山东省泰安市泰山区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份山东省泰安市泰山区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
总分： 等级：
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第Ⅰ卷1至8页，第Ⅱ卷9至12页。考试时间100 分钟,满分150分。
第Ⅰ卷(共80分)
注意事项：
1. 答第Ⅰ卷前，请务必将自己的姓名、班级、座号填在第Ⅱ卷密封线内。
2. 第Ⅰ卷选出答案后，请将答案填在第Ⅱ卷前面的“第Ⅰ卷答题栏”内。
第一部分 听力(共25 小题;1-20小题每题1 分,21-25 小题每题2分,满分30分。)
(一) 听句子，选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
1. A. She is friendly. B. She likes sprts. C. She is f medium build.
2. A. I usually g camping. B. I stayed at hme. C. I' ll g t Beijing.
3. A. Next mnth. B. Last mnth. C. I tk sme phts.
4. A. Twice a week. B. Next Saturday. C. I went shpping.
5. A. It's the best cinema.
B. It's a gd place t play sccer.
C. It has gd service and the fd is delicius.
(二) 听五段对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. Hw ften des Lisa play cmputer games?
A. Every day. B. Always. C. Hardly ever.
7. What did Tm d n vacatin?
A. He went swimming.
B. He went t a summer camp.
C. He went t the beach.
8. What wuld the girl like t have in her ndles?
A. Fish. B. Beef. C. Tfu.
9. Which stre has the best clthes?
A. Dream Clthes. B. Blue Sky. C. Twn Clthes.
10. What des the by think f the fd in the restaurant?
A. Delicius. B. Bad. C. Terrible.
(三) 听两段长对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。听每段对话前你将有10秒钟的时间阅读对应的3 个小题。
听第一段对话，回答11—13 小题。
11. Hw was the weather in Australia?
A. It was a little ht. B. It was a little cld. C. It's warm.
12. What did Eric like best abut the trip?
A. The animals. B. The beaches. C. The shps.
13. What did Eric buy fr Laura?
A. A sccer. B. A mdel car. C. A ty kala.
听第二段对话，回答14——16 小题。
14. Hw many kinds f sprts des Tm like?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
15. What sprt des Sam like best?
A. Swimming. B. Running. C. Playing basketball.
16. Hw ften d Tm and Sam g t the sprts center tgether?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
(四) 听短文，选择正确答案。短文读两遍。听录音前你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。
17. Julie likes t have friends wh are her.
A. quieter than B. the same as C. different frm
18. Li Mei’s hair is than Julie’s.
A. shrter B. lnger C. curlier
19. What des Julie like?
A. Drawing. B. Reading bks. C. Telling stries.
20. What d Julie and Li Mei bth like?
A. Telling jkes. B. Playing cmputer games. C. Playing ping - png.
(五) 听填信息，录音中有一篇短文，根据所听内容填写下面的表格，每空一词，短文读三遍。听力结束后，请将答案填写到第Ⅱ卷的相应位置。听录音前你将有20秒钟的时间
阅读下面5个小题。
第二部分 完形填空(共10 小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出能填入短文相应空白处的最佳选项。
Susan went n a trip t Hastings with her classmates last Friday. They were very happy 26 it was their first schl trip.
The night befre, Susan gt everything ready fr the trip. She put a(n) 27 in her bag because the weather was still cld. She als tk sme hamburgers, cakes, juice and candy.
Susan didn’t sleep very well that night. She 28 very early the next mrning. She gt dressed, brushed her teeth and had breakfast at 7:15. Then she tk her bag and left.
Her father drve her t 29 . Susan met her classmates utside the schl. They waited abut 10 minutes 30 the bus. When it arrived, 31 gt n it very quickly.
It 32 them abut tw hurs. They spent mst f the time singing and talking, s it re- ally seemed very 33 .
When they arrived in Hastings, the sun was bright(明亮的), but it was a little cld, s they 34 swim in the sea. They visited the castle(城堡) and had lunch in the park. They als visited the Vermilli n Falls in the center f the twn. It was wnderful. They left at 7 p. m. and 35 hme at abut 9 ’ clck. Susan was really tired, but she liked this schl trip.
26. A. but B. s C. because
27. A. sweater B. apple C. water
28. A. went t bed B. get up C. wke up
29. A. hspital B. schl C. bank
30. A. in B. with C. fr
31. A. everyne B. anyne C. smene
32. A. went B. run C. tk
33. A. lng B. shrt C. tall
34. A. can't B. culdn't C. must
35. A. gt B. frgt C. left
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节，共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
Wang Xiajun,49, has a small htel in Pingya, a cunty (县) in Shanxi.
She pened it in 2002. Last January, Wang gt an e- mail frm her friend Bernard Frigara in France(法国).“I just want t tell yu hw much I miss Pingya, yu and yur family.I lve t walk arund Pingya and ride a bicycle there...” the 75 - year - ld artist wrte in the e - mail.
When Frigara first visited Pingya in 2004, he stayed in Wang's htel. In less than 20 years, Frigara went t Pingya six times, and he stayed in Wang's htel every time, fr ne r tw mnths at a time.
