2023-2024学年安徽省宿州市泗县七年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年安徽省宿州市泗县七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共9页。

(考试时间: 100分钟 满分 120 分)
注意事项：
1. 答题前填写好自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息
2. 请将答案正确填写在答题卡上
第一部分 听力部分(共四大题，满分 20分)
I.短对话理解(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A. B. C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项，每段对话读两遍。
1. What des Jhn like best(最喜欢)?
3. What clr is Frank's cat?
A. White. B. Blue. C. Black.
4. Wh is Gina?
A. The girl in a red skirt. B. The girl in a blue sweater. C. The girl in a red jacket.
5. Hw much is Bill's sweater?
A.$12. B.$20. C.$22.
Ⅱ长对话理解(共5 小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后几个小题。请在每小题所给的 A. B. C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答6-7 小题。
6. When is Frank’s P. E. class?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
7. What sprt des Frank like?
A. Vlleyball. B. Baseball. C. Basketball.
听下面一段对话，回答8-10 小题。
8. Where is Linda nw?
A. In the schl. B. In a shp. C. At hme.
9. What des Linda's uncle like ding?
A. Ding sprts. B. Wrking. C. Traveling.
10. What present may Linda buy fr her uncle?
A. A hat. B. Scks. C. A ftball.
Ⅲ、短文理解
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的 A. B. C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What clr is the bag?
A. Blue. B. Green. C. White.
12. What's in the bag?
A. A green jacket and a blue watch.
B. A blue jacket and a purple watch.
C. A purple jacket and a blue watch.
13. What is Ruby's telephne number?
A. It's 678-5770. B. It's 678-5771. C. It's 678-5772.
14. Where are Carla and Ruby nw?
A. In Classrm 5E. B. In the schl library. C. In the cmputer rm.
15. What is Carla talking abut?
A. Her picture. B. A lst bag. C. Her bag.
Ⅳ、信息转换
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题，满分30分)
V、单项选择(共 10小题, 每小题1分, 满分 10分)
从每小题所给的A. B. C. D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21 Can yu see there is apple n the table?
Yes apple is fr yu
A. a; The B. the;The C. an;An D. an;The
22.—Lily always reads(读书) fr an hur befre bedtime every day.
That's a gd Reading makes us knw everything
A. fd B. price C. habit D. time
23 We have classes this mrning and the class is English
A. three; three B. third;third C. three; third D. third; three
24 I'm n Friday S I can g t the cncert(演唱会) with yu
—That's great!
A. bring B. healthy C. free D. busy
25 D yu every week?
—Sure. Every Sunday afternn, I play tennis fr an hur with my friend.
A. watch TV B. d sprts C. have P. E. D. eat fruit
26 The new jacket is really nice n yu! Yu very cl in it
—Thanks! I get it frm my aunt n my birthday.
A. lk B. see C. find D. watch
27 Des yur mther ck(烹饪) yu Mnday?
A. fr; in B. fr; n C. with;n D. t; at
28 Timmy has eating habits
Yeah! And he eats
A. gd; gd B. gd; well C. well; well D. well; gd
29 Helen, are these bks ?
Yes, are My names are n them
A. yurs; they B. yurs;these C. hers;they D. hers; these
30.—Let's g t see the film(电影)“The Battle at Lake Changjin”.
I like it
A. Have a gd day! B. Yu're welcme! C. That's fr sure! D. Sunds gd!
Ⅵ完形填空(共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文。从每小题所给的 A. B. C. D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Dear David,
Hw are yu? I'm happy t get yur 31 In it, yu say yu have a gd time at yur new schl Nw I'd like t tell yu abut 32 schl days I'm very bus y frm Mnday t Friday I usually(通常) get t schl at 7:50 Every day I 33 six lessns In the mrning, I have fur lessns and in the afternn I have 34 lessn(s) They are P E and art At schl, my favrite subject is Chinese 35 d I like it? Because it's 36 Our Chinese teacher Miss Li is great fun But my favrite teacher is the 37 teacher, Mr Zhang His lessns are very fun 38 I can play sccer in P E classes I dn't 39 math I think it's really difficult My favrite day is 40 On that day I have tw Chinese classes And I can have tw free days after that day.
