2023-2024学年山东省德州市宁津县七年级(上)期末英语试卷
展开1、本试题共 150分。考试时间为 120分钟。
2、答卷前务必将姓名、班级写在答题纸上。所有试题的答案都写在答题纸上,考试结束,试题和答题纸一并收回。
一、听力部分(共25小题,计30分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
1. 录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。 (5分)
( )1. A. Yes, f curse. B. Yes, I'd like t. C. That's great.
( )2. A. It's big and nice. B. It's behind the library. C. There are sme students in it.
( )3. A. Yes, it is. B. Yes, this is. C. She is my sister.
( )4. A. They're in the study. B. They're cking in the kitchen. C. They like playing sprts.
( )5. A. We always have a gd time. B. I like eating dumplings. C. We ften have a party.
11.录音中有三个句子,每个句子对应一幅图片,每个句子听两遍,然后选择与句子内容相对应的图片。 (3分)
6. 7. 8.
111.录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。 (5分)
( )9. What time des the N.2 bus usually cme?
A. At 6:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 7:00.
( )10. What festival is the by celebrating?
A. The New Year. B. Christmas. C. Spring Festival.
( )11. What des the girl want t eat?
A. Sme chicken. B. Sme vegetables. C. Sme bananas.
( )12. Where's the library?
A. It's next t the science building.
B. It's behind the teaching building.
C. It's n the right f the teaching building.
( )13. What des the wman usually d n her cmputer?
A. She usually plays cmputer games.
B. She usually listens t music.
C. She usually sends email.
IV. 录音中有一段长对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(4分)
( )14. What day is it tday?
A. Friday. B. Thursday. C. Wednesday.
( )15. When is Lingling's Chinese lessn?
A. At 8:30 am. B. At 10:00 am. C. At 2:00 pm.
( )16. What's Lingling's favurite subject?
A. Histry. B. Chinese. C. Maths.
( )17. What des the by think f maths?
A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Difficult but interesting.
V. 录音中有3小段独白,听独白两遍后,根据独白内容,将信息配对。 (3分).
( )18. Nancy A. has three English bks and a ftball
( )19. Lucy B. lives in Beijing and likes reading and playing basketball
( )20. Peter C. likes chicken, cla and ndles
Ⅵ.听力填表。(10分) 听短文,完成下面的表格。短文读两遍。
二、阅读理解(共20小题, 计 50分)
阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题的最佳答案。
A
Cme and see the Indian elephants and the new tigers frm America:The bears are
waiting t meet yu, and the mnkeys frm China are waiting t thrw things at yu. The
lvely kangars frm Australia are waiting t laugh at yu, and the giraffes frm Zambia are waiting t lk dwn at yu.
26. Hw many kinds f animals are talked abut in the passage?
A. Fur. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven.
27. Mrs. Liu is in the z with her tw sns. One is 14 years ld and the ther is 10
years ld. Hw much are the tickets tgether?
A. ¥20.00. B. ¥30.00. C. ¥40.00. D. ¥50.00.
28. Which f the fllwing is the visiting time?
A. 8:30 am n Mnday. B. 9:30 am n Sunday.
C. 3:00 pm n Friday. D. 5:00 pm n Tuesday.
29. Where are the elephants and the tigers frm?
A. India and America. B. America and England.
C. Australia and America. D. Australia and India.
30. Which f the fllwing can we d in the z?
A. Give sme fd the bears. B. Tuch the mnkey n the head.
C. Thrw things everywhere. D. Take a few nice phts.
B
With the develpment f Internet, there are different kinds f use fr different
peple. Here is a survey.
Henry:I find the Internet is very gd fr shpping. I use it fr buying bks,CDs
and even clthes. It is really gd.
David:I use the Internet fr games. I play chess with peple all ver the wrld. I
als dwnlad games frm the Internet, s I can have any games I want.
Peter:I use the Internet t help me with my schl wrk. I use the nline(在线的)
dictinaries and bks It is great because I can dwnlad pictures and use them
with my hmewrk. It is very easy t use and it is free, s I like it.
Tny:Well, I use the Internet t e-mail. I usually write t my custmers(客户) by
e-mail, and my custmers answer me by e-mail, t. But f curse, I als send e-mails t my friends and family. My daughter is in Australia and we talk with each ther every day.
