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    2024年吉林长春中考真题英语试题及答案

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    这是一份2024年吉林长春中考真题英语试题及答案,共16页。

    1. 答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上,并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。
    2. 答题时,考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答,在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
    一、基础知识(共10分)
    Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
    1. My birthday ________ is a ty panda. It’s frm my grandma.
    A. tripB. mnthC. giftD. clr
    2. The Qinghai Lake is ________ lake in China. It is in Qinghai Prvince.
    A. largeB. largerC. largestD. the largest
    3. Lili ________ be at hme. She has gne t the farm t pick apples.
    A. mustn’tB. can’tC. mustD. can
    4. —Mm, culd I ________ the TV? I want t watch the news abut space.
    —Of curse. And dn’t sit t clse.
    A. turn nB. turn ffC. put nD. put ff
    5. Lk! The students ________ an art class in the park.
    A. haveB. were havingC. hadD. are having
    6. —________ are these sprts scks?
    —10 yuan fr 3 pairs.
    A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. Hw ftenD. Hw lng
    7. —There ________ many ancient Chinese pems in this bk. Which ne d yu like best?
    —Climbing a Twer by Wang Zhihuan.
    A. areB. isC. wereD. was
    8. As a science lver, I hpe I can invent a bike ________ can fly in the sky.
    A. whereB. whenC. whichD. wh
    9. ________ helpful the speech is! It tells us t use the Internet safely.
    A. WhatB. What aC. HwD. What an
    10. —The Mid-Autumn Festival is cming. I wnder ________.
    —In yur uncle’s hme.
    A. where we will celebrate itB. when we will celebrate it
    C. where will we celebrate itD. when will we celebrate it
    二、交际运用(共5分)
    根据对话内容,运用下面所给的句子选项补全对话。选项中有一项是多余的。
    (Lei Lei and Han Lu are talking in the English crner.)
    Han Lu: Hi, Lei Lei. Yu lk excited. ___11___
    Lei Lei: Yes. We will have an Internatinal Summer Camp.
    Han Lu: Really? It’s cl.
    Lei Lei: Guess what? We will wrk fr the camp.
    Han Lu: Ww, wnderful! ___12___
    Lei Lei: We can intrduce smething special abut ur hmetwn.
    Han Lu: That’s easy. Changbai Muntain and the Snghua River are my favrites.
    Lei Lei: I have different ideas. ___13___
    Han Lu: Haha! Very funny. I knw yu will say that.
    Lei Lei: Dn’t frget Changchun is als an ice and snw city.
    Han Lu: ___14___ Winter sprts in Jilin are famus arund the wrld.
    Lei Lei: That’s fr sure. I hpe we can tell the freign friends mre abut ur hmetwn.
    Han Lu: ___15___
    Lei Lei: Oh! It’s time fr class. Let’s g.
    Han Lu: OK.
    A. Me, t.
    B. Yu’re right.
    C. What can we d then?
    D. Is there any gd news?
    E. What’s yur favrite fd?
    F. My favrites are tiegudun and gubaru.
    三、阅读(共45分)
    Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读短文,掌握其大意,然后从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    When my friend suggested that we jin the new Tai Chi (太极拳) Club, I thught he was ___16___. I always believed tai chi was fr ld peple. Hwever, after the first class, I ___17___ that I was wrng. It was amazing. Tai chi led t a big ___18___ bth in my bdy and mind.
    I still remember my first few tai chi classes. The basic skill I learned was keeping a balance (平衡). An actin was called “glden rster (公鸡) standing n ne leg”. Fllwing the instructins, I tried t ___19___ n ne leg. It seemed that it was nt a hard ne, but I still ___20___ many times. Sn, I felt bred and ___21___ frm practicing ver and ver again. I started t ___22___ myself. Maybe I was really ___23___ in this kind f exercise. Just then, my cach taught me hw t relax myself. Step by step, I made ___24___. Later, I was able t d mre difficult actins and feel peace f mind as well. My lve fr tai chi became ___25___. I even wanted t lk int the ancient Chinese culture behind tai chi.
    I discvered tai chi is deeply frm Chinese yin and yang. The practice f it helps t keep a balance thrugh ___26___: left and right, up and ___27___, breathing in and breathing ut... Finally, tai chi brings abut a state f bdy balance and ___28___ peace.
    Nw I can hnestly say it helps me becme much ___29___. I sleep better at night and I am mre active during the day. Mre imprtantly, practicing tai chi has made me better ___30___ the Chinese culture. I am sure I will cntinue t practice tai chi and enjy the advantages it has brught me.
