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2024年河南省南阳市方城县中考二模英语试题
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这是一份2024年河南省南阳市方城县中考二模英语试题，共11页。试卷主要包含了 B等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共10页，六个大题，满分120分。考试时间100分钟。
2.本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效.
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What wuld the man like t d tday?
A. G hiking. B. G climbing. C. G bating..
2. What will the weather be like this afternn?
3. When will the cncert begin?
A. At 4:40. B. At 5:20. C. At 5:40.
4. Wh picked the fewest apples?
A. Tny. B. Tm. C. Lin Feng.
5. Hw des Lucy cme t schl?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What des the wman advise Bb t d?
A. T g t hspital. B. T have a cup f tea. C. T carry fewer bxes.
7. What's the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Dctr and patient. C. Husband and wife.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Why des the by prefer English?
A. Because he thinks English is very easy.
B. Because there is little English hmewrk.
C. Because he likes the English teacher and her classes.
9. Which sprt des the girl like best?
A. Swimming. B. Baseball. C. Ftball.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
10. Wh will be invited t the speaker's schl?
A. A pliceman. B. A fireman. C. A sprtsman.
11. Hw lng will the talk last?
A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs.
12. Where will the students g after the talk?
A. T the schl hall. B. T the classrm. C. T the playgrund.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。A B. C G D.
13. Hw much is each rm a day?
A.220 yuan. B.240 yuan. C.260 yuan.
14. Wh is the man travelling with?
A. His friends. B. His parents. C. His cusins.
15. What will the man prbably d next?
A. Have a meal. B. Have a shwer. C. Have a walk.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
Adult humans sleep abut 3 hurs less than ther primates(灵 长类动物). Mnkeys and babns sleep arund 10 hurs a day.
⑤
Peple can make terrible mistakes if they dn't get enugh sleep. A lack(缺失) f sleep played a rle in accidents such as:
the Exxn Valdez il spill(泄露)
the Challenger space shuttle disaster
the Chernbyl nuclear accident
④
If yu fall asleep within 5 minutes， yu are shrt f sleep. The ideal time is between 10 and 15 minutes
③
Tiredness usually peaks(达到高峰) twice a day, at 2 a. m. and 2 p. m.
②
①
Hw many hurs f sleep d we need each day?
Newbrns:14-17
Teenagers:8-10
Adults: 7-9
Elderly adults: 7-8
FIVE ▲ ABOUT
SLEEP
Sleep is quite imprtant t peple f all ages. Sleep deprivatin (睡眠缺失) can affect ur ability t wrk and study.
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. Hw lng d teenagers need t sleep at least every day?
A. Seven hursB. Eight hurs.C. Nine hurs.D. Furteen hurs
22. What time d peple feel the sleepiest during a day?
A. By asking questinsB. By telling stries.C. By giving examples.D. By listing numbers.
23. Hw des the writer prve a lack f sleep plays a rle in accidents?
24. Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A. FACTSB. REASONSC. PROBLEMSD. SUGGESTIONS
25. What's the theme(主题) f the text?
A. SprtsB. Health.C. Culture.D. Travel.
B
As a teenager, schl was difficult fr me. I had a kind f attentin disrder(混乱 ), which means I culdn't direct my attentin t what I was ding. S when everyne else in the class was centering their attentin n tasks, I culd nt.
In my first reading class, Mrs. Smith asked us t read a stry and then write n it, all finished in 45 minutes. I immediately put up my hand and said, “Mrs. Smith, yu see, the dctr said I have attentin prblems. I might nt be able t finish the task.”
She lked dwn at me thrugh her glasses, saying, “Yu are nt different frm yur classmates, yung man.” With her encuragement, I tried. But I didn't finish the reading when the bell rang. I had t take it hme.
In the quietness f my bedrm, the stry suddenly all became clear t me. It was abut a blind persn, Luis Braille. He lived in a time when the blind culdn't get much educatin. But Luis didn't give up. Instead, he invented a reading system f raised dts(点), which pened up a whle new wrld f knwledge t the blind.
Wasn't I the “blind” in my class, being made t learn like the “sighted” students? With thughts running thrugh my head, I fund myself deeply attracted in reading and writing. I cmpleted the task in less than 40 minutes. I realized that I was nt different frm thers. I just needed a quieter place. If Luis culd find his way ut f his prblem, why shuld I ever give up?
I didn't expect anything when I handed in my paper t Mrs. Smith, s it was quite a surprise when it came back t me the next day with an “A” n it. At the bttm f the paper were these wrds, “See what yu can d when yu keep trying?”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Why was schl difficult fr the writer?
A. Because he didn't like the teacher.
B. Because the tasks were t bring t him.
C. Because he gt a kind f attentin disrder.
D. Because his classmates talked with him in class.
27. What did Mrs. Smith's wrds in Paragraph 3 shw?
A. She encuraged him. B. She laughed at him.
C. She felt srry fr him. D. She was pleased with him.
28. What des the underlined wrd “sighted” in Paragraph 5 mean?
A. Able t listen. B. Able t speak. C. Able t run. D. Able t see.
29. What is the crrect rder f the fllwing events?
①I had a kind f attentin disrder.