Wang and her family shwed Frigara arund Pingya, washed clthes fr him and celebrated (庆祝) his birthday. Once when Frigara didn’t feel well, Wang tk him t hspital. He wrte in his diary that he stayed in a wnderful htel and that he felt at hme there. In return(作为回报), Frigara taught Wang French(法语) and bught gifts fr her children. Wang de- scribed her French friend as a kind and helpful man.
Nt lng ag, Wang wrte a stry between Frigara and her family named Waiting fr yu, my friend.“ He will cme t Pingya again in the spring f 2024,” she said.
36. What d we knw abut Bernard Frigara?
A. He is an artist. B. He lives in Pingya.
C. He has a small htel. D. He is 49 years ld.
37. Hw many times did Frigara g t the htel?
A. Once. B. Twice. C. Six times. D. Twenty times.
38. What did Wang and her family d fr Frigara?
① They bught him gifts. ② They washed clthes fr him.
③ They drew pictures fr him. ④ They celebrated his birthday.
⑤ They shwed him arund Pingya
A. ①②⑤ B..①②③ C. ①③④ D. ②④⑤
39. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Wang pened the htel 19 years ag.
B. Frigara lves riding bicycles in France.
C. Frigara will cme t China with his family.
D. Wang made Frigara feel at hme in her htel.
B
We did a survey(调查) f 100 students in ur schl last week. And here are the results.
40. students have 2 t 3 hurs f free time every day accrding t the survey.
A. 9 B. 15 C.28 D. 48
41. What d mst students d n the Internet?
A. Listen t music. B. Watch mvies. C. Play games. D. Shp.
42. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Paul hardly ever plays sprts.
B. Paul has a gd habit f reading.
C. 60% f the students like playing games nline.
D. All students have at least an hur f free time.
C
60- year- ld Du Dejian cmes frm Zhangfang Village f Yngji, Shanxi Prvince(省). 40 years ag, Du fund the villagers were shrt f knwledge f farming(农业知识). T help them, Du decided t pen a library in his village.
Đu turned ne f his rms int a library. All he had in the library were an ld table and fur benches (长凳). With the help f his parents and his sister, Du bught sme bks and newspapers n farming. On January 1, 1981, Du's family library pened.
The villagers culd use the library fr free. But few peple went there t read. “ At that time, peple just trusted(相信) their experience (经验). They thught bks had n use,” said Du. Then he started t take bks t the villagers’ hmes and tld them that reading bks was useful fr farming. Slwly , mre and mre peple went t Du's library.
Du went t Beijing, Taiyuan, Xi’ an and Zhengzhu t buy bks. There are abut 40,000 bks and abut 1,300 kinds f newspapers in his library. Du has als ffered (提供) a- but 700 classes n farming. The villagers said these classes were beneficial (有益的). After they tk these classes, they were better farmers.
Tday peple like t read n the cmputer r n the phne and nt s many villagers g t Du's library. S nw he uses a WeChat(微信) grup t teach the villagers hw t farm.
Du is very ppular in his village because he is always trying t help thers.
43. Du Dejia n pened the library
A. at the age f 40 B. n January 1, 1981
C. with the help f the villagers D. t help the kids learn abut the wrld
44. At first few villagers went t Du Dejian's library because they .
A. culdn’t read B. didn't have time
C. didn't trust bks D. didn't have mney fr it.
45. Hw des Du Dejian help the villagers tday?
A. By using a WeChat grup. B. By buying mre bks.
C. By giving them cmputers. D. By taking bks t their hmes.
46. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
A. Why Du Dejian trusts bks. B. Why Du Dejia n likes farming.
C. Hw Du Dejian ffers classes. D. Hw Du Dejian helps the villagers.
D
On May 1st, 2023, a plane crashed (坠毁) in the Clmbian jungle (哥伦比亚丛林). There were seven peple n the plane, and three f them died. There were als fur children, but peple culdn't find them anywhere.
The children’s mm died in the plane crash. The ldest f the fur children was thirteen and the yungest was nly eleven mnths ld. Culd they stay alive(活着的) in the frest? It is very difficult t live in the Clmbian jungle, because it is hme t many large animals.
Peple were s wrried abut the children. Over 100 sldiers (士兵) and a grup f ver 70 peple walked in the frest fr mre than five weeks. Sme dgs als played a rle in finding them. Luckily, they fund the children n June 9, and all f the children were alive. They were s tired and hungry. Peple tk them t hspital quickly.
It is said that (据说) the ldest child knws hw t live in the frest. As a member f the indigenus(本地的) family, the child knew what kind f fruit and ther things they culd eat.
Peple all ver the cuntry said they wuld always remember these smart children.
47. What can we learn frm the beginning f the passage?
A. The children were in great danger.
