福建省泉州市惠安县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试卷

这是一份福建省泉州市惠安县2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试卷，共13页。试卷主要包含了5分, 满分30分)等内容，欢迎下载使用。

(考试时间 120 分钟 ; 试卷满分 150 分 )
学校 姓名 考生座位号
Ⅰ.听力 (共三节, 20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分)
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
6. What's in the by's hand?
A. A pen. B. A ty. C. An eraser.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
7. Wh is in a blue shirt?
A. Paul. B. Paul's brther. C. Paul's cusin.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
8. Wh buys the jacket fr Tny?
A. His mther. B. His father. C. His sister.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
9. Where are the man and the wman?
A. In a hspital. B. In a restaurant. C. In a clthes shp.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。
10. What des Sam's uncle d?
A. He is a farmer. B. He is a wrker. C. He is a ck.
11. What des Sam's uncle lk like?
A. He is tall. B. His face is lng. C. He has shrt arms.
听第6段对话, 回答第 12、13 小题。
12. Wh answers(接) the telephne?
A. Bill. B. Helen. C. Helen's sister.
13. What des Bill want t d?
A. G shpping. B. G t schl. C. G fr a picnic.
听第7段对话, 回答第 14、15 小题。
14. What des the man want t eat?
A. Sme rice and chicken. B. Sme rice and vegetables. C. Sme rice and fish.
15. Hw much des the man pay(付款)?
A. Thirty. B. Frty. C. Fifty.
第三节 听短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。(短文读三遍)
Ⅱ. 选择填空(共15 小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21. 仔细观察下列选项，哪个才是 grade的音标?
A.[greɪd] B.[griːd] C.[graɪd]
22.下列各组字母中全部是元音字母的是 。
A. a,e,,r B. a,i,u,e C. ,u,e,n
23.— is ur schl, d yu knw?
—It's 80 years ld.
A. Hw much B. Hw many C. Hw ld
24. Mr. Liu has n hair, s he's always in a .
A. cat B. cap C. shirt
25.—Culd yu help me, Jhn? The desk is t .
—Sure.
A. heavy B. small C. gd
26.—Is that yur mther, Paul?
—N, she is my , my mther's sister.
A. cusin B. grandparent C. aunt
27.—Ww, these skirts are very nice. May I the yellw ne?
—Sure.
A. lk like B. try n C. call back
28.—Aunt Zhang, may I use yur pen?
--Srry, is brken(坏).
A. mine B. his C. my
29.—Micheal, ww, yu are here.
—Er,I live in Shanghai my gd friend nw.
A. fr B. with C. t
30. Shen Teng is a gd actr. He very well in Mn Man.
A. acts B. shws C. tries
31.—Is this yur favrite ?
—Yes, I like“A”best. I want t get an“A”in the English exam(考试).
A. number B. clr C. letter
32.—We dn't have rice. Let's g t buy sme.
—Gd idea.
A. any B. sme C. many
33.—What wuld yu like t with yu?
——Sme hamburgers.
A. take B. help C. wrk
34.—Hw abut ging shpping with me?
—Gd idea. I am nw.
A. clever B. kind C. free
35. Welcme t my hme, kids. Help t sme fish, please.
A. yurself B. yurselves C. yurs
Ⅲ. 完形填空 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
I am a lin. My name is Linlin. I have a big head and a big 36 . I have tw little ears and 37 lng legs. I live in the z nw, 38 I dn`t like it.My favrite clr is 39 . I like green 40 and green grass(草). I want t live in the frest(森林). My favrite 41 is meat. I like t 42 small animals. I dn't like the meat in the z, it 43 delicius(美味的). I want t g 44 . I feel lnely(孤独). I want t g back t my 45 in the frest.
36. A. arm B. muth C. hair
37. A. tw B. three C. fur
38. A. and B. but C. s
39. A. yellw B. white C. green
40. A. trees B. apples C. ranges
41. A. drink B. fd C. animal
42. A. guess B. carry C. eat
43. A. is B. isn't C. aren't
44. A. in B. ut C. at
45. A. friends B. girls C. teachers
IV. 阅读理解(共两节, 25小题; 满分 45分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。 (共20小题； 每小题2分， 满分40 分)
A
Welcme THappyHme!
★ Breakfast: ★ Drinks:
Bread & egg $2.00 Ht tea $2.00
Fruit salad (沙拉) $3.00 Cke $2.00
★ Lunch&Dinner: ★ Desserts(甜点): Lunchtime
Rice & bean $ 9.00 Apple pie $2.00
Rice. carrt & meat $ 13.00 Ice cream $2.50
Tmat sup & dumpling $ 18.00 Cake $3.00
Rice:ptat & beef(牛肉) $ 15.00
★Opening(营业):Every day
Breakfast:7:30-9:00 a. m.