②Mrs. Smith gave an “A” n my paper.
③I read the stry again in my quiet rm.
④Mrs. Smith asked us t read a stry and then write n it.
A.④①③② B.①④③② C.①④②③ D.④①②③
30. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Never stp reading. B. Hw t be a great teacher.
C. Never give up easily. D. Hw t learn as the blind.
C
Sme animals can easily find their way hme after a lng jurney. Hw d they make it? Scientific research shws that they are brn with certain unusual abilities fr directin.
A certain kind f ants, fr example, can cunt their steps t avid getting lst. They can g as far as 110 meters and bring fd hme. These ants live in the pen desert, s they have nthing t guide them alng the way. It's like sme ne walking six kilmeters thrugh a dark frest.
Sme fish have an unbelievable sense f smell. They can smell even a single drp f their hme water in a large sea area. Sme sea birds have a similar ability. They are able t make a smell map f their flying area.
Sme animals can sense the earth's magnetic field (磁场), while humans can't. This magnetic field guides a certain kind f fish when they swim a lng way t a place and then back. Hw can this kind f fish d that?
Hwever, animals with such unusual abilities still have difficulty dealing with envirnmental changes caused by human activities. Fr example, many birds depend n stars fr directin, but they get lst easily at night when city lights are kept n all night. T slve this prblem, we can simply turn ff sme lights at night. Clearly, ne small act f humans may mean a lt t animals.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Where is the text mst prbably frm?
A. A strybk. B. An art magazine.
C. A guidebk. D. A science magazine.
32. Hw can a certain kind f ants find their way?
A. By imagining the way. B. By cunting their steps.
C. By bringing fd tgether. D. By walking thrugh a frest.
33. The fllwing sentences can best g after .
It is still a secret. Scientists have n gd answers yet.
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
34. What are peple advised t d accrding t the last paragraph?
A. T help animals. B. T travel at night.
C. T keep city lights n. D. T develp unusual abilities.
35. Which can be the best title fr the text?
A. Birds' Sense f Light B. Fish's Sense f Smell
C. Animals' Sense f Directin D. Animals' Sense f Magnetic Field
D
Chpsticks are used by billins f peple arund the wrld, and they have an ancient past. The Chinese have been using them fr at least 3,000 years. 36
Early chpsticks were mainly used fr cking and were able t reach deep int biling pts f water r il. 37 This happened when a rapid ppulatin grwth acrss China made cks develp cst-saving habits. They began cutting fd int smaller pieces that required less cking fuel (燃料). Chpsticks are perfect fr hlding these smaller pieces f fd.
38 Cnfucius believed that knives at the dinner table wuld remind (提醒)eaters f the slaughterhuse (屠宰场). 39 Thanks t his teaching, the use f chpsticks quickly became wild spread thrughut Asia.
Whenever and wherever Chinese peple are, they find it difficult t have a meal withut chpsticks. In additin, chpstick can be presented as a gift fr peple t express their feelings.
Accrding t a survey, ver 1.8 billin peple use chpsticks. ___40__ It has becme a cmmn cultural symbl f Chinese fd culture. There are many activities t suggest using chpsticks, such as “Chpsticks Day” in Japan, “Glden Chpsticks Award” in France and the trend f “Fr yur health, please pick up yur chpsticks” in Western cuntries.
A. The culture f chpsticks is very imprtant arund the wrld.
B. Thanks t his teaching, the use f chpsticks quickly became wild spread thrughut Asia.
C. Abut 1,500 years ag, chpsticks were taken t sme ther Asian cuntries.
D. Later, peple used chpsticks t have meals.
E. Different cultures went with different chpstick styles.
三、完形填空(15小题, 每小题1分, 共15分)
先通读短文, 掌握其大意, 然后从A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
My mm and I flew t Whitehrse t care fr my sick ld grandfather. We 41 t spend tw mnths in the twn f my yuth.
A few days befre we arrived, my grandfather called t say he was flying t Vancuver fr anther peratin(手术) . My mm had already bked the air tickets and her 42 frm wrk, s even thugh my grandfather wuldn't be there, we made the trip nrth anyway.
Grandpa 43 a dg. He gt it frm a lcal shelter (收容所) tw years earlier and renamed him “Sruffy”. 44 we were alne in my grandpa's huse with nthing t d, Scruffy saved us. The dg needed t be walked. Thse walks were 45 t re-visit where I grew up. I left that small twn behind as sn as I finished primary schl. Scruffy tk us t the schl, where 46 picture still hung.
By the fall, we were back in Trnt and Grandpa was back in Whitehrse. I flew up t 47 him. When I arrived, my grandpa was tired and 48 lt. With 48 t talk t, I fund myself chatting with Scruffy. He was always excited t see me. I gave him many 49 : Scruffster, Scruff-man, Scruffmaster. He wuld 50 reply t them all.
The last mnth f the year was 51 . My grandfather died. Visitrs came and went. My mm and I were t 52 t keep Scruffy. But it didn't matter because Scruffy had 53 the heart f my grandpa's neighbr mnths earlier. He was well taken care f.
