2024年河北省唐山市中考一模英语试题含答案

这是一份2024年河北省唐山市中考一模英语试题含答案，文件包含2024年河北省唐山市中考一模英语试题docx、答案pdf、听力音频mp3等3份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共14页， 欢迎下载使用。

注意事项: 1. 本试卷共8页, 总分120分, 考试时间 120分钟。
2. 答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。
3. 所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。
4. 答选择题时，用2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。
5. 考试结束时，请将答题卡交回。
听力部分
Ⅰ. 听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息(共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
1. A. a vide B. a bk C. a picture
2. A. walk dgs B. water flwers C. wash dishes
3. A. a beautiful girl B. a white shirt C. a pretty dress
4. A. They'll answer a questin.B. They'll repeat a wrd.C. They'll talk in grups.
5. A. Linda will ck fr her grandma.
B. Linda's mm will write a stry fr her.
C. Linda's grandma will tell a stry t her.
Ⅱ. 听句子，选出该句的最佳答语(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
6. A. It's Lily's. B. It's t small. C. It's a blue ne.
7. A. Yu're welcme. B. N, thanks. C. Sure, here yu are.
8. A. It's s great. B. I agree with yu. C. He's a gd writer.
9. A. Gd luck. B. Well dne. C. I'm srry t hear that.
10. A. Stand up! B. Are yu OK? C. Hw careless yu are!
Ⅲ. 听对话和问题，选择正确答案(共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分)
11. What is Sally eating?
12. Where des the by want t g?
13. What class des Jenny have next?
A. Math. B. Art. C. PE.
14. What des the by plan t d first?
A. G swimming. B. Return sme bks. C. Study at the library.
15. Where will they meet after class?
A. At the gym. B. At the schl gate. C. At the library.
16. Hw des Clare feel abut the histry exam?
A. Wrried. B. Bred. C. Tired.
17. What is Clare's prblem?
A. She isn't gd at histry.B. Her ntes are t lng. C. The exam is t hard.
18. What des the by advise Clare t d?
A. Cpy everything dwn.
B. Write ut the whle sentence.
C. Use symbls and little pictures.
Ⅳ. 听短文和问题，选择正确答案(共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分)
19. What's the matter with Tm?
A. He has a tthache. B. He has a cld. C. He has a stmachache.
20. What is their bilgy hmewrk?
A. T read a bk. B. T write a reprt. C. T search sme phts.
21. What are they ging t study next week?
A. Fish. B. Rivers. C. Lakes.
22. What is the tpic fr this year?
A. Lve. B. Weather. C. Change.
23. What prize did Maria get fr herself last year?
A. A bk. B. A bike. C. A basketball.
24. What will the schl use the prize mney fr this year?
A. The lab. B. The library. C. The cmputer rm.
25. When will Mr. Winter talk abut writing pems?
A. At 4:00 p. m.. B. At 5:00 p. m.. C. At 6:00 p. m..
V. 听短文填空(共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
Infrmatin Sheet
Activity: a schl trip
Day: 26. this
G there: 27. by
Meet:28.n the
Must: 29. keep
Take: 30. a
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择(共 10 小题; 每小题1分, 满分 10分)
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. I like sprts and ften play basketball Sundays.
A. in B. n C. fr D. at
32. My teachers at Xinhua Schl are great, and I'll miss w hen I mve n t high schl.
A. him B.us C. her D. them
33. Parents might seem strict at times, never dubt their lve fr yu.
A. and B. but C. s D. r
34. I prmise anything, but I will try my best.
A. can B. must C. can't D. mustn't
35. — I haven't seen yur sister recently. Did she g t Beijing n business again?
— Yes, she did. She back in tw days.
A. will cme B. cmes C. has cme D. came
36. — Jenny, Mm in the kitchen. Let's g t help her.
— Sure, Dad.
A. cked B. is cking C. was cking D. has cked
37. — It's quite a busy day fr ur cake shp.
— Yes. I ten birthday cakes, but there is still ne mre t make.