Yur friend,
Wang Fei
31. A. fd B. e-mail C. bk D. cmputer
32. A. my B. yur C. his D. their
33. A. sell B. find C. have D. thank
34. A. ne B. tw C. three D. fur
35. A. Where B. Hw C. What D. Why
36. A. bring B. healthy C. interesting D. difficult
37. A. P. E. B. music C. science D. gegraphy
38. A. s B. but C. r D. and
39. A. like B. need C. want D. knw
40. A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
B
Saturday is Library Day fr Tina's family. On this day, Mm always takes Tina t the library in the mrning First, Tina 41 her favrite bk Next, she sits(坐) n her favrite yellw 42 t read(阅读) a bk.
Nw Tina is in the 43 with her favrite bks She wants t sit n the yellw chair, 44 a girl is n it nw “Yu can sit n the chair next t it,”Mm says t Tina Tina isn't 45 because that's a blue chair “I must sit n the yellw chair n Library Day I 46 lve it,”Tina says t Mm
“I knw yu like the yellw chair,”Mm says “But it's nt 47 ”
Then Tina 48 the blue chair and sits n it t read bks The bks are s 49 that Tina reads them there all the mrning When it's 11:50 am, Tina says t Mm,“Nw I 50 Library Day is abut reading gd bks, nt abut the chair. I like Library Day!”
41. A. finds B. thanks C. finishes D. buys
42. A. sfa B. desk C. bed D. chair
43. A. classrm B. library C. stre D. rm
44. A. but B. after C. s D. and
45. A. nice B. fine C. happy D. fun
46. A. then B. really C. very D. sure
47. A. hers B. mine C. yurs D. his
48. A. ges t B. cmes n C. plays with D. lks at
49. A. cheap B. bring C. interesting D. busy
50. A. want B. knw C. need D. lve
Ⅶ、补全对话(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hey, Paul. I fund a ntebk in the library. Is it yurs?
B: 51 Oh, lk! A name is n it
A: Really? Let me see Alice Green I dn't knw her 52
B: She is my classmate.
A: Great! Where is she nw?
B: 53 I think yu can take it t Mr Li
A: Mr. Li? Our music teacher? Why?
B: 54
A:Oh,I see. Where is he nw?
B: He has a class at 4:00 pm in Classrm 201 55
A:OK. Thank yu.
B:Yu're welcme.
A. Hw abut yu?
B. She desn't cme t schl tday.
C. N, mine is in my schlbag.
D. Yes, it's mine.
E. I think yu can find him there.
F. Because he's Alice's big brther.
G. What's her brther's name?
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题, 每小题2分, 满分 40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A. B. C. D 四个选项中选出一个最佳选项.
A
56. Where is the dining hall?
A. In a htel. B. On a farm. C. In a schl. D. In a hspital.
57. When can yu eat at the dining hall?
A. At9:00. B. At 12:30. C. At 16:00. D. At 19:30.
58. Tm has lunch and dinner at the dining hall. Hw much des he pay?
A. 15 yuan. B.20 yuan. C.25 yuan. D.30 yuan.
59. What can we learn frm the text(文本)?
A. It is the menu fr Mnday. B. Yu can eat ndles fr lunch.
C. The dining hall pens n Sundays. D. Students can pay with schl cards.
B
Mike is the nly sn in his family. His parents have a big sprts stre, s Mike always has many balls t play. Nw he has three baseballs, fur basketballs, five ping-png balls and bats and six tennis balls in his rm.Mike is a gd by and he likes t help his parents in the stre.
It's 2:30 nw. A man cmes in with his friend. Mike says,“Gd afternn!What can I d fr yu?”
“Gd afternn! I need a sccer ball fr my sn. He likes playing sccer very much.”“Hw abut this white ne? We have blue, yellw and red nes, t”“It lks great. I need a yellw ne. Hw much is it?”“It's nly twenty dllars.”“OK. I’ll take it.”
“Great!Here yu are. And here is a small gift(礼物) fr yu.”“Oh, a pair f sprts shes! Thanks. Bye.”