    16. A. jkingB. waitingC. readingD. explaining
    17. A. frgtB. dreamtC. requiredD. realized
    18. A. decisinB. prblemC. changeD. lve
    19. A. sitB. standC. lieD. jump
    20. A. fearedB. wishedC. failedD. received
    21. A. lazyB. tiredC. afraidD. hungry
    22. A. thankB. praiseC. dubtD. cntrl
    23. A. rightB. weakC. strictD. interested
    24. A. friendsB. mistakesC. niseD. prgress
    25. A. strngB. quietC. strangeD. imprtant
    26. A. habitsB. chancesC. abilitiesD. ppsites
    27. A. nB. dwnC. ffD. away
    28. A. wrldB. mindC. lifeD. thught
    29. A. saferB. heavierC. pruderD. healthier
    30. A. understandB. teachC. translateD. encurage
    Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31~50题,每小题1分;51~55题,每小题2分,满分30分)
    (A)
    根据图示内容,选择最佳答案。
    31 ________ is the clsest subway statin t the museum.
    A. King SquareB. Nelsn StreetC. EmbankmentD. Charing Crss
    32. Which f the fllwing is RIGHT?
    A. This is a tea culture museum.B. The museum is pen at 9 a.m.
    C. The museum is free fr the public.D. Yu can call the museum at 723-1182.
    33. The sign means yu can ________ here.
    A. have a mealB. enjy phtsC. ask fr infrmatinD. buy a present
    34. We can find Museum Shp ________.
    A. in East GardenB. next t Dining Space
    C. acrss frm Lst & FundD. between Ancient Arts and Mdern Arts
    35. The text is prbably taken frm ________.
    A. a visitr guideB. a shpping listC. a street mapD. a travel diary
    (B)
    ①Is the summer vacatin lng enugh t turn life fr the better? Every persn has his wn talents and interests. Find smething yu care abut, and yu will see the difference.
    ②Organize a clean-up prgram. Peple ften thrw litter in the place where there is already litter. This leaves the cmmunity in a mess. The envirnment will becme better if smene vlunteers t help. Yu culd pick up the rubbish with yur friends nce a week in yur neighbrhd. Yu culd als help take care f the plants every few days. Surely a clean and tidy neighbrhd will be wrth the wrk.
    ③Shw yur lve t the ld. Our city has sme ld peple’s hmes. Withut children arund them, the ld peple there might feel lnely nce in a while. Maybe they need yur help. In fact, yu can d a lt fr them. Fr example, yu can talk with them r play games with them. Listening t them carefully is als a gd idea. Sme ld peple can’t see clearly and they wuld like yu t read t them. N matter what small things yu d, yu can make them feel lved.
    ④Set up a reading prject with yur friends. Share yur favrite bks with them. Besides, yu may read alud t each ther and talk abut what yu read. Either a bk r an article can spark a lively discussin and yur further thinking. The prcess ften challenges mre peple t take actin. The prject is als a gd way t welcme newcmers. At the same time, yu may find new friends with similar hbbies.
    ⑤A tw-mnth summer vacatin isn’t that lng, but it’s enugh t make a difference.
    根据短文内容,选择最佳答案。
    36. Hw ften culd yu pick up the rubbish accrding t the passage?
    A. Once a week.B. Every few weeks.C. Once a mnth.D. Every few mnths.
    37. Why d yu need t read t sme ld peple at the ld peple’s hmes?
    A. Because yu can think further.B. Because yu are gd at reading.
    C. Because they can’t see clearly.D. Because they are away frm their hmes.
    38. What des the underlined wrd “spark” in Paragraph 4 prbably mean?
    A. Finish.B. Start.C. Increase.D. Separate.
    39. Which is the right structure (结构) f the passage?
    (①=Paragraph 1 ②=Paragraph 2,…)
    A. B. C. D.
    40. What is the passage mainly abut?
    A. The peple with different interests.B. The greatest time t make a difference.
    C. The reasns fr a different summer vacatin.D. The ways f making a summer vacatin different.
    (C)
    The wrld’s best sprtsmen get tgether fr the Olympic Games every fur years. The 2024 Olympic Games will take place in Paris, France. Fr the first time, peple will watch breaking (霹雳舞) as a new event at the Olympics.
    Breaking is als called break dancing. The high-energy, skillful dance includes mves such as Tp Rck, Ftwrk, G Dwn, Freeze and s n. The dancers need t think and shw the mves f the hands and feet quickly.
    Break dance battles (斗舞) are a cmmn way t find ut wh is the best dancer. In the 1970s in New Yrk City, fighting with thers amng yung peple became mre and mre serius. Sme f them began t deal with the prblem thrugh dance instead. Just then, the dance style first shwed up n the streets. Tday peple still “battle” in this way. One dancer will shw ff his mves, and then the next will cntinue t cmpete... The best dancer will be picked ut finally.