Last summer, I tk a trip t Whitehrse. During my 54 , I visited the neighbr's hme t see Scruffy. As sn as I pened the dr, he, as 55 as ever, ran up t me, making me feel right at my grandfather's hme.
41. A. f B. in C. n D. t
42. A. leave B. change C. chice D. decisin
43. A. met B. trained C. kept D. fllwed
44. A. After B. While C. Until D. Unless
45. A. hpes B. prblems C. methds D. chances
46. A. my B. his C. her D. its
47. A. think f B. lk after C. wrry abut D. hear frm
48. A. smebdy B. anybdy C. nbdy D. everybdy
49. A. walks B. tys C. snacks D. names
50. A. happily B. quietly C. bravely D. plitely
51. A. imprtant B. sweet C. hard D. free
52. A. serius B. nervus C. lnely D. busy
53. A. wn B. missed C. ffered D. hidden
54. A. excuse B. break C. life D. stay
55. A. kind B. excited C. thankful D. natural
四、语篇填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
with pht why they give snw many year besides wait
It was still cld fr an early spring day. Sam, the wner f the website “Lve fr Panda”, shwed up n a 56 mrning at the gate f the z as usual. Fr Sam, it was a gd day t take pictures because large pandas lved snw. 57 , there were fewer visitrs when the weather was bad.
Sam is knwn as “Mr. Panda” fr his lve f the animal nw. Fr nearly 12 years, the 44- 58 -ld website designer(设计者) has been visiting the z almst daily t take panda phts. When returning hme frm the z, Sam always chses abut200 pictures and puts 59 n the website.
One day, in rder t phtgraph the panda Xiang Xiang, Sam spent ver seven hurs 60 in the cld. In Sam's eyes, Xiang Xiang was wrth the wait, thugh the visit lasted nly tw r three minutes. When peple asked him 61 he liked Xiang Xiang s much, he said, “Xiang Xiang is a daughter-like figure (人物) as she shares the same age 62 my daughter.”
Thrugh phtgraphing large pandas, Sam has made much 63 friends and becme healthier than befre. “I have learned mre abut China because f pandas. They have 64 us mre happiness here. As lng as there are large pandas in the z, I will cntinue t take 65 f them and share the jy with mre peple,” said Sam.
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Duanwu Jie, r Dragn Bat Festival, is ne f the mst imprtant festivals inChina. Chinese peple remember the great pet Qu Yuan 66 rwing dragn bats and making zngzi n this day.
Chen Wen's village is famus fr prtecting traditinal culture 67 they have the best dragn bat race team f the city. Every year, villagers raise their dragn bats frm under the river a mnth befre the festival. Then it 68 carefully cleaned and repainted. Their dragn bat is already 40 years ld. Made f a special kind f wd, it is still strng enugh 69 last fr a lng time.
This year, Chen Wen's elder brther is accepted int their dragn bat race team as 70 yungest member f it. He's nly 18, and Chen Wen is s prud f him
五、补全对话(5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A:Hi, Betty. What are yu ging t d this hliday?
B:Hi, Ann.71. .
A:Really? Where are yu ging camping?
B: We're ging t Munt Qifeng. 72. ?
A: I'm afraid nt. I have t study fr my English test.
B:Oh, dn't wrry. S When will yu g n hliday?
A:73. . I might g when I finish my English curse.
B: Well, I will help yu with yur test after I cme back.
A: It's very kind f yu. 74. ?
B: I'll take a sleep bag, a map, sunglasses and my swimsuit.
A:Oh. What are yu ging t d there?
B:75. .
A: That sunds fantastic! See yu sn.
B: See yu.
六、书面表达(20分)
毕业在际，学校英语社团公众号计划做一期主题为“为未来的自己画像”的推送。请你根据写作要求,以“T be a better me”为题用英语写一篇短文, 向社团投稿。
写作要求：1)畅想将来的你会是什么样子；
2)什么人或事给了你大的影响；
3)你将如何去遇见更好的自己；
4)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称；
5)词数100左右 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)。
参考词汇: persnality 性格; make effrts 努力; meaningful 有意义的
T be a better me
In the future, I'll be quite different frm what I am tday.
2024年中招模拟考试（二）
英语参考答案
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1-5. CBBAA 6-10. BCCAB 11-15. ACCBA 16-20. DCAEB
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25. BDCAB 26-30. CADBC 31-35. DBDAC 36-40. DACEB
三、完形填空（15小题，每题1分，共15分）
41-45. BACBD 46-50. ABCDA 51-55. CDADB
四、语篇填空（15小题，每题1分，共15分）
56. snwy 57. Besides 58. year 59. them 60. waiting
61. why 62. with 63. mre 64. given 65. phts
66. by 67. and/because 68. is 69. t 70. the
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
71. I’m ging camping (with my friends/family…).
I plan/want t g camping (with my friends/family…).
I will g camping (with my friends/family…).
…
72. D yu want t g with me/us?
Wuld yu like t jin us?
Will yu jin us?
…
73. I’m nt sure.
I dn’t knw.