Then Mike's father is very happy.“Yu are a great helper,”he says.
60 Mike has six in his rm
61. What clr sccer ball des the man want?
A. Yellw. B. Blue. C. White. D. Red.
62. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. This is a small clthes stre.
B. The man needs t pay twelve dllars.
C. Mike is nice and he des well in the stre.
D. Mike's parents are nt in the stre this afternn.
C
Hi, my name is Lucy and I am three. I like bks, but I can't read. I want my parents t read t me, but they always say,“Dear, I have things t d nw. G t play with yur brther.”I am nt happy t hear(听) this.My brther is seven years ld and he likes playing cmputer games. I think it's bring.
But nw I am happy. That's because Zaria and Hailey can read t me. Zaria is furteen years ld and Hailey is nine years ld. They are sisters and they think reading is fun and useful. Every Sunday, they g t the library t chse sme gd bks Then, frm Mnday t Friday, they read t bys and girls like me n Facbk Live(脸书直播) at 8:30 pm. Hw nice Zaria and Hailey are!
63 Lucy's parents dn't read t her because
A. they can't read B. they are t busy
C. they think it's bring D. they dn't have gd bks
64. Wh is seven years ld?
A. Lucy. B. Lucy's brther. C. Zaria. D. Zaria's sister.
65 Zaria and Hailey read n Facebk Live day(s) a week
A. ne B. three C. five D. seven
66 The underlined wrd“chse”means((意思是)“ ”in Chinese
A. 挑选 B. 翻译 C. 编辑 D. 印刷
D
Hell! I'm Jenny Green. I'm a student in N.3 Middle Schl in Sichuan. I'm in Class One, Grade Seven.Betty is my English teacher.
She is 35 years ld. She is a gd teacher. She is nice t all f us at schl. We all like her very much.
Betty's husband is Steven Brwn. They have a sn, Jack, and tw daughters, Mna and Winnie. Mna is their first daughter. Steven is a teacher, t. But he is nt in my schl. He is fur years lder than(比) Betty.Jack and I are classmates. He likes t play basketball. He has five basketballs. But he lst ne in Classrm 7E.If yu find it, please call Jack at 188-73765539. Mna is N.5 Middle Schl. She likes t play vlleyball. She has fur vlleyballs. They are frm her gd friend, Eric. Winnie is in my schl, t. She is a nice girl. She always helps her friends.
67 Jack is in
A. Class Tw, Grade Seven B. Class One, Grade Eight
C. Class Tw, Grade Eight D. Class ne, Grade Seven
68. Which f the fllwing is Right?
A. Jack has fur basketballs nw. B. Jenny and Eric are gd friends.
C. Steven Brwn is 35 years ld. D. Jenny and Winnie aren't in the same schl.
69. What's the passage mainly abut?
A. Jenny’s family. B. Jenny's classmates.
C. Betty's family. D. Betty's students.
E
Nw many students knw sprts are gd fr their health. But they dn't like playing sprts. Sme f them nly watch them n TV. What's mre(此外), many f them nly like watching TV and playing cmputer games. They always say,“Play sccer? Oh, it sunds bring.”
And many bys and girls dn't like vegetables. They dn't have carrts fr lunch and they dn't have tmates fr dinner. But vegetables and fruit are healthy fd. They need t eat lts f them every day, but they like junk fd They like eating ice cream and hamburgers
S if yu want t be healthy, eat vegetables and play sprts every day!
70 Many f students dn't like
A. watching TV B. playing cmputer games
C. hamburgers D. sprts
71 The underlined phrase(下划线词组)“junk fd”means(意思是) in Chinese
A. 健康食品 B. 垃圾食品 C. 油炸食品 D. 腌制食品
72. If yu want t be healthy, what shuld yu d?
A. Watch mre TV. B. Eat mre junk fd.
C. Dn't play sprts. D. Eat mre vegetables.
F
任务型阅读
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)
Ben lves dgs. In his hme, he has a white dg. Its name is Jerry. Jerry lves banana hamburgers. On Thursday, Ben can't find banana hamburgers at hme. He cmes t Paul's stre.“Hey, Paul!D yu have banana hamburgers fr sale?”