    Why des breaking becme an Olympic event? If a sprt is added t the Olympics, it must be widely practiced by men in at least 75 cuntries n fur cntinents (洲) and by wmen in n fewer than 40 cuntries n three cntinents. Breaking meets this standard. Als, the planners’ gal is t make the Olympics mre interesting t yung peple.
    “Breaking has been accepted as a sprt. I really feel prud,” said Xiayu, ne breakdancer. “And fr the Olympics, it will get mre attentin frm yung peple wh may nt fllw sme f the traditinal sprts.”
    根据短文内容,判断句子正(T)、误(F)。
    41. Ftwrk is ne f the mves f breaking.
    42. Breaking first shwed up n the streets in Paris in the 1970s.
    43. T be an Olympic event, a sprt must be practiced by wmen in 75 cuntries.
    44. Xiayu really feels prud that breaking has been accepted as a sprt.
    45. The writer mainly intrduces the histry f the Olympics in the passage.
    (D)
    Can yu imagine what the human bdy in the future will be like? Our class had a discussin abut it. Tiantian, an AI (artificial intelligence人工智能) rbt, als jined us. Here are ur guesses.
    ___46___ Humans are nw ten centimeters (厘米) taller than 150 years ag. S, in the future, peple will prbably be even taller. Why? Because mst f us tday have much better fd than thse in the past.
    Yu must say that peple will be strnger accrding t the first guess. ___47___ With the develpment f science and technlgy, we wn’t have much physical wrk t d. If peple get used t this kind f lifestyle, we will prbably lse mst f ur muscles (肌肉).
    Next, let’s cme t ur hands and feet. We are already using ur feet less, and ur hands mre. ___48___ At the same time, ur fingers and ur eyes will bth get better because they’ll have t d mre wrk tgether.
    Here cmes the mst interesting ne—it’s very pssible that peple will have fur tes (脚趾), nt five. The little te really isn’t needed anymre. ___49___ Let’s wait and see.
    Last but nt least—peple wn’t have as much hair n their bdies as nw, since we dn’t need it t keep urselves warm.
    What d yu think f ur guesses? ___50___ With the rise f AI, will we lse the ability f thinking independently?
    阅读短文,把A~E五个句子填入文中空缺处,使短文内容完整。
    A. But yu’re wrng.
    B. Will all these things happen?
    C. Let’s start with peple’s height.
    D. Will it still be there in the future?
    E. S we can expect ur legs will get shrter and ur feet smaller.
    (E)
    Have yu ever read Little Wmen by US writer Luisa May Alctt? The classic has been changed int plays, films and televisin prgrams many times because f its ppularity since it came ut in 1868. It tells a stry f a mther raising her fur daughters, while their dad is away fighting a war. Meg, the eldest, wants t live a better life very much. J, the secnd-brn, wants nthing mre than t be a writer. Beth is a sweet girl wh lves music and always brings jy t thers. The yungest daughter, Amy, dreams f being an artist. After reading Little Wmen, I have a feeling f warmth and kindness frm the family.
    In the fllwing scene, the girls talk abut what they can buy with the very little mney they have. They feel hpeful abut the future even thugh their dreams may nt cme true.
    根据短文内容,回答下列问题。
    51. When did Little Wmen cme ut?
    _______________________________________
    52. Wh is the third-brn girl in the family?
    _______________________________________
    53. Hw d the girls feel even thugh their dreams may nt cme true?
    _______________________________________
    54. Why des Amy want t buy drawing pencils?
    _______________________________________
    55. What des J advise her sisters t d at last?
    _______________________________________
    四、语言运用(共10分)
    Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Westwd Natinal Park is a very huge natinal park. It is well-knwn ___56___ its fascinating scenes and many kinds f animals, especially bears. It is ne f my favrite ___57___ (place) t take phts.
    I will never frget that afternn. Birds flew ver the ___58___ (peace) lake. The muntains ___59___ (cver) with white snw. With the camera held t my eye, I was recrding the amazing picture. All f a sudden, I fund tw baby bears far away running after each ther ___60___ (happy). Smetimes they stpped t lk arund; smetimes ne rubbed (蹭) against the ther’s back. They had a lt f fun playing in ___61___ sun. At that mment, I cmpletely lst myself in the sweet envirnment. Hw I wished that time culd stand still! I really hped ___62___ (catch) the warm scene with my camera and I did it. After a while, I ___63___ (hear) a lud rar (吼叫) frm the mther bear. The tw baby bears std up quickly ___64___ ran back t the frest. I was s lucky that I culd take such a picture.