I haven’t decided yet.
…
74. What will yu take (with yu)?
What will yu take fr it?
…
(半开放性答案，合理即可)
We/I will sing sngs …
…
说明:(1)学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误,评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。
(2)本评分标准每题给出了多个答案供参考,如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不一致，但只要与情景相符,上下文意思连贯,符合英语表达习惯,语言表达准确,应给分。
六、书面表达（20分）
Pssible versins:
T be a better me
In the future, I’ll be quite different frm what I am tday. I’ll be mre cnfident, kind and warm-hearted s that I can be a perfect vlunteer, helping thers whenever I can. My mther has had a huge effect n me. She always leads a simple but healthy lifestyle, and takes an active part in vluntary wrk.
T becme a better me, I’ll study hard and stay fcused n my gal. Meanwhile, I’m ging t develp healthy living habits. I’ll als make it a habit t d vluntary wrk fr peple in need and help t make the wrld mre beautiful.
I d believe my dream will cme true and make a cntributin t ur sciety in 10 r 20 years.
注意：(1) 本题总分为20分,按4个档次给合分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次。注意把握各个档次的给分范围，避免出现过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。
(2) 学生对未来的自己和影响自己的人或事的描述，以及提出的成为更好的自己的打算可详可略，文章能够合理表达出学生的想法即可。
(3) 词数少于80 的，从总分中减去2分；多于120的，建议不扣分。
(4) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(5) 如书写较差影响内容表达，在本档次内可酌情扣分，但不能因书写影响对试题评判的客观性，避免把书写美观度作为主要评分标准。
(6) 各档次的给分范围和要求
听力录音材料
一、听力理解
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: What gd weather! D yu want t g hiking r g climbing?
M: Neither. I’d like t enjy the sunshine n the bat with yu in the park.
2. W: What a terrible day! It’s been raining fr a lng time.
M: Yes. But the weather reprt says it will be sunny this afternn.
3. W: It’s five ’clck nw. When will the cncert begin?
M: In abut twenty minutes.
W: Let’s be quick, then.
4. M: Lin Feng picked mre apples than Tm.
W: But Tm picked mre than Tny.
5. W: Hw d and yur friends cme t schl?
M: Let me see. Jack and Kate cme by bike. Lucy and Jim cme by bus, but Meimei and I walk t schl.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
M: Oh!
W: Bb? What’s the matter, dear?
M: My arms hurt.
W: I’m nt surprised. Why dn’t yu stp fr a mment? Let’s have a cup f tea!
M: That’s a gd idea. I think I will.
W:Yu shuld ask ur sn t help yu with the heavier bxes.
M: Yes. Yu’re prbably right.
W: Jack, cme here. Dad needs yur help.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
M: We have s many subjects. What’s yur favrite subject?
W: Maths, I think. What abut yu?
M: I prefer English t maths. Maths is t difficult fr me.
W: Yu are interested in English s much, aren’t yu?
M: Yes. My English teacher is s pretty a lady that every by in my class likes her and her classes. Her classes are lively and interesting.
W: Oh, I see. What’s yur favrite sprt then?
M: Swimming. I nce tried baseball and ftball, but I like swimming best. And yu?
W: Me, t.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
Bys and girls, may I have yur attentin, please? There will be a special activity in ur schl hall this afternn. We will invite a fireman t cme and tell us hw t keep safe when a fire happens. The talk starts at three ’clck and ends at fur ’clck. After that, we will g ut t the playgrund. The fireman will shw us hw t put ut a fire safely. Be careful nt t stand t clse t the fire while watching. That’s all. Thank yu!
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
W: Gd evening.
M: Gd evening. I’d like t check in. Hw much is each rm?
W: 260 yuan per day.
M: I need tw rms, ne fr my parents, the ther ne fr myself.
W: Hw lng will yu stay here?
M: Three days.
W: OK. Rm 307 is yurs , and Rm 308 is fr yur parents.
M: We’re hungry nw. Are there any restaurants still pen?
W:Yes, the restaurant next t ur htel is pen 24 hurs.
M: Thank yu, madam.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
My last winter vacatin in junir high schl has just ended. I enjyed myself during the vacatin. I went t Hainan with my parents first. We flew there and stayed there fr ne week. It was really relaxing t enjy the sunshine n the beach. I did that every day. We gt hme three days befre the Spring Festival. I helped my parents clean the huse. I didn’t feel tired at all. We talked and laughed while ding the husewrk. We had a big dinner at my grandparents’ hme n New Year’s Eve. Everyne had a great time. On the first day f the new year, I gt up early t study. My parents were s surprised. I cntinued t wrk hard during the next tw weeks. I hpe I culd d better in the new term.
第四档
16～20分
完成了试题规定的任务。
— 覆盖所有内容要点。
— 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
— 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
— 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
11～15分
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
— 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
— 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
— 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
— 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
6～10分
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
— 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
— 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
— 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
— 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
1～5分
未完成试题规定的任务。
— 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
— 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
— 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
— 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共10页，六个大题，满分120分。考试时间100分钟。
2.本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效.