A. will make B. am making C. was making D. have made
38. Peple shuld wrk hard and ways t make life better.
A. lk fr B. lk thrugh C. lk at D. lk up
39. We need t take care f the earth it's the nly planet we have fr humans t live n.
A. thugh B. if C. because D. until
40. — Ww, yur rm is s tidy.
— Thank yu. It every day.
A. cleans B. cleaned C. is cleaned D. was cleaned
Ⅶ. 完形填空(共10 小题; 每小题1分, 满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In a fun class activity, Mr. Li gave each f us a balln. He asked us t 41 them up and then write ur names n them. It was s cl t hear the ballns getting bigger and see everyne writing their 42 with clrful markers. Then we were asked t put them int the hall.
After that, Mr. Li mixed up all the ballns, and the 43 turned int a rainbw! Then he tld us the 44 :Find the balln with ur name n it in just five minutes. We all started lking really fast, mving ballns all arund, but it was 45 , and n ne culd find their wn balln.
But guess what? Mr. Li had a smart idea. He tld us t pick up any balln we fund and46 it t the persn whse name was n it. Suddenly, we all started wrking tgether, helping each ther find ur ballns. The hall turned int a 47 place with many laughs as we shared and gave ballns t each ther. And guess what again? In just tw minutes, every student had their wn balln back! Such a little change had 48 a great difference!
Back int the classrm, ur teacher shared a special 49 with us. He said,“The ballns are like happiness. When we're nly thinking abut urselves, it's hard t find happiness. But when we share happiness with thers, it 50 cmes back t us.”We really had much fun and learned a lt at the same time. It was the best class activity ever!
41. A. cut B. blw C. turn D. pick
42. A. names B. ages C. wishes D. addresses
43. A. sky B. hall C. ffice D. classrm
44. A. wish B. jke C. task D. questin
45. A. right B. wrng C. easy D. difficult
46. A. give B. lend C. sell D. teach
47. A. happy B. silent C. strange D. bring
48. A. tld B. made C. avided D. imagined
49. A. reasn B. duty C. lessn D. prject
50. A. never B. seldm C. smetimes D. always
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，从每小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Grup 3, Class 1(5 members)
51. What will Grup 3 d t raise mney?
A. Wash cars. B. Have a fd festival.
C. Sell ckies. D. Have a basketball game.
52. What will Yang Ha d t help?
A. Invite mre peple. B. Organize the fd festival.
C. Make a beautiful pster. D. Ck smething delicius.
53. We can knw that frm their talk.
A. Li Shan has a lt f fans n Duyin.
B. Han Yuxi's hbby is drawing beautiful pictures.
C. there wn't be many peple n the fd festival.
D. we can taste sme freign fds at the fd festival.
B
Jrdyn Perez was turning 8 years ld, and her mm had a special idea t celebrate.“Hw abut giving yur birthday gifts t kids at the hspital?”her mm suggested. At first, Jrdyn wasn't sure, but after thinking abuț it, she said,“Okay, that's cl. I alrcady have everything Ineed, and these kids at the hspital need them mre than I d.”
Jrdyn's first rund f giving was in 2016. Nw, as a high schl student, Jrdyn still brings jy t kids in the hspital. It is the eighth time that she has dnated (捐赠) birthday gifts t Baptist Children's Hspital.
Jrdyn's kindness has inspired(鼓舞) her friends t. They start cllecting and giving gifts n their birthdays just like Jrdyn. Natalie Gutierrez, wh wrks at Baptist Children's Hspital,has seen the wnderful influence f Jrdyn's gifts.“She puts smiles n the faces f these little patients in ur hspital and n ur nurses and dctrs,”says Gutierrez.
Jrdyn shares why she lves ding this.“Seeing ther peple's happiness — that's all that matters t me. Giving t thers is just a gd feeling t have at the end f the day, and I want t keep ding this as lng as I can.”Jrdyn's caring heart cntinues t spread happiness, inspiring thers t share kindness t.