31. Wh likes t use the Internet t buy things?
A. Henry. B. Peter. C. Tny. D. David.
32 What can David d with the Internet EXCEPT (除了) ?
A. buying bks B. playing games C. playing chess D. dwnlading games
33. What des the underlined wrd“them”refer t?
A. Dictinaries. B. Bks. C. Pictures. D. Hmewrk.
34. What can we get frm the passage?
A. Peter is a teacher. B. Tny is a businessman.
C. David is a dctr. D. Henry is a pliceman.
35. What is the structure f the passage?
A. ①/②③④⑤ B.①②③④/⑤ C. ①/②③④/⑤ D. ①②③/④⑤
C
Jack is 12 years ld. He is a student. He likes hamburgers and chclate. He desn't want t eat vegetables and fruit. He is fat(胖的). His mther ften says t him,“Jack, yu are t heavy.It's nt healthy(健康的).”But Jack says,“I'm fine, Mm. I want t eat my favrite hamburgers and chclate every day.”
Tday is Sunday. Jack gets up at a quarter t seven ’clck in the mrning. Then he has breakfast at hme. He has a piece f bread and a hamburger fr breakfast.
Then Jack ges shpping with his mther. He wants t buy new clthes, but he is
nt happy in the shp. Why? He finds a nice T shirt It's a big size T shirt But it's t small fr him It desn't fit him When he gets hme, Jack says t his
parents,“I dn't want t be fat! And I want t be healthy.”His father asks him t d sprts. His mther asks him t eat health y fd. Jack nds(点头).
36 we can infer(推测) that Jack usually eats f r meals
37. What time des Jack get up this Sunday?
A. At 7:15. B. At 7:45. C. At6:45. D. At 6:15.
38. Why isn't Jack happy?
A. Because(因为) his mther desn't buy the T-shirt fr him.
B. Because the T-shirt is t small fr him.
C. Because T-shirt is t ld.
D. Because the T-shirt is t big.
39. What des the underlined wrd(划线单词)“fit”mean in Chinese?
A. 适合 B. 装进 C. 试穿 D. 符合
40 Frm Jack's parents'wrds(话), we shuld (应当) t be healthy
①d sprts ②eat health y fd ③gt up early ④have breakfast
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ①③ D. ③④
D
This is a mving stry Ann and her mther live in a small huse They dn't have much mney but they lve each ther.
第 2 页 / 共 4 页
Next Sunday is Ann's birthday. She has ne wish——t get a new skirt. But she desn't tell her mther. She knws it is difficult fr her mther t buy a new sk irt fr her. At schl, Ann's friends ften talk abut their birthday presents. Gina says her mther gives her a pair f beautiful shes n her
birthday. Mike says his parents buy him a watch n his birthday.
Ann desn't say anything. She always studies hard at schl. These days,
her mther is wrking fr lng hurs. She lks very tired. Ann is wrried abut her mther.
On Sunday mrning, Ann gets up at six. She finds her mther isn't at hme. She has gne t wrk. When she wants t have breakfast, Ann finds a nte and a beautiful red skirt n the table. It says,“Happy Birthday! My dear daughter! Yu are a gd girl. This is yur gift. Mum.”Ann can't say anything but
crying. She is lucky t have such a gd mther.
41 gets shes as a gift n the birthday
A. Gina B. Ann C. Mike D. Ann's mther
42 Ann's mther wrks fr lng time because
A. She has anther part-time jb B. she wants t give Ann a party
C. She likes her jb a lt D. she wants t get mre mney
43 Ann's mther may g t wrk n Sunday mrning
A. At 5:30 B. at 6:00 C. at 6:30 D. at 7:00
The Chinese meaning f the underlined wrd“mving”is“ ”in this
Passage.
A. 悲伤的 B. 移动的 C. 感人的 D. 高兴的
45 Frm the passage we knw that .
A. Ann asks her mther t buy her a skirt
B. Ann is her mther's gd daughter
C. Ann desn't want t have sme birthday gifts
D. Ann's mther can get a lt f mney
三、短文还原(共10分,每题2分)
阅读短文,从短文下面的六个句子中选择五个还原到短文中,使短文通顺完整、衔接自然。
The winter vacatin is cming. We knw that the vacatin is a great time t learn r d smething new 46 Here are sme ideas fr yu t plan an
interesting winter vacatin
D smething fr the next term
The winter vacatin can be a great time t d smething fr the next schl term. Give yurself sme time t think abut what yu're ging t d 47
Helping thers
The winter vacatin gives yu time t d smething fr them That
is imprtant t yu.