一、听力理解(20小题，每小题1分，共20分)
第一节 听下面五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What wuld the man like t d tday?
A. G hiking. B. G climbing. C. G bating..
2. What will the weather be like this afternn?
3. When will the cncert begin?
A. At 4:40. B. At 5:20. C. At 5:40.
4. Wh picked the fewest apples?
A. Tny. B. Tm. C. Lin Feng.
5. Hw des Lucy cme t schl?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What des the wman advise Bb t d?
A. T g t hspital. B. T have a cup f tea. C. T carry fewer bxes.
7. What's the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Dctr and patient. C. Husband and wife.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Why des the by prefer English?
A. Because he thinks English is very easy.
B. Because there is little English hmewrk.
C. Because he likes the English teacher and her classes.
9. Which sprt des the girl like best?
A. Swimming. B. Baseball. C. Ftball.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
10. Wh will be invited t the speaker's schl?
A. A pliceman. B. A fireman. C. A sprtsman.
11. Hw lng will the talk last?
A. One hur. B. Tw hurs. C. Three hurs.
12. Where will the students g after the talk?
A. T the schl hall. B. T the classrm. C. T the playgrund.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。A B. C G D.
13. Hw much is each rm a day?
A.220 yuan. B.240 yuan. C.260 yuan.
14. Wh is the man travelling with?
A. His friends. B. His parents. C. His cusins.
15. What will the man prbably d next?
A. Have a meal. B. Have a shwer. C. Have a walk.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
Adult humans sleep abut 3 hurs less than ther primates(灵 长类动物). Mnkeys and babns sleep arund 10 hurs a day.
⑤
Peple can make terrible mistakes if they dn't get enugh sleep. A lack(缺失) f sleep played a rle in accidents such as:
the Exxn Valdez il spill(泄露)
the Challenger space shuttle disaster
the Chernbyl nuclear accident
④
If yu fall asleep within 5 minutes， yu are shrt f sleep. The ideal time is between 10 and 15 minutes
③
Tiredness usually peaks(达到高峰) twice a day, at 2 a. m. and 2 p. m.
②
①
Hw many hurs f sleep d we need each day?
Newbrns:14-17
Teenagers:8-10
Adults: 7-9
Elderly adults: 7-8
FIVE ▲ ABOUT
SLEEP
Sleep is quite imprtant t peple f all ages. Sleep deprivatin (睡眠缺失) can affect ur ability t wrk and study.
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. Hw lng d teenagers need t sleep at least every day?
A. Seven hursB. Eight hurs.C. Nine hurs.D. Furteen hurs
22. What time d peple feel the sleepiest during a day?
A. By asking questinsB. By telling stries.C. By giving examples.D. By listing numbers.
23. Hw des the writer prve a lack f sleep plays a rle in accidents?
24. Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A. FACTSB. REASONSC. PROBLEMSD. SUGGESTIONS
25. What's the theme(主题) f the text?
A. SprtsB. Health.C. Culture.D. Travel.
B
As a teenager, schl was difficult fr me. I had a kind f attentin disrder(混乱 ), which means I culdn't direct my attentin t what I was ding. S when everyne else in the class was centering their attentin n tasks, I culd nt.
In my first reading class, Mrs. Smith asked us t read a stry and then write n it, all finished in 45 minutes. I immediately put up my hand and said, “Mrs. Smith, yu see, the dctr said I have attentin prblems. I might nt be able t finish the task.”
She lked dwn at me thrugh her glasses, saying, “Yu are nt different frm yur classmates, yung man.” With her encuragement, I tried. But I didn't finish the reading when the bell rang. I had t take it hme.
In the quietness f my bedrm, the stry suddenly all became clear t me. It was abut a blind persn, Luis Braille. He lived in a time when the blind culdn't get much educatin. But Luis didn't give up. Instead, he invented a reading system f raised dts(点), which pened up a whle new wrld f knwledge t the blind.
Wasn't I the “blind” in my class, being made t learn like the “sighted” students? With thughts running thrugh my head, I fund myself deeply attracted in reading and writing. I cmpleted the task in less than 40 minutes. I realized that I was nt different frm thers. I just needed a quieter place. If Luis culd find his way ut f his prblem, why shuld I ever give up?
I didn't expect anything when I handed in my paper t Mrs. Smith, s it was quite a surprise when it came back t me the next day with an “A” n it. At the bttm f the paper were these wrds, “See what yu can d when yu keep trying?”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. Why was schl difficult fr the writer?
A. Because he didn't like the teacher.
B. Because the tasks were t bring t him.
C. Because he gt a kind f attentin disrder.
D. Because his classmates talked with him in class.
27. What did Mrs. Smith's wrds in Paragraph 3 shw?
A. She encuraged him. B. She laughed at him.
C. She felt srry fr him. D. She was pleased with him.
28. What des the underlined wrd “sighted” in Paragraph 5 mean?
A. Able t listen. B. Able t speak. C. Able t run. D. Able t see.
29. What is the crrect rder f the fllwing events?
①I had a kind f attentin disrder.
②Mrs. Smith gave an “A” n my paper.
