk. C. Under the desk.
听第七段对话，回答第8、9小题。
8. What clur is the schlbag?
A. Red. B. Green. C. Black.
9. Wh is Frank?
A. Susan’s friend. B. Susan’s brther. C. Susan’s cusin.
听第八段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10. What animal des the girl see n the farm?
A. A cat. B. A duck. C. A sheep.
11. Hw many ducks des Mr. Hu have n the farm?
A. 5. B. 6. C. 7.
听第九段对话，回答第12至14小题。
12. What clur is the cup?
A. Yellw. B. Red. C. Blue.
13. Where is the cup?
A. It’s n the map. B. It’s n the bk. C. It’s n the desk.
14. What’s the wrd?
A. Ruler. B. Cup. C. Bk.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17小题。
15. When d the speakers meet?
A. In the evening. B. In the afternn. C. In the mrning.
16. What’s this in English?
A. A ruler. B. A CD. C. A cup.
17. Wh can spell “CD”?
A. Dale. B. Jack. C. Helen.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20小题。
18. Wh has a big farm?
A. Mike. B. Mike’s uncle. C. Mike’s grandfather.
19. Hw many sheep are there n the farm?
A. 4. B. 6. C. 8.
20. What clur are the cws?
A. White and brwn. B. Black and white. C. Black and brwn.
= 2 \* ROMAN II．阅读（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
What are in these students’ schlbags?
21. Helen has _______ in her schlbag.
A. a pencil bx B. a ruler C. three ntebks
22. Wh has an English bk in the schlbag?
A. Teng Fei and Helen. B. Teng Fei and Peter. C. Helen and Peter.
B
D yu greet yur friends every day? Hw d peple greet their friends? What d they say r what d they d?
In China, peple like t say “Ni ha” t friends. In the afternn r in the evening, they always ask their friends, “What d yu have fr dinner?”
In the UK, smetimes peple meet their friends and they shake hands(握手) with them. And they like t talk abut the weather(天气). Peple are happy n sunny days. They may be sad r wrried n rainy days.
In the Netherlands(荷兰), peple kiss(亲吻) friends n faces fr greeting. A kiss r tw kisses are OK. But a persn can have three kisses frm his r her gd friends.
23. Chinese peple _______ t greet their friends.
A. shake hands
B. talk abut clthes
C. ask “What d yu have fr dinner?”
24. Hw d peple smetimes greet their friends in the UK?
A. They shake hands.B. They kiss faces.C. They have lunch.
25. The underlined phrase “talk abut” means “_______” in Chinese.
A. 查询B. 谈论C. 分析
26. What is the theme(主题) f the passage?
A. Weather. B. Fd. C. Greeting.
C
In Jayda’s family, there is a special traditin(传统) — Grandmther needs t make a piece f clthing(衣服) as her grandchildren’s twelfth birthday gift(第十二岁生日礼物). And the clthing must be in the child’s favurite clur.
Time flies, and Jayda’s twelfth birthday cmes. On that day, Jayda gets up early and ges t visit her grandmther n ft. Once she walks int the huse, her grandmther says “Happy birthday, my child! I want t make yu a skirt fr yur twelfth birthday. What clur d yu like best?”
Jayda thinks fr a while and says, “Grandma, hw can I pick(挑选) just ne? I lve the clurs f the rainbw(彩虹)! Red is the clur f lve and luck. When I wear red, I feel like I’m n tp f the wrld. Orange makes me feel warm and cmfrtable. When I wear range, I feel like(感觉像) I’m at hme. Yellw makes me want t be a kid frever. When I wear yellw, I feel like I’m the happiest girl in the wrld. And I als like green, blue and purple very much.”
Hearing this, the grandma says, “I knw what t d nw. Just wait fr me here!” Hurs later, she cmes back with a rainbw-clured skirt in her hand. Jayda is s happy. “Ww! I have a skirt with the clurs f the rainbw nw!”
27. What’s the traditin f Jayda’s family?
A. Seeing the rainbw tgether.
B. Visiting Grandmther every weekend.
C. Getting clthes frm Grandmther n ne’s twelfth birthday.
28. Hw des Jayda g t her grandmther’s huse?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
29. What clur makes Jayda feel at hme?
A. Blue. B. Orange. C. Green.
30. Where can we read the text?
A. In a dictinary. B. In a travel guide. C. In a strybk.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅用一次。
New places, new faces, new things t d and new ways t d them... Are yu ready t start middle schl? 31. __________________
★ Find yur way t the new schl
Befre the first day f schl, take a practice run(来场演习) frm hme t schl. Hw lng will it take t walk r bike t schl? After the run, yu will knw. Yu dn’t want t be late fr yur first class.
★ Cpy schl timetable(课程表)
32. __________________ Yu can cpy(抄) ne n yur ntebk. Every night, have a lk at the timetable and finish all the hmewrk. If yu have enugh time, yu can preview(预习) the subjects fr the next day.
★33. __________________
If yu dn’t understand the lessns in ne f yur classes, ask yur teachers fr help after the class. Yu can als ask the teachers r classmates fr help when yu meet sme prblems. Dn’t leave yur prblems t the next day!