Smething else
49 Write a bk? Paint a picture? Get a jb? Travel t an interesting place? What wuld yu like t d during the winter vacatin? 50 Then
start a great winter vacatin
A. Think abut smething else yu want t d.
B. Are yu thinking abut helping thers?
C. Hw d yu spend yur wnderful winter vacatin?
D. Yu'd better make a nice plan and try t d it.
E. Nw it's time t talk t yur parents r thers abut it.
F. Yu can stay at hme t d yur hmewrk all day.
四、选词填空。(本大题有20小题,每小题1.5分,共30分)
A
阅读短文,从每个方框中的11个词汇中选择10个意义相符的词汇,必要时进行词形变化,填入空白处。
back English red clck picture teacher with tw it thing ur
Hell! My name is Alan. I'm in Class 1, Grade 7. This is ur classrm. There are
desks and chairs in it Yu can see a 51 n the wall And yu can see sme f 52 phts n the wall, t We can knw ur classmates well frm these 53 In the frnt f the classrm is a 54 desk Yu can see a bx n it
and sme chalk in it Next t the desk is a green plant Our classrm is nice and I like it Lk! That's my desk in the 55 rw Can yu see a green pen n it? It's my friend, Tny's Mine is 56 Where's my schlbag? It's n the chair
Five bks, three ntebks, an 57 dictinary, a pencil bx and a set f
keys are in my schlbag. Lk at my pencil bx. It's yellw and blue. In the
pencil bx, there are sme f my schl 58 They are sme pencils, a pen, an eraser, a ruler I like them very much
I like playing baseball 59 my friends Where's my baseball? Oh,I lst my
baseball this mrning Can yu help me? If yu find 60 , please call me at 528 7596 Thanks a lt
B
阅读下面的短文,根据短文内容,从下面方框内所给11个动词中选择10个意义相符的词,必要时进行词形变化(可添加助动词或者情态动词) ,填入空白处。
lie watch help share read play have get use g be
Bill is thirty years ld He is a teacher He wrks hard He 61 t wrk
frm Mnday t Friday every week Usually he 62 up at six in the mrning
After breakfast, he takes a bus t wrk. He is a PE teacher, s he ften plays ping-png and vlleyball with his students. He is als gd at 63 basketball Lk! He 64 n the playgrund after a match He is very tired There 65
fur classes every day Tw are in the mrning and tw are in the afternn. He
likes his students and his students like him t. He ften plays sprts, s he is
very healthy He can 66 his ideas with them after class He wants 67 mre students t keep healthy He usually 68 dinner at hme and then he 69 TV fr tw hurs At the weekend, he ften ges t the library He enjys 70 He thinks it is interesting
五、阅读表达(共10小题,计10分)
阅读短文,根据题目要求完成各小题。
Last mnth we asked ur students abut their free time activities. Our questins were abut exercise, use f the later net and watching TV. Here are the results.
We fund that nly fifteen percent f ur students exercise every day. Frty-five
percent exercise fur t six times a week. Twenty percent exercise nly ne t three
times a week. And twenty percent d nt exercise at all!
We all knw that many students ften g nline, but we were surprised that ninety
percent f them use the Internet every day. The ther ten percent use it at least
three r
fur times a week.Mst students use it fr fun and nt fr hmewrk.
(4) The answers t ur questins abut watching televisin were als interesting
Only tw percent f the students watch TV ne t three times a week. Thirteen percent watch TV fur t six times a week And eighty five percent watch TV every day!(3) ① many
students like t watch sprts, game shws are the mst ppular.
It is gd t relax by using the Internet r watching game shws, but we think the best way t relax is thrugh exercise It is healthy(3)②the mind and the bdy Exercise
such as playing sprts is fun, and yu can spend time with yur friends and family
as yu play tgether.Remember,“ld habits die hard”. S start exercising befre it's t late!
71. Hw many students exercise every day?(N mre than 10 wrds)
72. What des the authr think is the best way t relax?(N mre than 2 wrds)
73. Fill in each blank with a prper wrd.
74. Translate the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4 int Chinese.
75. What the main idea(主旨大意) f the passage?
六、书面表达
(一) 请将图片和对应节日习俗连线。 (每个0.5分,计5分)
(二) 根据要求写短文(共1题,15分)
假如你是大明,你的英国笔友Tm来信说他非常想了解中国传统节日,请你根据(一)中信息,给他写一封回信,介绍一个你最喜欢的中国传统节日。
2 -
要求:1.条理清晰,行文连贯,段落分明,书写规范。
2.文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。
3.词数: 不少60词。
4.标题已经给出,不计入词数。
Dear Tm,
Hw is it ging? Nw let me tell smething abut my favurite Chinese festival.