B. There were a lt f peple n the plane.
C. The children's mm was nt with them that day.
D. The children were ld enugh t lk after themselves.
48. What des the underlined wrd“ it” in Paragraph 2 refer t (指的是)?
A. The cuntry. B. The plane. C. The frest. D. The tree.
49. What des the third paragraph mainly tell us?
A. It was impssible ( 不可能的) t live in the frest.
B. Peple tried their best t find the children.
C. What the children ate in the frest.
D. What peple think f the children.
50. Where can we find the passage?
A. In a ntebk. B. In a guidebk.
C. In a sprts magazine. D. In the newspaper.
第二节 根据短文内容，从短文后的方框中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。
A few weeks ag, Jhn went t a new schl. He likes it better than his ld schl.
The classrms are bigger and cleaner than thse f his ld schl. There is a cmputer in every classrm. The library is als great! There are lts f bks, magazines and newspapers.(51) The fd in the schl dining hall is delicius and nt expensive. (52) Beef ndles are Jhn's favrite fd.
Jhn's favrite place in the new schl is the big auditrium (礼堂). Students ften g there t take part in (参加) all kinds f cmpetitins r listen t speeches (演讲). (53)
There are all kinds f activities in the new schl. Fr example, there is a music festival in June every year. The students like their schl band very much. (54) It is in September every year.
(55) He enjys his life in the new schl because it has the best teachers and the friendliest classmates.
A. All the students like t eat there.
B. Jhn is happy that he can study in this schl.
C. Last week, Jhn went there fr an interesting speech and he lved it.
D. The sprts meeting is als ne f the mst ppular activities in the new schl.
E. It als has the mst cmfrtable chairs and students can sit n them when they read bks.
得 分 栏
第Ⅰ卷答题栏
24. 25. 21. 22. 23.
听力部分(五)答题区
第Ⅱ卷(共70分)
第一节 词汇运用(共两题，满分30分)
第四部分 书面表达(共三节)
(一)根据句意、首字母、音标或汉语提示，完成单词。(共5 小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
56. K a diary in English every day is really a gd habit.
57. What bad weather! It r s heavily that I was wet all ver.
58. We can buy sme bks (便宜地) in the new bkstre.
59. Miss Zhang tld us a stry and it tuched ur (内心).
60. Is yur brther taller than yu? I /'wʌndə(r)/ what he lks like.
根据短文内容，用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空，使文章通顺、完整。(每词限用一次)(二)综合填空(共10 小题；每小题2分，满分20分)
healthy visitr mve tp f think yung animal because live
On May 29th, giant panda(大熊猫) Ya Ya came back t her hme in Beijing Z after spending 20 years in the United States. Nw she's a member(成员) f the z’s giant panda family. (61) the eleven pandas, Ya Ya and Meng Lan are tw ppular stars.
In 2003, Ya Ya(62) t Memphis Z in the US. She was ne f the mst ppular (63) in the z. Ya Ya was very utging. When visitrs were arund her, she liked t climb the tree and rll(翻滚): Nw Ya Ya is 23 years ld and she isn't as active as befre. She (64) quietly in her new hme in Beijing Z. Peple hpe that Ya Ya will becme (变得) happier and (65) .
Meng Lan is(66) than Ya Ya. He was brn(出生) n July 4,2015. His parents are big stars, s Meng Lan became famus when he was just a baby. Many peple lve Meng Lan (67) he lks very handsme and he is utging.
On December 15,2021, many visitrs saw Meng Lan standing n the (68) f a tw - meter- high wall (墙). The vides (视频) f him climbing the wall als gt ppular n the Internet. Then mre and mre (69) went t the z t see the cute panda.
Many peple (70) it is relaxing t watch the vides f these lvely pandas after a lng wrking day.
第二节 阅读表达(共6小题；71-73小题每题2分，74-76 小题每题3 分,满分15分)
阅读下面的短文，并根据文章后的要求答题(请注意问题后的词数要求)
Dear Lisa,
Yu asked me abut places t g and things t d in ur twn. Nw let me tell yu sme- thing abut them.
The Dwntwn Mall is always fun. It is a great shpping center in the newest part f the twn. There are sme gd stres and restaurants there. Andrea's Bty is a fun place t shp, and it has the best clthes. The shp assistants (售货员) are friendly t peple.
My favrite restaurant is Nick’s Restaurant. It’s the clsest (74) ① my huse. It takes me abut ten minutes t walk there. I g there fr lunch n Wednesday and Fri- day. It's cheap and the hamburgers there are great. (75) Yu can als eat nice ndles there and the beef ndles are the mst delicius!
Shwtime Cinema is my favrite cinema. It (74) ② the biggest screens and the mst cmfrtable seats. I ften g there with my friends n weekends. We have a great time there. The Del Ray is als a gd place t g t the mvies (74)③ the tickets are the cheapest.
There are lts f things t d and t see here. Cme fr a visit sn! I wish I culd hear frm yu as sn as pssible (可能的).
Yurs,
Susan
71. Where is the Dwntwn Mall? ( n mre than 12 wrds. )