Lunch&Dinner: 11:30 a. m.-9:00 p. m.
46. Frm the text(文章), we can knw that Happy Hme is a
A. farm B. schl C. hspital D. restaurant
47. Yu can have breakfast in Happy Hme at .
A.5:00 a. m. every day B.8:00 every mrning
C.9:45 a. m. every day D.10:00 every mrning
48. Sandy can have fr dinner in Happy Hme.
A. salad B. egg C. beef D. bread
49. The Happy Hme is pen fr hurs every day.
A. eight B. nine C. ten D. eleven
50. What can we d in the restaurant?
A. We can have lunch with $9.
B. We can have three kinds f drinks.
C. We can have ice cream fr dinner.
D. We can have vegetable salad fr breakfast.
B
Hell! My name is Jack, an American by. Nw I'm in a junir high schl in Beijing, China.This week(星期), I am busy(忙碌) in my new schl. We have a lt f activities(活动).
On Mnday(星期一), we have a schl day. On that day, parents cme t schl, but my parents are in New Yrk. S the Smiths, my uncle and my aunt cme t the schl. Hw kind they are!
On Wednesday(星期三), we have a schl sale in the mrning. On the schl sale, students can buy different kinds f things frm each ther. Nick buys a black cap and it lks cl. Nancy buys a pink T-shirt frm Lucy. I buy a ty bus. Lily has sme ld bks n sale. I like reading“Jurney t the West”, s I buy it. In the afternn, we have a sccer game(足球赛). Many f my classmates can play it well. Then, we win the game. Hw happy we are!
On Saturday(星期六), ur class g t the beach(海滩). Our Chinese teacher, Ms. Chen, ges with us. She is welcme in ur class. This is my week.
51. Wh helps Jack n the schl day?
A. His parents. B. His classmates. C. The Smiths. D. Ms. Chen.
52. What des Jack buy n the schl sale?
53. The underlined wrd“win”means in Chinese.
A. 失败 B. 赢得 C. 参加 D. 放弃
54. Hw many activities des Jack have this week?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five. D. Six.
55. What is the text abut?
A. Jack's new schl. B. Jack's busy week.
C. Jack's kind teachers. D. Jack's kind classmates.
c
I'm a middle schl student. I like all my teachers, but my favrite teacher is Mrs. Smith, my English teacher.
Mrs. Smith is frm. Africa. She likes China very much. She thinks China is great. She lves Chinese fd. Ht pt is her favrite fd and if she has time, she likes t have it in the restaurant .
Smetimes she has bread and milk fr breakfast. Mrs Smith has a daughter and a sn. Her daughter is Mary and her sn is Tim. They are in China, t. They are studying in the same schl nw. Mary is in Grade 3 and Tim is in Grade 4.
Mrs Smith is very busy, because we have English classes frm Mnday t Friday. But she is always nice and happy. All f us like her and her classes very much. She ften plays English games and sings English sngs with us. If we have prblems, we like t ask her fr help.
I think I have the best(最好的) English teacher.
56. Where is Mrs. Smith frm?
A. She is frm China. B. She is frm Africa.
C. She is frm England. D. She is frm Cuba.
57. What's Mrs Smith's favrite fd?
A. Ht pt. B. Bread. C. Milk. D. Fish.
58. Hw many children des Mrs Smith have?
A. One. B. Tw. C. Three. D. Fur.
59. What grade is Tim in?
A. He is in Grade 3. B. He is in Grade 4.
C. He is in Grade 5. D. We dn't knw.
60. What can we knw frm the text?
A. Mrs Smith teaches maths.
B. The students dn't like Mrs Smith.
C. Mary and Tim are in different schls.
D. The students like t ask Mrs Smith fr help.
D
D yu knw names are different in China and England?
In China, the first(第一个) name is the family name. And the first name has ne wrd(字) r tw wrds. The last(最后) name is the given name. A man's name is Wang Ta. Wang is his family name and Ta is his given name. A girl's name is Ouyang Xiayu. Ouyang is her family name and Xiayu is her given name.
In England, many peple have three names: tw given names and a family name. The family name cmes last. Fr example, a girl's name is Linda Susan Baker. Linda is her first given name. Susan is her given name, t. Baker cmes last and it is her family name. Peple can call her Linda r Miss Baker.
