河南省周口市西华县2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中考试英语试题
展开注意事项:
1. 本试卷共8页,六个大题,满分120分,考试时间100分钟。
2. 本试卷上不要答题,请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
一、听力理解 (20 小题, 每小题1分, 共20分)
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. Whse purple bag is it?
A. Jy's. B. Jane's. C. Jhn's.
2. Why is the man's cmmunity s nisy?
A. Because it's next t the railway statin.
B. Because sme wmen dance every night.
C. Because car drivers make much nise in the night.
3. What will the by d ?
A. Drive a car. B. Take a car. C. G acrss the street.
4. What's wrng with the cmputer?
A. The CD desn't wrk.
B. Smething is wrng with the keybard.
C. There's smething wrng with the muse.
5. What is Lily ding?
A. She's cking. B. She's making cards. C. She's ding her hmewrk.
第二节
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Which ntebk is Jack lking fr?
A. The yellw and black ne.
B. The range and yellw ne.
C. The black and white ne.
7. Where is Jack's ntebk?
A. On the bed. B. In the desk. C. In his schlbag.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. What's the by's name?
A. Daniel. B. Danny. C. Little guy.
9. Where are the tw speakers talking?
A. In a fruit shp.
B. In a sprts shp.
C. In a clthes shp.
听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12 三个小题。
10. Hw many languages can Nick speak very well?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
11. Wh des Nick usually g swimming with?
A. His brther. B. His father. C. His grandfather.
12. Hw many sisters des Nick have?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. Hw des the by usually g t schl?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By undergrund.
14. Where des the by usually have lunch?
A. At hme. B. At schl. C. In the restaurant.
15. What time is the schl ver in the afternn?
A. At 3 :00. B. At3:15. C. At3:50.
第三节
听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解 (20个小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
A
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. Hw much shuld a student with his parents pay(支付) fr a Rse's Special Cncert?
A.¥80. B.¥160. C.¥240. D.¥400.
22. When will yu wrk if yu wrk as a driver in the restaurant?
A. In the afternn. B. In the evening. C. Every day. D. On weekends.
23. Peple with tday's Zhengzhu Daily can get a small gift frm .
A. Zhengzhu Theater B. Xinhua Restaurant
C. Zhengzhu Daily D. Ynghui Supermarket
24. Which f the fllwing is a prper time t take part in the Rse's Special Cncert?
A.8:30 am. B.11:30 am. C.2:30 pm. D.5:30 pm.
25. What can we knw frm the text?
A. Tthe driver needn't pay fr his meals at wrk.
B. The huse fr sale csts mre than 1,200,000 yuan.
C. Yu can g t the new Ynghui Supermarket n Nvember 5th .
D. We can enjy a cncert at Zhengzhu Theater in the evening.
B
The schl life f a small farm in Mexic is different frm urs.
On the small farm, there are n schls. A bus is the schl. The driver f the bus is the teacher. It's a schl bus, but it desn't take the children t schl It just ges arund frm place t place, and smetimes it cmes t this farm. The bus just stays here fr three weeks. The farmers call it a schl n wheels(轮子)) . Every time the bus cmes, the farmers run t it, they are s happy. They warmly welcme the schl bus.
When the bus is n the farm in the mrning, the teacher teaches the small children. In the afternn, the bigger children cme t have their lessns because they must wrk in the mrning. At night, the fathers and mthers cme t schl. They want t learn , t. Hw the farmers hpe that sme day they can have a real schl n their farm!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Wh is the driver f the bus?
A. The teacher. B. The student. C. The farmer. D. The father.
27. What d we knw abut the schl bus frm the text?
A. It takes the children t schl.
B. It stays at the farm fr a lng time.
C. It takes the fathers and mthers t schl.
D. It ges rund frm place t place.
28. Why d the bigger children have their lessns in the afternn?
A. Because they can't get up early in the mrning.
B. Because the teacher wants t teach the small children first in the mrning.
C. Because they have a lt f wrk t d in the mrning.
D. Because they have t d their hmewrk in the mrning
29. What's the theme(主题) f the text?
A. Friends. B. Lcal Area. C. Schl Life. D. Sprts.
30. What's the best title fr the text?
A. A Schl Bus B. A Schl n Wheels
C. A Small Farm D. A Mving(移动的) Driver
C
Mrs. Black ges t see her sn in New Yrk. Her sn wrks in a chess club there. Mrs. Black desn't knw New Yrk well. And she can't find her way.
Mrs. Black sees a man at a bus stp. She wants t ask the man the way,“ Excuse me! But can yu help me, please? Which bus ges t Miller's Shp?” Mrs. Black asks.