③I read the stry again in my quiet rm.
④Mrs. Smith asked us t read a stry and then write n it.
A.④①③② B.①④③② C.①④②③ D.④①②③
30. What can we learn frm the text?
A. Never stp reading. B. Hw t be a great teacher.
C. Never give up easily. D. Hw t learn as the blind.
C
Sme animals can easily find their way hme after a lng jurney. Hw d they make it? Scientific research shws that they are brn with certain unusual abilities fr directin.
A certain kind f ants, fr example, can cunt their steps t avid getting lst. They can g as far as 110 meters and bring fd hme. These ants live in the pen desert, s they have nthing t guide them alng the way. It's like sme ne walking six kilmeters thrugh a dark frest.
Sme fish have an unbelievable sense f smell. They can smell even a single drp f their hme water in a large sea area. Sme sea birds have a similar ability. They are able t make a smell map f their flying area.
Sme animals can sense the earth's magnetic field (磁场), while humans can't. This magnetic field guides a certain kind f fish when they swim a lng way t a place and then back. Hw can this kind f fish d that?
Hwever, animals with such unusual abilities still have difficulty dealing with envirnmental changes caused by human activities. Fr example, many birds depend n stars fr directin, but they get lst easily at night when city lights are kept n all night. T slve this prblem, we can simply turn ff sme lights at night. Clearly, ne small act f humans may mean a lt t animals.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Where is the text mst prbably frm?
A. A strybk. B. An art magazine.
C. A guidebk. D. A science magazine.
32. Hw can a certain kind f ants find their way?
A. By imagining the way. B. By cunting their steps.
C. By bringing fd tgether. D. By walking thrugh a frest.
33. The fllwing sentences can best g after .
It is still a secret. Scientists have n gd answers yet.
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
34. What are peple advised t d accrding t the last paragraph?
A. T help animals. B. T travel at night.
C. T keep city lights n. D. T develp unusual abilities.
35. Which can be the best title fr the text?
A. Birds' Sense f Light B. Fish's Sense f Smell
C. Animals' Sense f Directin D. Animals' Sense f Magnetic Field
D
Chpsticks are used by billins f peple arund the wrld, and they have an ancient past. The Chinese have been using them fr at least 3,000 years. 36
Early chpsticks were mainly used fr cking and were able t reach deep int biling pts f water r il. 37 This happened when a rapid ppulatin grwth acrss China made cks develp cst-saving habits. They began cutting fd int smaller pieces that required less cking fuel (燃料). Chpsticks are perfect fr hlding these smaller pieces f fd.
38 Cnfucius believed that knives at the dinner table wuld remind (提醒)eaters f the slaughterhuse (屠宰场). 39 Thanks t his teaching, the use f chpsticks quickly became wild spread thrughut Asia.
Whenever and wherever Chinese peple are, they find it difficult t have a meal withut chpsticks. In additin, chpstick can be presented as a gift fr peple t express their feelings.
Accrding t a survey, ver 1.8 billin peple use chpsticks. ___40__ It has becme a cmmn cultural symbl f Chinese fd culture. There are many activities t suggest using chpsticks, such as “Chpsticks Day” in Japan, “Glden Chpsticks Award” in France and the trend f “Fr yur health, please pick up yur chpsticks” in Western cuntries.
A. The culture f chpsticks is very imprtant arund the wrld.
B. Thanks t his teaching, the use f chpsticks quickly became wild spread thrughut Asia.
C. Abut 1,500 years ag, chpsticks were taken t sme ther Asian cuntries.
D. Later, peple used chpsticks t have meals.
E. Different cultures went with different chpstick styles.
三、完形填空(15小题, 每小题1分, 共15分)
先通读短文, 掌握其大意, 然后从A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
My mm and I flew t Whitehrse t care fr my sick ld grandfather. We 41 t spend tw mnths in the twn f my yuth.
A few days befre we arrived, my grandfather called t say he was flying t Vancuver fr anther peratin(手术) . My mm had already bked the air tickets and her 42 frm wrk, s even thugh my grandfather wuldn't be there, we made the trip nrth anyway.
Grandpa 43 a dg. He gt it frm a lcal shelter (收容所) tw years earlier and renamed him “Sruffy”. 44 we were alne in my grandpa's huse with nthing t d, Scruffy saved us. The dg needed t be walked. Thse walks were 45 t re-visit where I grew up. I left that small twn behind as sn as I finished primary schl. Scruffy tk us t the schl, where 46 picture still hung.
By the fall, we were back in Trnt and Grandpa was back in Whitehrse. I flew up t 47 him. When I arrived, my grandpa was tired and 48 lt. With 48 t talk t, I fund myself chatting with Scruffy. He was always excited t see me. I gave him many 49 : Scruffster, Scruff-man, Scruffmaster. He wuld 50 reply t them all.
The last mnth f the year was 51 . My grandfather died. Visitrs came and went. My mm and I were t 52 t keep Scruffy. But it didn't matter because Scruffy had 53 the heart f my grandpa's neighbr mnths earlier. He was well taken care f.