Culd yu tell me yur favurite festival?
Yurs,
Da Ming
Grandfather' s Living Habits(生活习惯)
Age(年龄)
60 years ld
Eating habits
·He has cereal (五谷类) and milk fr breakfast.
·He has rice and 21. fr lunch and supper.
Exercise
He des sprts fr abut 22. minutes every mrning.
He always 23. andruns in the afternn.
Smetimes he ges t 24. with Mike.
It's imprtant fr us t remember:eat well and stay 25. .
Tickets
Opening time
Adults(成人):¥20.00
Children:Over 12:¥10.00
Under 12:Free
Mnday—Saturday;
9:00 am—4:00 pm
Sunday: 10:00 am—3:00 pm
Keep the z clean!
D nt tuch, g near r give fd t the animals.
2023-2024学年第一学期末七年级教学质量检测
英语试题参考答案和评分标准
一、听力测试(共25小题,1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分,总计30分)
1-5. CBABC 6-8. BAC 9-13. CBABC 14-17. ABAA 18-20. CAB
21.vegetables 22.thirty/30 23.swims 24.cncerts 25.healthy
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2.5分,计50分)
26-30. CBCAD 31-35. AACBA 36-40. ACBAA 41-45. ADACB
评分说明:
1、1-20小题,每小题1分;21-25小题,每小题2分;与答案不符不得分。
2、26-45题,每小题2.5分;与答案不符,不得分。
三、短文还原(共5空,每小题2分,计10分)
46-50. CDBAE
评分说明
1. 本题共5分,每空2分;
2. 与答案不符,不得分。
四、综合填空(共20空,每空1.5分,计30分)
51.clck 52.ur 53.pictures 54. teachers’ 55.secnd/back 56.red 57.English 58.things 59.with 60. it
ges 62. gets 63. playing 64. is lying 65. are 66. share
67. t help 68. has 69. watches 70. reading
评分说明
1、本题共10分,每空1.5分;
2、与所给答案不符,只要语法、意义、拼写(含大小写)正确,也可酌情给分。
五、阅读表达 (共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
71. Only fifteen percent f students exercise every day.
72. Thrugh exercise.
73. Althugh/Thugh;fr。
74. 我们有关看电视问题的答案也很有趣。
75. Students’ activities in their free time.
评分说明
1. 本题共10分,每小题2分;
2. 虽与答案表达方式不同,但与所给参考答案意思一致,无语言错误,也可酌情给分。
六、书面表达
eat yuanxia
enjy the mn
climb muntains
have dragn bat races
eat mncakes
guess lantern riddles
eat zngzi
wear crnel(插茱萸)
eat duble ninth cakes
watch lanterns
hang wrmwd(挂艾草)
tell the stry f Chang’e
(一)请将图片和对应节日习俗连线。(每个0.5分,计5分)
(二)根据要求写短文(共1题,15分)
假如你是大明,你的英国笔友Tm来信说他非常想了解中国传统节日,请你根据(一)中信息,给他写一封回信,介绍一个你最喜欢的中国传统节日。
Dear Tm,
Hw is it ging? Nw let me tell smething abut my favurite Chinese festival. I like Mid-autumn Festival best. On that day, all the families cme back hme and we have a big family dinner. After dinner, we usually eat mn cakes arund a table and enjy the bright full mn. Our parents usually tell us the stry f Chang’e.
Culd yu tell me yur favurite festival?
Yurs,
Da Ming
评分说明
要求考生用适当的时态、语态、句式和词语,完整准确地表达所提示的内容,并对开放性内容进行适当发挥,书写工整,分五档评分:
1.(18~20分)很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有的内容要点,结构完整,语句通畅,意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,语法和词汇错误极少,书写规范。
2.(14~17分)较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有的内容要点,结构较为完整,语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少,书写较为规范。
3.(10~13分)基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点,结构欠完整,少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,书写基本规范。
4.(6~9分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点,结构不完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,影响理解,书写欠规范。
5.(0~5分)未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点,结构不完整,多数语句不完整或者意思不明,语法和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
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