72. What des Andrea's Bty have? ( n mre than 6 wrds.)

73. Hw ften des Susan g t Nick’s Restaurant fr lunch? ( n mre than 3 wrds.)

74. Fill in each blank with a prper wrd. ( n mre than 1 wrd fr each blank.)
① ② ③
75. Translate the underlined sentence int Chinese.

76. What des Susan ften d n weekends? ( n mre than 12 wrds. )
第三节 写作(共1题，满分25分)

近日，你们学校对学生的日常生活习惯做了一次调查。下面是你的好朋友李明填写的调查信息表。请你根据表格内容,写一篇题为“ Li Ming’s Living Habits”的英语短文,介绍李明的日常习惯并谈谈你的看法或建议。
要求：1.词数：70词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2.内容应包括表格中的所有要点，可适当发挥，以使行文连贯；
3.文中不要出现真实校名和人名。
Li Ming's Living Habits
Our schl made a survey (调查) abut ur living habits last week. Here are my best friend Li Ming's living habits.
A Schl Talent Shw
When
On ctber 20th.
Where
At the schl (21)_____________ center.
Hw
It was (22)_____________ and interesting.
Wh
●Rita gt the prize fr the best perfrmer. She played the (23)________.
●Lucy was the quietest perfrmer. She (24)_______ withut (没有) music,
●Taylr and his bird wn the prize fr the (25)_____________ perfrmance. They sang a cute sng tgether.
Hw much free time d yu have every day?
What d yu ften d n the Internet?
shp
listen t music
play games
watch mvies
study
A questinnaire (调查表) frm a student
Name: Paul