54. Why did Jrdyn agree t dnate her birthday gifts?
A. Because she wanted t be famus.
B. Because she always listened t her mm.
C. Because she didn't like her birthday gifts.
D. Because she thught sick kids needed them mre.
55. What is the influence f Jrdyn's gift-giving?
A. Making the little patients happy. B. Inspiring nurses t dnate gifts.
C. Bringing jy t high schl students. D. Encuraging dctrs t wrk hard.
56. What can we learn frm Jrdyn?
A. We shuld smile t thers. B. We shuld feel gd abut urselves.
C. We shuld spread happiness and kindness.D. We shuld share gifts with ur friends.
C
If yu find yurself ften feeling like there's nt enugh time, yu're nt alne — Ismetimes have that feeling, t. The key is getting gd at managing time. When yu get the skill, yu can finish yur studies n time and still have space fr fun activities. Here are sme suggestins t help yu find that balance (平衡).
Plan study time prperly
Wrk ut hw much time yu need fr each subject. Plan yur study time accrding t the difficulty level f each subject. Fr example, spend abut ne hur n the easy subjects, 1-2hurs n the nes in the middle, and 2-3 hurs n the mre difficult nes.
Use time wisely
If yu dn't have enugh time fr studying, think abut spending less time n things like playing r watching TV. Dn't stp these activities cmpletely, and just d them a bit less. That way, yu can make sure yu have time fr bth studying and having fun.
Learn t Priritize(优先处理)
Wrking ut what t d and when t d is a key part f managing yur time. When yu have lts f things t d, yu need t find ut which tasks ar c really imprtant and d them first.Fr example, if there's a science test cming up, yu shuld spend mre time n science instead f ther subjects.
Learn t say NO
Having fun is great, but it's imprtant t knw when t say n t fun things. Fr example, if smene invites yu t play but yur hmewrk isn't dne, it's kay t say n. Saying n is like an art. It helps yu avid ging ut with friends fr n gd reasn r watching TV t much.
In a wrd, being gd at managing time isn't just helpful fr schl; it's a key t success in life.
57. What can we d t plan study time prperly?
A. Spend the same time n each subject.
B. Spend less time n the difficult subjects.
C. Spend all ur time n the difficult subjects.
D. Spend time accrding t the difficulty level.
58. What des the example f the science test. try t tell us?
A. T wrk ut the time f the science test.
B. T avid playing when hmewrk isn't dne.
C. T have time fr bth studying and having fun.
D. T find ut really imprtant tasks and d them first.
59. Which f the fllwing is supprted by the writer?
A. Stpping playing cmpletely. B. Watching TV t much.
C. Saying n t fun things if necessary. D. Ging ut with friends anytime.
60. What's the purpse f this article?
A. T discuss ways t plan study time. B. T intrduce methds f managing time.
C. T give suggestins n being successful. D. T prvide infrmatin abut having fun.
D
Life smetimes can be s difficult fr us. Yu may feel the whle wrld is against yu.Hwever, a gd change in mind r actins may turn yur life arund.
Many times, when yu are feeling dwn, thughts can be running arund yur head. Yu may miss ut n sme f yur brighter ideas. T stp this, yu shuld write dwn yur gals.This will make them clearer in yur mind and give yu smething t stick t. Writing it dwn will help yu think abut hw yu can achieve it. It will make yu feel much better after yu mark it in yur list.
Shrt-term pleasure such as junk fd(垃圾食品) r cmputer games is nt true happiness.Yu'd better cut ut a lt f thenegativethings in yur life. Yu can start a new hbby like exercising. It can imprve yur bdy as well as feelings. Ding things like that will help yu get int a better man. Yu can even see yur prgress in the mirrr.
If yu still can't change by yurself, there is n shame in finding help frm smene. By reaching ut, yu are already making a great step. It desn't even have t be a prfessinal(专业人士). Smetimes just g t yur friends and family and tell them what yur truble is. It helps a lt.
It is nt easy t make a change and maybe nt everyne needs t d it. What wrks fr ne persn may nt wrk fr smebdy else. Yu need t find what helps yu ut and then stick t it.If yu can find ut the gals and develp sme gd habits, yur life will slwly but surely turn arund.