Last summer, I tk a trip t Whitehrse. During my 54 , I visited the neighbr's hme t see Scruffy. As sn as I pened the dr, he, as 55 as ever, ran up t me, making me feel right at my grandfather's hme.
41. A. f B. in C. n D. t
42. A. leave B. change C. chice D. decisin
43. A. met B. trained C. kept D. fllwed
44. A. After B. While C. Until D. Unless
45. A. hpes B. prblems C. methds D. chances
46. A. my B. his C. her D. its
47. A. think f B. lk after C. wrry abut D. hear frm
48. A. smebdy B. anybdy C. nbdy D. everybdy
49. A. walks B. tys C. snacks D. names
50. A. happily B. quietly C. bravely D. plitely
51. A. imprtant B. sweet C. hard D. free
52. A. serius B. nervus C. lnely D. busy
53. A. wn B. missed C. ffered D. hidden
54. A. excuse B. break C. life D. stay
55. A. kind B. excited C. thankful D. natural
四、语篇填空(15小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
with pht why they give snw many year besides wait
It was still cld fr an early spring day. Sam, the wner f the website “Lve fr Panda”, shwed up n a 56 mrning at the gate f the z as usual. Fr Sam, it was a gd day t take pictures because large pandas lved snw. 57 , there were fewer visitrs when the weather was bad.
Sam is knwn as “Mr. Panda” fr his lve f the animal nw. Fr nearly 12 years, the 44- 58 -ld website designer(设计者) has been visiting the z almst daily t take panda phts. When returning hme frm the z, Sam always chses abut200 pictures and puts 59 n the website.
One day, in rder t phtgraph the panda Xiang Xiang, Sam spent ver seven hurs 60 in the cld. In Sam's eyes, Xiang Xiang was wrth the wait, thugh the visit lasted nly tw r three minutes. When peple asked him 61 he liked Xiang Xiang s much, he said, “Xiang Xiang is a daughter-like figure (人物) as she shares the same age 62 my daughter.”
Thrugh phtgraphing large pandas, Sam has made much 63 friends and becme healthier than befre. “I have learned mre abut China because f pandas. They have 64 us mre happiness here. As lng as there are large pandas in the z, I will cntinue t take 65 f them and share the jy with mre peple,” said Sam.
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Duanwu Jie, r Dragn Bat Festival, is ne f the mst imprtant festivals inChina. Chinese peple remember the great pet Qu Yuan 66 rwing dragn bats and making zngzi n this day.
Chen Wen's village is famus fr prtecting traditinal culture 67 they have the best dragn bat race team f the city. Every year, villagers raise their dragn bats frm under the river a mnth befre the festival. Then it 68 carefully cleaned and repainted. Their dragn bat is already 40 years ld. Made f a special kind f wd, it is still strng enugh 69 last fr a lng time.
This year, Chen Wen's elder brther is accepted int their dragn bat race team as 70 yungest member f it. He's nly 18, and Chen Wen is s prud f him
五、补全对话(5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A:Hi, Betty. What are yu ging t d this hliday?
B:Hi, Ann.71. .
A:Really? Where are yu ging camping?
B: We're ging t Munt Qifeng. 72. ?
A: I'm afraid nt. I have t study fr my English test.
B:Oh, dn't wrry. S When will yu g n hliday?
A:73. . I might g when I finish my English curse.
B: Well, I will help yu with yur test after I cme back.
A: It's very kind f yu. 74. ?
B: I'll take a sleep bag, a map, sunglasses and my swimsuit.
A:Oh. What are yu ging t d there?
B:75. .
A: That sunds fantastic! See yu sn.
B: See yu.
六、书面表达(20分)
毕业在际，学校英语社团公众号计划做一期主题为“为未来的自己画像”的推送。请你根据写作要求,以“T be a better me”为题用英语写一篇短文, 向社团投稿。
写作要求：1)畅想将来的你会是什么样子；
2)什么人或事给了你大的影响；
3)你将如何去遇见更好的自己；
4)文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称；
5)词数100左右 (开头已给出，不计入总词数)。
参考词汇: persnality 性格; make effrts 努力; meaningful 有意义的
T be a better me
In the future, I'll be quite different frm what I am tday.
2024年中招模拟考试（二）
英语参考答案
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1-5. CBBAA 6-10. BCCAB 11-15. ACCBA 16-20. DCAEB
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25. BDCAB 26-30. CADBC 31-35. DBDAC 36-40. DACEB
三、完形填空（15小题，每题1分，共15分）
41-45. BACBD 46-50. ABCDA 51-55. CDADB
四、语篇填空（15小题，每题1分，共15分）
56. snwy 57. Besides 58. year 59. them 60. waiting
61. why 62. with 63. mre 64. given 65. phts
66. by 67. and/because 68. is 69. t 70. the
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
71. I’m ging camping (with my friends/family…).
I plan/want t g camping (with my friends/family…).
I will g camping (with my friends/family…).
…
72. D yu want t g with me/us?
Wuld yu like t jin us?
Will yu jin us?
…
73. I’m nt sure.
I dn’t knw.
I haven’t decided yet.