Free time activities
Hardly ever
Smetimes
Often
Almst every day
Play sprts


✔

Play cmputer games

✔


Help with the husewrk
✔



Watch TV
✔



Read bks



✔
题号
第Ⅰ卷
第Ⅱ卷
总分
选择题
听力(五)
单词拼写
综合填空
阅读表达
写作
得分







得分
评卷人


题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18.
19
20
答案




















题号
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35










答案




















题号
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
答案




















得分
评卷人


得分
评卷人


得分
评卷人


得分
评卷人


得分
评卷人


A questinnaire (调查表) abut living habits
Name: Li Ming
Activities
Hardly ever
Smetimes
Often
Almst every day
eat fruit and vegetables



✔
drink milk



✔
eat junk fd
✔



play sprts


✔

help with husewrk

✔


play cmputer games


✔

stay up late


✔

七年级参考答案及评分标准
第Ⅰ卷(80分)
注:第Ⅰ卷共55 小题;1-20小题和26-35 小题,每小题1分;21-25 小题和36-55 小题，每小题2分；满分80分。
听力部分(五)听填信息
21. activity 22. wnderful 23. guitar 24. danced 25. funniest
(大小写错误每个扣1分)
第Ⅱ卷(70分)
第四部分：书面表达(共三节，满分70分)
第一节 词汇运用(共两题，满分30分)
(一)单词拼写(共5 小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
56. Keeping 57. rained 58. cheaply 59. hearts 60. wnder
(评分要求：所填单词只要符合题意，语法正确，拼写无误，都可得分；否则不得分；大小写错误每个扣1分。)
(二)综合填空(共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分)
61. Of 62. mved 63. animals 64. lives 65. healthier
66. yunger 67. because 68. tp 69. visitrs 70. think
(评分要求：所填词语只要符合题意，语法正确，拼写无误，都可得分；否则不得分。大小写错误每个扣1分。)第二节 阅读表达((共6小题；71~73 小题每题2分，74-76小题每题3分，满分15分))
71. It's in the newest part f the twn.
(评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案相符或相近，语言准确。)
72. It has the best clthes./ The best clthes.
(评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案相符或相近，语言准确。)
73. Twice a week.
(评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案相符或相近，语言准确。)
74.①t ②has ③because
(评分要求：答案要与参考答案相符或相近，且保持与上下文的连贯性。)
75.你还可以在那里吃到美味的面条，牛肉面是最美味的/可口的！
(评分要求：忠于原句，语句通顺，无语言错误。)
76. She ften ges t the mvies with her friends n weekends./ She ften ges t the mvies./ She ften ges t Shwtime Cinema with her friends.
(评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案相符或相近，语言准确。)
第三节：写作(共1题，满分25 分)答案(略)
1.评分原则
(1)本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
(2)评分时，先根据学生写作的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(3)评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(4).拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
(5)如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
2.各档次的赋分区间和要求
第一档(21—25分)很好地完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或基本没有语言错误；书写工整；字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(16—20分) 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富，但能满足任务的要求；句子较通顺、表达较清楚；有少量语言错误；书写工整；字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(11——15 分)基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉部分内容，但基本体现写作要点；应用的语言结构单一；句子不够通顺，行文不够连贯；语言错误较多；书写不够规范，字数不足。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(6——10分)未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第五档(0—5分)未完成试题规定的任务。
未理解试题要求，明显遗漏大部分要点，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数严重不足。信息未能传达给读者。题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
答案
C
A
B
A
C
C
B
C
B
A
B
A
C
A
C
B
C
B
A
C
题号
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35










答案
C
A
C
B
C
A
C
B
B
A










题号
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
答案
A
C
D
D
C
A
B
B
C
A
D
A
C
B
D
E
A
C
D
B