61. A Chinese man's name is“Sima Luya”. is his family name.
A. Sima B. Luya C. Si D. Ya
62. Linda Susan Baker's given names are .
A. Linda and Susan B. Linda and Baker
C. Susan and Baker D. Linda Susan Baker
63. William Jaffersn Clintn is a teacher. We call him .
A. Mr. William B. Mrs. Jaffersn C. Mr. Clintn D. Mrs. Clintn
64. What des the underlined phrase“Fr example”mean in Chinese?
A. 例如 B. 仿佛 C. 而且 D. 总之
65. The text is abut .
A. schls B. clthes C. clrs D. names
第二节，阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。 (共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
E
My name is Ma Juan. 66 It is Saturday tday. I'm free. My classmate Li Qiang calls me in the mrning. He asks me t g t Zhngyang Park t have a picnic. 67 One hur later, we meet in the park. Li Qiang takes sme fd and drinks. 68 They're t heavy. 69 I take sme chicken and fruits. We have s much fd fr lunch. 70 At 5 ’clck, we g back hme.
A. They're fish, eggs, milk and water.
B. I am a Chinese girl.
C. After lunch we sing sme sngs.
D. I am very glad t g with him.
E. S I help him.
V.情景交际 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分 10分)
根据情景提示，用英语完成下列各题。
71. 你想确认对方是不是Jack，可以这样问：
?
72.你的同学想知道“bx”这个单词如何拼写，她会这样问你：
?
73. 你想知道Jenny 早餐通常吃什么，可以这样问：
fr breakfast, Jenny?
74.如果你想帮助别人，可以这样说：

75.打电话时，你告诉对方你是Mike，可以这样说：

Ⅵ.看图写话(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
VII. 词汇运用 (共两节, 10小题; 满分 10分)
第一节 阅读下面五个句子，从方框中选择适当的词填空，使句子通顺，意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。 (共5 小题；每小题1分，满分 5 分)
meeting f zer tmrrw yung
81. He is 78 years ld, but he lks very .
82. One minus(减) ne is .
83. They lk frward t their friends in Shanghai.
84. Jim desn't want t g shpping with his mther .
85. It's very kind yu t help me find my way hme.
第二节 阅读下面短文，根据语境、所给单词或单词首字母的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 (共 5 小题；每小题 1分,满分 5 分)
Kate is a little girl. She likes cats very much. She ften 86 (play) with her cat in the park. Nw her cat is in a tree. The tree is t tall and the cat can't get dwn(下来). Jack is Kate's friend. He likes cats, 87 . He climbs(爬) up the tree and helps the 88 get dwn. Kate is very happy. She says thanks t Jack. Then Kate's mther buys tw hamburgers f 89 Jack and Kate. The hamburgers are very delicius(美味的). Kate and Jack like 90 (they) very much. They are bth very happy.
VIII.书面表达(满分15分)
91.假如你是汤姆，姆巴佩是你心目中的足球(sccer)明星，请你根据表格内所提供的信息，用英语介绍一下他，并说说喜欢他的理由。词数60左右。
注意事项：
1.包含所给信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2.条理清晰，语句通顺，语法正确，书写规范；
3.请勿在文章中使用真实的姓名和校名。
Mubappe is a famus sccer player. Nw, let me tell yu smething abut him.


2022-2023学年度上学期期末七年级教学质量抽测
英语试题
参考答案及听力材料
= 1 \* ROMAN I. 听力（共三节，每小题1.5分，共30分）
第一节 1-5 CABBC
第二节 6-10BCACC 11-15 ACABB
第三节16. Sunday 17. Visit 18. fishing 19.nine/9 20. nice
评分标准：16-20小题，每小题1.5分, 形式错误不得分; 字母大小写错误不扣分。
= 2 \* ROMAN II. 选择填空（每小题1分，共15分）
21-25 ABCBA 26-30 CBABA 31-35 CAACB
评分标准：21-35小题，每小题1分。
III.完形填空：
36-40 BCBCA 41-45 BCBBA
评分标准：36-45小题，每小题1.5分。
= 4 \* ROMAN IV. 阅读理解（共二节，共45分）
第一节（每小题2分，共40分）
46-50 DBCDA 51-55 CABBB 56-60BABBD 61-65 AACAD
评分标准：46-65小题，每小题2分。
第二节（每小题1分，共5分）
66-70 BDAEC
评分标准：66-70小题，每小题1分。
= 5 \* ROMAN V. 情景交际（每小题2分，共10分）
71. Are yu Jack
72. Hw d yu/we spell “bx”
73. What d yu usually have
74. Let me help yu
75. This is Mike (speaking)
评分标准：每小题能按照要求写出正确的内容，得2分；能写出主要句子结构，得1-1.5分能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