The man is very friendly. He smiles . But he can't speak English. He can nly speak French(法语). He is new
in New Yrk. He puts his hand int his bag and takes ut a small bk. He pens it and reads smething in it.“I'm srry, I can't speak English.” Then he smiles again(再一次).
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Where des Mrs. Black's sn wrk?
A. At schl. B. At a bus stp.
C. In a chess club. D. In Miller's Shp.
32. Why can't Mrs. Black find her way?
A. Because she is ld.
B. Because she desn't like chess.
C. Because she can't speak English.
D. Because she desn't knw New Yrk well.
33. What des the underlined phrase“ takes ut” in paragraph 3 mean?
A.拿出 B.获得 C.扣除 D.发出
34. What is the crrect rder accrding t the text?
①Mrs. Black ges t New Yrk.
②The man says srry t Mrs. Black.
③The man puts his hand int his bag.
④Mrs. Black asks a man fr directins (问路).
A.①③②④ B.①③④② C.①④②③ D.①④③②
35. What can we infer (推断) frm the text?
A. Mrs. Black ges t wrk in New Yrk.
B. Mrs. Black wants t buy the bk.
C. The man can't help Mrs. Black
D. The man can speak English very well.
D
When buying a huse, mst peple hpe t have nice neighbrs. 36 Peple may have different answers(答案). Here are my answers.
· Gd neighbrs shuld respect(尊重) each ther. 37 It's gd t greet each ther. We shuld never try t learn abut thers' lives.
· Gd neighbrs are always kind- hearted. 38 If we are nt at hme, ur gd neighbrs will keep eyes n ur huses.
· Gd neighbrs shuld keep the envirnment(环境) clean. 39 . Keep the flr clean.
Everyne wants t live a happy life. 40 As students, we shuld all learn t be gd neighbrs.
根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A. They always help us when we need them.
B. What is a gd neighbr like?
C. Say hell when meeting.
D. I hpe everyne can have gd neighbrs.
E. They always clean the flr.
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Linda is 13 years ld. She cmes frm Canada. She 41 with her parents in Guangzhu because they 42 wrk there. Her father is a dctr. He wrks in a 43 . Her mther is a44 . She teaches English. Linda always takes her mther's car t schl. Because she and her mther are in the 45 schl.
It is 46 tday. Linda desn't g t schl. She likes ball games. 47 breakfast, she meets her friends. She plays 48 with them. She is very 49 . Ellen is her 50 friend. Ellen's birthday is 51 . S she ges t the stre t buy a nice t y panda fr her. She walks there 52 the stre is clse t her hme.
In the afternn, Linda ges t the Children's Hme. She ges there 53 tw weeks. There, she reads 54 t the children, plays games with them, and helps them with their 55 . The children all like Linda, and Linda is very happy when she. helps the children.
41. A. cleans B. lives C. studies D. wrks
42. A. sme B. all C. bth D. every
43. A. farm B. park C. z D. hspital
44. A. teacher B. nurse C. farmer D. driver
45. A. difficult B. easy C. same D. different
46. A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Saturday
47. A. When B. Befre C. After D. Until
48. A. basketball B. guitar C. dlls D. cards
49. A. happy B. interesting C. clean D. wnderful
50. A. bring B. best C. last D. happy
B. ging C. starting D. cking
52. A. s B. if C. when D. because
53. A. nce B. ver C. seldm D. nly
54. A. maps B. music C. stries D. subjects
55. A. buildings B. studies C. beds D. wallets
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
a breakfast draw with shw always I library happy teach
My family are always very kind t me. My mm gets up early every day t make 56 fr me. My sister always knws hw t make me 57 . She plays games and reads bks 58 me. My dad is 59 art teacher. He 60 me hw t use pencils and clrs t 61 beautiful pictures. I lve learning frm 62 dad. My grandmther 63 my pictures t her friends. I knw she lves me. I lve her, t.
I als have many gd teachers. They help me with my different subjects. If I have prblems(问题),I can 64 ask them fr help.
There are many kind neighbrs in my cmmunity. Dr. Liu is ne f them. He helps me take care f my teeth twice a year. The wrker in the 65 helps me t find bks. The plicemen always help me and keep me safe.
第二节
阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
I'm Sctt. I live n Nrth Street. It 66 a gd place t have fun. Yu can see a htel, a supermarket, a bank, a bkstre and a z n it. It is a very busy street. 67 are always lts f peple and cars there. My huse is acrss frm the htel. The htel is between the bkstre 68 the bank. My favrite place is the bkstre. There are lts f interesting bks 69 it. I ften spend time there at weekends. If yu want t see animals, yu can g t the z. It's next 70 the supermarket. There is als a big restaurant near the supermarket. It is clean and quiet. Yu can enjy yur lunch in it. Welcme t Nrth Street!