Paul says,“N. But yu can get sme n Saturday. Oh, tday I nly have apple hamburgers.”
Ben gets ne apple hamburger fr ne dllar and ges hme. But Jerry desn't eat it.
On Friday, Ben cmes t Paul's stre t buy banana hamburgers. Paul says,“Yu can get sme n Saturday.”Ben gets a strawberry hamburger fr tw dllars and ges hme. His dg desn't eat it. Oh, Jerry desn't eat fd fr tw days, Ben is nt happy. He desn't say anything all day. He nly says t Jerry,“Saturday, Saturday,Saturday…”
73. What des Jerry like? (不超过 5 个词)

74. Hw much is a strawberry hamburger?(不超过5个词)

75. Why is Ben nt happy?(不超过 10 个词)

第四部分 写(共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
IX.单词拼写
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语音通顺。
76 The by has fun playing with his new m (模型) car
77 Tday is Anna's n (第九) birthday and her parents have a big party fr her
78 Cindy's birthday party s (听起来) cl and nice
79 Music is r (轻松的) fr me I like it s much
80 We have s many lessns this t (学期)
X、书面表达
81. 假如你是李华，正在参加一个冬令营。请你在大家面前做个自我介绍，内容必须包含下面表格内的各项信息，可适当发挥； 要求不少于70词。
IX、单词拼写。 (每小题1分, 共5分)
76 77 78 79 80
X、书面表达。(共20分)
假如你是李华，正在参加一个冬令营。请你在大家面前做个自我介绍，内容必须包含下面表格内的各项信息，可适当发挥； 要求不少于70词。
Name
Age
Birthday
Favrite Subject
Likes
Gina
13
___16____4th
P. E.
___17_ and hamburgers
Sarah
_
18
May 1st
___19___
Tennis and ___20___
Welcme t the schl dining hall! Wed.
Tday's menu(菜单)
Breakfast(5 yuan):
Bread; milk; an egg

Lunch(15 yuan):
Rice; chicken; carrts;ptates; sup
Dinner(10 yuan):
Beef ndles;beans
Opening hurs (frm Mn. t Fri.):
7:30-8:30;12:00-13:00;18:00-19:00
Hw t pay(支付):
Schl card(卡).
Healthy fd, healthy schl!
姓名
李华
年龄
12
生日
8 月 5日
家庭成员
父母、姐姐和我；
生活喜好
喜欢健康食物和运动；
学习情况
最喜欢的学科是语文， 最喜欢的老师是英语老师。
姓名
李华
年龄
12
生日
8月 5 日
家庭成员
父母、姐姐和我；
生活喜好
喜欢健康食物和运动；
学习情况
最喜欢的学科是语文， 最喜欢的老师是英语老师。
2023-2024 学年度第一学期
七年级期英语末质量检测参考答案
I-IV. 听力(每小题1分, 共 20 小题, 满分 20分)
1-5. ACBCB 6-10. BBBAC 11-15. CBCAB
16. March 17. sccer 18.12 19. art 20. ranges
V.单项选择(每小题1分, 共 10 小题, 满分 10分)
21-25. DCCCB 26-30. ABBAD
VI.完形填空(每小题1 分, 共 20 小题, 满分 20 分)
31-35. BACBD 36-40. CADAC
41-45. ADBAC 46-50. BCACB
VII.补全对话(每小题1分, 共20 小题, 满分 20 分)
51-55. CABFE
VII.阅读理解(每小题2分, 共 20 小题, 满分 40分)
56. C 57. B 58. C 59. D
60. C 61. A 62. C
63. B 64. B 65. C 66. A
67. D 68. A 69. C
70. D 71. B 72. D
73. Jerry likes banana hamburgers./Banana hamburgers.
74. Tw dllars./ It's tw dllars.
75. Because his dg desn't eat fd fr tw days.
IX.单词拼写 (每小题 1分, 共5 小题, 满分5分)
76-80. mdel ninth sunds relaxing term
X.书面表达。 (20分)
略。