61. Hw can yu stp thughts running arund the head?
A. By ding exercises. B. By starting a new hbby.
C. By writing dwn the gals. D. By finding sme bright ideas.
62. If yu cannt make a change by yurself, what shuld yu d?
A. Give it up. B. Try t change thers.
C. Accept the truble. D. Find help frm smene.
63. Which f the fllwing is right accrding t the passage?
A. It's easy t find ut a way t change yur life.
B. Everyne needs t make a change and stick t it.
C. Exercising can imprve peple's bdies and feelings.
D. We must find a prfessinal t help us t make a change.
64. Which wrd is clse t the underlined wrd“negative”?
A. Harmful. B. Wnderful. C. Helpful. D. Painful.
65. Which can be a prper title fr the text?
A. Hw t Turn Yur Life Arund B. Hw t Set a Clear Gal
C. Hw t Find Help When in Truble D. Hw t Exercise t Change Yur Life
IX. 任务型阅读(共5 小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66~70题。
We have seen driverless cars many times in science fictin mvies, but tday it has cme true.
The UK has becme the first cuntry in Eurpe t allw driverless cars n its rads, after a new system was tested fr mre than 100,000 miles n Eurpean rads. The system calledBlueCruise cmes with the 2023 newly-made cars. The first 90 days f BlueCruise is free, but drivers have t pay extra(额外的) mney if they want t cntinue using it. And it nly wrks n certain rads. BlueCruise is nt actually driverless—— it is“hands-ff, eyes-n driving”. That means it still requires a human t pay attentin t the rad but the driver can take their hands ff the wheel(方向盘) and mve their feet away frm the pedals(踏板).
The BlueCruise system can read different kinds f rad signs. It is als able t watch cars ahead and keep a safe distance(距离). There is a special. camera in the car that tracks(追踪) the driver's eyes t make sure they are watching the rad. If their eyes are nt n the rad, it will send warning sunds. After that, the car itself will slw dwn and stp cmpletely. BlueCruise als cntrls the speed and wheel f the car.
The driverless car makes driving a mre cmfrtable experience. It als makes driving smther and easier. Sme scientists think a driverless car is safe because it can help avid the traffic accidents. Hwever, there are still lts f peple wh wrry abut the safety f the driverless cars. The system and cameras in the car may smetimes make mistakes.
66、67 题完成句子；68、69题简略回答问题； 70题将画线句子译成汉语。
66. The UK has becme the first cuntry in Eurpe t allw n its rads.
67. BlueCruise still requires a human t the rad.
68. What will the car d after receiving the warning sunds?
69. D yu think a driverless car is safe? Why r why nt?
70.
X. 词语运用(共 10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词(有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式)。
Last Sunday, I finished my hmewrk 71 (quick) right after lunch. And I decided t d smething 72 (use). Lily and I went t Qichen Bkstre, ne f the 73 (big)bkstres in twn in the afternn. Befre leaving, I tld my parents 74 I went, s they wuld nt wrry. When we 75 (arrive) there, there were a lt f peple. We made ur way t the 76 (three) flr. There were thusands 77 bks waiting fr us. After ne hur.Lily came arund and shwed me 78 (she) favrite bk. It was abut Zhang Guimei helping many village 79 (girl) t g t cllege. I think it's really 80 gd chice t read n weekends instead f wasting time n screens.
XI. 基础写作(包括A、B 两部分, A 部分5分, B 部分 15分,共20分)
A) 连词成句(共5 小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。
句末标点已给出。
81. sunny, a, what, day
!
82. g t, supermarket, let's, the
83. d, want, buy, t, what, yu
?
84. a, my mm, gift, fr, I'd like
85. it's, think,a great idea, I
B) 书面表达(满分15 分)
86. 假如你是李华，你的英国好友 Tm发来邮件，说下周将作为交换生来你校学习一个学期，希望你帮助他选择一个社团。请从下面三个社团中选择一个并根据表格中的相关信息回复 Tm。
提示: (1) Which club will yu chse fr Tm?
(2) Why d yu chse it?
注意：(1) 回复邮件中须包括提示中的两个要点，可适当发挥。
(2) 回复邮件中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名。
(3) 词数80个左右(开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
Hi Tm,
I'm happy t knw that yu are cming t ur schl t study fr a term.
Lking frward t hearing frm yu.
Yurs,
Li Huaping-png club
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