五、补全对话 (5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Sally. Is there any news?
B:A new student called Debbie came t my class yesterday. She is an exchange student.
A:71. ?
B: She says she cmes frm Germany.
A:72 ?
B: Of curse, she can. But nly a few Chinese wrds.
A: D yu knw why she cmes t China?
B:73. .
A: Sunds great.74. ?
B: Well,I think she's really nice. And we have the same hbby.
A: Really? What's her hbby/?
B:75: .
A: S nice!I hpe I can als make friends with her ne day.
六、书面表述(20分)
请根据下面的中文提示,以" My hme"为题用英语写一篇短文,向大家介绍一下你的家。
1.中文提示:1) 房子类型:排房
2)周围环境:附近有一个公园,对面有一家超市,右边有个公交车站。
3)家庭布局:有两层:第一层有一个客厅、一个厨房和一个餐厅,第二层有三个卧室和一个书房。书房里有一个白色的书桌和一个红色的书架,书桌上有一台计算机和一些书和报纸。
2.写作要求 1) 文中须包含提示的所有信息,可适当发挥;
2) 语言表达准确,语意通顺、连贯;
3) 文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名;
4) 词数100个左右。
My hme
2023—2024学年下期期中七年级阶段练习题
英语答案
一、.听力理解(20分)
1—5 ABCBC 6—10 CAABB 11—15 BAABC 16—20 BAECD
二、阅读理解 (40分)
21---25 DBDCA 26---30 ADCCB
31---35 CDADC 36---40 BCAED
三、完型填空 (15分)
41-45 BCDAC 46-50 DCAAB 51-55 ADACB
四、语篇填空(15分)
第一节(10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
breakfast 57. happy 58. with 59. an 60.teaches
61. draw 62. my 63. shws 64. always 65. library
第二节
66. is 67. There 68. and 69. in 70. t
五、补全对话 (10分)
7 1.Where des she cme frm/Where is she frm/...
What des she say/...
72. Can she speak Chinese/Is she able t speak any Chinese/..
73.Because she lves China/She cmes t China t learn Chinese/...
74.What d yu think f her/Hw d yu like her/What’s she like/...
75.She likes playing the likes singing/dancing ...(And I am gd at playing it,t./Me,t)
...
六、书面表达 (20分)
My hme
Lk!This is my hme.It's a twnhuse.There is a park near my hme.Acrss frm my hme,there is a supermarket.Yu can als see a bus stp n the right f my hme.
There are tw flrs in my huse.On the first flr,there is a living rm,a kitchen and a dining rm.On the secnd flr,there are three bedrms and a study.In the study,yu can see a white desk and a red bkshelf.On the desk,there is a cmputer,sme bks and sme newspapers.
I like my hme very much.
评分标准细则:
1.第1—20题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符合的均不给分。
2.第21—40题,每小题2分。凡与答案不符合的均不给分。
3.第41—55题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符合的均不给分。
4.第56—70题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符合的均不给分
5.第71—75题:
(1)学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误,评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。
(2)本评分标准每题给出了多个答案供参考,如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不一致,但只要与情景相符,上下文意思连贯,符合英语表达习惯,语言表达准确,应给分。
6. 书面表达,20分。
(1) 本题总分为20分,按4个档次给分。
(2) 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。注意把握各个档次的给分范围,避免出现过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。
(3) 词数少于80的,从总分中减去2分;多于120的建议不扣分。
(4) 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(5) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6) 如书写较差以至影响交际,将其分数降低一个档次。
2) 各档次的给分范围和要求
Drivers Wanted
Drive fr Xinhua Restaurant.
Evening wrk n weekdays
All meals at wrk are free.
Call 877-1255.
Huse fr Sale(出售)
¥1,200,000, built in2005, with 3 bedrms,a bathrm,a living rm and a kitchen.
It is in the suth f the city.
Call Bb at 839-5078.
Ynghui Supermarket
A new Ynghui Supermarket in ur
city will be pen n Nvember.8th.
Everybdy with tday's Zhengzhu
Daily can get a small gift n that day.
Welcme!
Tel:879-8432
Add: N.122 Wuyi Rad
Rse's Special Cncert(演奏会)
Time:2:00~4:30 p. m., Nvember 25th
Place: Zhengzhu Theater
Ticket Price(价格): 160 yuan fr each adult(成人) and80 yuan fr each student.
Tel:822-1223
第四档
完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
16~20
第三档
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
一虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
一应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11~15分
第二档
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
一语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
一较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6~10分
第一档
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
一语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
一缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
1~5分
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
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