= 6 \* ROMAN VI. 看图写话（每小题2分，共10分）
76. It’s time t get up.
77. Tm and Jim are in the same class.
78. Jane likes bananas.
79. My/His/Her father wrks in a/the hspital.
80. This is a pht f my/Kate’s family.
评分标准：每小题能够写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能基本说明图意，
写出主要句子结构，得1-1.5分；能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
= 7 \* ROMAN VII. 词汇运用（每小题1分，共10分）
81.yung 82.zer83. meeting 84.tmrrw 85. f
86.plays 87.t88. cat 89. fr 90. them
评分标准：每小题1分。形式错误不得分；首字母大小写错误不扣分。89题只写r 也给分。
= 8 \* ROMAN VIII. 书面表达（共15分）
91. One pssible versin:
Mubppe is a famus sccer player. Nw, let me tell yu smething abut him. Mubppe cmes frm France. He is 24 years ld nw. What des he lk like? He has shrt brwn hair and a wide muth. His eyes are big. Lk! He is in a black T-shirt. It’s ne f his favrite clthes. He likes vegetables and eggs very much. He thinks they are gd fr him. In his free time, he likes t help thers and plays with children.
Mubppe is s nice. I like him. I wuld like t have him as my friend.
评分标准：
1、评分原则
（1）本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
（2）评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（3）评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
（4）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（5）如没有适当发挥、词数不足、书写不规范和在文中使用真实的姓名、校名及提示信息以外的地名等，酌情扣分。如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
2、各档次的给分范围和要求
听力材料
第一节
听下面五个句子。听完每个句子后，从每小题所给的A、B、C 三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。每个句子读两遍。
I have an English class every day.
2.The pair f shes is ¥58.
3. We can see pandas in the pht.
4.The schlbag is Susan’s.
5. Eric’s telephne number is 389-1933.
第二节
听下面七段对话。每段对话后有一个或两个小题，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
W: Is that a pen in yur hand?
M: N. That’s a ty.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
W: Is the by in a blue shirt yur brther, Paul?
M: N, he is my cusin, Jim. I like t play with him.
听第3段对话，回答第 8 小题。
W: Ww! Tny, yur new jacket lks cl.
M: Thanks. My mther buys it fr me.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
W: Can I help yu?
M: Yes, I’d like t buy a dress fr my daughter.
听第5段对话，回答第10、11 小题。
W: Sam, is yur uncle a wrker?
M: N. He is a ck.
W: Where des he wrk?
M: He wrks in a big restaurant.
W: Is yur uncle tall?
M: Yes.And he lks yung. He has lng arms and legs.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
（电话铃声）
M: Hell, this is Bill. May I speak t Helen?
W: Srry, she isn’t at hme nw. This is her sister. What’s up?
M: I’d like t g shpping with Helen tmrrw mrning.
W: Sure. I’ll tell her.
听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。
W: May I take yur rder , sir?
M: Sme rice, please.
W: Wuld yu like sme chicken?
M: N, I’d like sme vegetables.
W :What wuld yu like t drink?A glass f apple juice?
M: N, I’d like a glass f water.
W : Is that all?
M: Yes, hw much are they?
W : Let me see. They are frty yuan.
M: OK, here yu are.
第三节 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。(短文读三遍)
Helen and her classmates are free this Sunday. Helen wants t visit her grandparents with her parents. Li Meng likes fish. S he wuld like t g fishing. Lily and Lucy wuld like t d sme shpping. What d Yu Zhan and Jhn want t d? Yu Zhan wants t visit the z with his gd friends at 9 ’clck and Jhn wants t fly a kite with his brther. They are sure t have a nice day.
What d they want t d this _16____?
Helen
___17____ her grandparents with her parents.
Li Meng
G _18__.
Lily and Lucy
D sme shpping.
Yu Zhan
G t the z with his gd friends at _19_ ' clck.
Jhn
Fly a kite with his brther.
They are sure t have a _20___ day.
Name
姆巴佩 ( Mubappe)
Cuntry
法国 ( France)
Age
24
Lks
big eyes, a wide muth ...
Clthes
a black T- shirt ...
Likes
vegetable, eggs. .. help thers, play with children
Reasns(理由)
kind ...
第五档
（13~15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第四档
（10~12分）
完成了试题规定的任务。达到了预期的写作目的。
—虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
第三档
（7~9分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。基本达到了预期的写作目的。
—虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档
（4~6分）
未适当完成试题规定的任务。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
第一档
（1~3分）
未完成试题规定的任务。信息未能传达给读者。
—明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：
内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。