    The pht always reminds ___65___ (I) that the real beauty is “nature” in nature.
    五、书面表达(共20分)
    (A)
    66. 新西兰某中学现招募志愿者,为其参加“汉语桥”(Chinese Bridge)中文演讲比赛的选手进行线上辅导。假如你是李华,请根据下面要点和要求,用英语写一封不少于40词的自荐信。
    要点:
    (1)表达意愿;
    (2)说明优势。
    要求:要点齐全;表述通顺;简洁得体。
    Dear Sir r Madam,
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    (B)
    67. 每个人都有自己的闪光点,请以“My Shining Pint”为题,写一篇不少于80词的英语短文。
    要求:
    (1)讲述一个自己的故事;
    (2)你的感悟;
    (3)适当增加细节,行文连贯;
    (4)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和校名。
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    参考答案
    本试卷包括五道大题,共8页。满分为90分,考试时间为100分钟。考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    注意事项:
    1. 答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上,并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。
    2. 答题时,考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答,在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
    一、基础知识(共10分)
    Ⅰ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。
    【1题答案】
    【答案】C
    【2题答案】
    【答案】D
    【3题答案】
    【答案】B
    【4题答案】
    【答案】A
    【5题答案】
    【答案】D
    【6题答案】
    【答案】B
    【7题答案】
    【答案】A
    【8题答案】
    【答案】C
    【9题答案】
    【答案】C
    【10题答案】
    【答案】A
    二、交际运用(共5分)
    【11~15题答案】
    【答案】11. D 12. C 13. F 14. B 15. A
    三、阅读(共45分)
    Ⅲ. 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    【16~30题答案】
    【答案】16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. A
    Ⅳ. 阅读理解(共25小题;31~50题,每小题1分;51~55题,每小题2分,满分30分)
    (A)
    【31~35题答案】
    【答案】31. B 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. A
    (B)
    【36~40题答案】
    【答案】36. A 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. B
    (C)
    【41~45题答案】
    【答案】41. T 42. F 43. F 44. T 45. F
    (D)
    【46~50题答案】
    【答案】46. C 47. A 48. E 49. D 50. B
    (E)
    【51~55题答案】
    【答案】51. In 1868. 52. Beth.
    53. They feel hpeful abut the future.
    54. Because she really needs them.
    55. J advises her sisters t buy what they need and wrk hard enugh t make it.
    四、语言运用(共10分)
    Ⅴ. 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    【56~65题答案】
    【答案】56. fr
    57. places 58. peaceful
    59. were cvered
    60. happily
    61. the 62. t catch
    63. heard 64. and 65. me
    五、书面表达(共20分)
    (A)
    【66题答案】
    【答案】例文
    Dear Sir r Madam,
    I’m Li Hua and I’d like t be a vlunteer t prvide nline tutring fr the cntestants in the Chinese speech cntest
    I am gd at Chinese and speech, and I can talk freely with freigners. Als, I’m quite utging and warm-hearted. I believe that I’ll be qualified fr this jb.
    Lking frward t yur reply.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    (B)
    【67题答案】
    【答案】例文
    My Shining Pint
    I meet many excellent peple every day and at the same time I als find myself really gd. I can see the wrld with kind eyes. I think I dn’t like t cmplain. I find it imprtant t have a psitive attitude.
    Last mnth, I was chsen t play a rle in an English shw. It was difficult fr me t memrize the lines in a shrt time. Hwever, I regarded it as a challenge, which was als a gd chance t imprve my English. S I made an effrt t practice. Finally, I made it and received high praise.
    In fact it is my psitive attitude that brings ut the best in me all the time.
    Sunshine Art Museum
    Place: On the nrth side f King Square
    Arriving Here: Subway statins: Nelsn Street (2-minute walk)
    Embankment (3-minute walk)
    Charing Crss (7-minute walk)
    Opening Hurs: Mn.—Sat. 10 a.m.—4 p.m.
    Prices: Adults: $10/persn Children under 12: Free
    Cnnect with us: Call 723-1182 fr mre infrmatin.
    “I can’t expect anything frm Mther r yu. I knw I nly have ne dllar with me. Althugh it isn’t that much, it wrks. I can at least buy the bk Undine and Sintran fr myself. I’ve wanted it s lng,” said J.
    “I planned t spend mine n new music,” said Beth.
    “I shall get a nice bx f drawing pencils. I really need them,” said Amy.
    “Mther didn’t say anything abut ur mney, but she des wish us t get smething. Let’s each buy what we need. I’m sure we wrk hard enugh t make it,” cried J.
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