…
74. What will yu take (with yu)?
What will yu take fr it?
…
(半开放性答案，合理即可)
We/I will sing sngs …
…
说明:(1)学生答案中出现单词拼写或语法错误,评分时视其对交际的影响程度酌情扣分。
(2)本评分标准每题给出了多个答案供参考,如果考生写出的句子与所给答案不一致，但只要与情景相符,上下文意思连贯,符合英语表达习惯,语言表达准确,应给分。
六、书面表达（20分）
Pssible versins:
T be a better me
In the future, I’ll be quite different frm what I am tday. I’ll be mre cnfident, kind and warm-hearted s that I can be a perfect vlunteer, helping thers whenever I can. My mther has had a huge effect n me. She always leads a simple but healthy lifestyle, and takes an active part in vluntary wrk.
T becme a better me, I’ll study hard and stay fcused n my gal. Meanwhile, I’m ging t develp healthy living habits. I’ll als make it a habit t d vluntary wrk fr peple in need and help t make the wrld mre beautiful.
I d believe my dream will cme true and make a cntributin t ur sciety in 10 r 20 years.
注意：(1) 本题总分为20分,按4个档次给合分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次。注意把握各个档次的给分范围，避免出现过于集中在每个档次的最低分数段。
(2) 学生对未来的自己和影响自己的人或事的描述，以及提出的成为更好的自己的打算可详可略，文章能够合理表达出学生的想法即可。
(3) 词数少于80 的，从总分中减去2分；多于120的，建议不扣分。
(4) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(5) 如书写较差影响内容表达，在本档次内可酌情扣分，但不能因书写影响对试题评判的客观性，避免把书写美观度作为主要评分标准。
(6) 各档次的给分范围和要求
听力录音材料
一、听力理解
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: What gd weather! D yu want t g hiking r g climbing?
M: Neither. I’d like t enjy the sunshine n the bat with yu in the park.
2. W: What a terrible day! It’s been raining fr a lng time.
M: Yes. But the weather reprt says it will be sunny this afternn.
3. W: It’s five ’clck nw. When will the cncert begin?
M: In abut twenty minutes.
W: Let’s be quick, then.
4. M: Lin Feng picked mre apples than Tm.
W: But Tm picked mre than Tny.
5. W: Hw d and yur friends cme t schl?
M: Let me see. Jack and Kate cme by bike. Lucy and Jim cme by bus, but Meimei and I walk t schl.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
M: Oh!
W: Bb? What’s the matter, dear?
M: My arms hurt.
W: I’m nt surprised. Why dn’t yu stp fr a mment? Let’s have a cup f tea!
M: That’s a gd idea. I think I will.
W:Yu shuld ask ur sn t help yu with the heavier bxes.
M: Yes. Yu’re prbably right.
W: Jack, cme here. Dad needs yur help.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
M: We have s many subjects. What’s yur favrite subject?
W: Maths, I think. What abut yu?
M: I prefer English t maths. Maths is t difficult fr me.
W: Yu are interested in English s much, aren’t yu?
M: Yes. My English teacher is s pretty a lady that every by in my class likes her and her classes. Her classes are lively and interesting.
W: Oh, I see. What’s yur favrite sprt then?
M: Swimming. I nce tried baseball and ftball, but I like swimming best. And yu?
W: Me, t.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
Bys and girls, may I have yur attentin, please? There will be a special activity in ur schl hall this afternn. We will invite a fireman t cme and tell us hw t keep safe when a fire happens. The talk starts at three ’clck and ends at fur ’clck. After that, we will g ut t the playgrund. The fireman will shw us hw t put ut a fire safely. Be careful nt t stand t clse t the fire while watching. That’s all. Thank yu!
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
W: Gd evening.
M: Gd evening. I’d like t check in. Hw much is each rm?
W: 260 yuan per day.
M: I need tw rms, ne fr my parents, the ther ne fr myself.
W: Hw lng will yu stay here?
M: Three days.
W: OK. Rm 307 is yurs , and Rm 308 is fr yur parents.
M: We’re hungry nw. Are there any restaurants still pen?
W:Yes, the restaurant next t ur htel is pen 24 hurs.
M: Thank yu, madam.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
My last winter vacatin in junir high schl has just ended. I enjyed myself during the vacatin. I went t Hainan with my parents first. We flew there and stayed there fr ne week. It was really relaxing t enjy the sunshine n the beach. I did that every day. We gt hme three days befre the Spring Festival. I helped my parents clean the huse. I didn’t feel tired at all. We talked and laughed while ding the husewrk. We had a big dinner at my grandparents’ hme n New Year’s Eve. Everyne had a great time. On the first day f the new year, I gt up early t study. My parents were s surprised. I cntinued t wrk hard during the next tw weeks. I hpe I culd d better in the new term.
第四档
16～20分
完成了试题规定的任务。
— 覆盖所有内容要点。
— 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
— 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
— 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
11～15分
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
— 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
— 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
— 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
— 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
6～10分
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
— 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
— 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
— 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
— 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
1～5分
未完成试题规定的任务。
— 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
— 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
— 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
— 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
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