★ Use yur time wisely(明智地)
Yu’ll have mre classes, mre hmewrk, mre tests, and mre after-schl activities( 课外活动). 34. __________________ After yu get hme frm schl, d yur hmewrk first. And make it a habit.
Fr the very first day, yu’ll feel bth excited and nervus(紧张的). Remember(记住) that the new place will give yu a new chance(机会). S dn’t wrry! 35. __________________
III．语言运用（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Gd mrning, I’m Wang 36 . My classmates ften 37 me Daming. I can 38 my name, D-A-M-I-N-G. I am a student in Siqin Middle Schl. I’m in Class 8, Grade 7. I have a gd friend. His name is Teng Fei. 39 is he? Oh, he’s here. He 40 me. And I say hi t him 41 . At the mment we hear(听见) the 42 . We knw it’s time fr 43 . S we say “ 44 ” t each ther and g t class.
Nw I 45 yu knw abut me. May I knw yur name?
36. A. Daming B. DaMing C. Da Ming
37. A. find B. call C. meet
38. A. say B. see C. spell
39. A. Hw B. Wh C. Where
40. A. knws B. greets C. thanks
41. A. t B. nw C. please
42. A. name B. bell C. cnversatin
43. A. class B. subject C. schl
44. A. Hell B. Mrning C. Gdbye
45. A. let B. thank C. lk
第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Mr. Smith is 46. _______ English teacher. He cmes frm the US. He 47. _______ (have) a sn. His 48. _______ (ne) name is Frank. He 49. _______ (be) a dctr in New Yrk. In his free time, he likes 50. _______ (play) basketball with his sn.
Nw he lives 51. _______ China, s he needs 52. _______ (speak) Chinese. In rder t(为了) learn Chinese well, he ges t Chinese classes every evening. Mr. Smith is kind 53. _______ warm-hearted(热心的). He has a lt f 54. _______ (friend) in China. And they are ready t help 55. _______ (he).
= 4 \* ROMAN IV．读写综合（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 简答（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。
My name is Andy. I am twelve years ld. I like the life n the farm very much. My uncle has a big farm. There are many kinds f animals here. There are pigs, hrses, cws, sheep, ducks, geese and chickens n the farm. Hrses are my favrite animals. I ften ride the baby hrse. And my uncle has anther seven hrses. My uncle als keeps many chickens and geese. The white geese are s cute that I always like feeding them n greens(绿叶蔬菜). The red huse with a small yard is my uncle’s hme. Tw big apple trees are behind it. Many red apples are n them. Many kinds f flwers are in the yard t. They are s beautiful. I like them very much. My uncle’s farm is very nice, isn’t it?
56. Wh has a big farm?
57. What animals can yu see n the farm?
58. Hw many hrses des Andy’s uncle have?
59. What clur are the geese?
60. D yu like the farm? Why r why nt?
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
61. 每个人都拥有自己的房间，那是专属于自己的一方天地。最近，学校的英语宣传栏正在征集主题为 “My Rm” 的征文。假如你Fu Xing，请用英语写一篇短文投稿，介绍自己的房间，描述一下房间里的物品以及它们是如何摆放的。
要求：
1. 根据图片描述房间的布置，可适当扩展；
2. 字数在80字左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
3. wrd bank：pillw 枕头，quilt 被子，blanket 毯子
My Rm
Hell, I am Fu Xing. This is my rm.








Teng Fei
My schlbag is black. A brwn pencil bx is in my schlbag. Three pencils and tw pens are in it. This is my English bk. I have English classes in the afternn.
Helen
I like purple and I have a purple schlbag. A cup and three ntebks(笔记本) are in my schlbag. The cup is big and range. I get(得到) it frm my brther.
Peter
I have a blue schlbag. An English bk and a white ruler are in my schlbag. I like English. I can speak English well. The ruler is frm my friend Lily.
A. Ask fr help early
B. Here are sme gd ways t help yu.
C. Yu can make a gd start at the new schl!
D. S yu shuld make full use f(充分利用) yur time.
E. Yu will have yur new timetable n the first schl day.
2024-2025-1附中思沁七上第一次月考
（参考答案）

Ⅰ．听力技能
1—5 ABBBC 6—10 BCCBB
11—15 BABBC 16—20 BCCCB
Ⅱ．阅读
第一节 短文理解
21—22 CB23—26 CABC
27—30 CCBC
第二节 语篇补全
31—35 BEADC
Ⅲ. 语言运用
第一节 词语填空
36—40 ABCCB 41—45 ABACA
第二节
46. an 47. has
48. first 49. is
50. playing 51. in
52. t speak 53. and
54. friends 55. him
Ⅳ. 读写综合
第一节 简答
56. Andy’s uncle.
57. Pigs, hrses, cws, sheep, ducks, geese and chickens.
58. 8. / Eight.
59. White. / They are white.
60. Yes. Because I can see many kinds f animals./...
/ N. Because it is bring. /... (合理即可)
第二节 书面表达 略