10,浙江省杭州市丁兰实验中学2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中学情调查英语试题
展开第一部分听力(略)
第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项,或用英语
回答问题(请注意小题后的词数要求)。
A
Are yu gd at writing stries? There will be the Shrt Stry Writing Cmpetitin(比赛)next week. Cme and jin in the cmpetitin!
*The cmpetitin will be nly fr the students in Grand Middle Schl.
*Please write a stry f 300-450 wrds.
*Pictures are als welcme with yur stry.
*Yu must send yur stry t swc@163.cm frm May 15th t June 20th.
*Yu'll knw yur place by June 30th. And we'll send it t yu by e-mail at the end f the cmpetitin.
Fr mre infrmatin, please call Mr. White at 847-8996.
( )16. What can Jenny get if she wins the secnd place in the cmpetitin?
A. 3 dictinaries and 20 bks.B. 1 dictinary and 5 bks.
C. 2 dictinaries and 10 bks.D. 3 dictinaries and 10 bks.
( )17. If yu want t jin in the Shrt Stry Writing Cmpetitin, when can yu send yur stry?
A. On June 25.B. On May 31.C. On May 5.D. On June 30.
( )18. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. All students can jin in the cmpetitin.B. Pictures are nt welcme with yur stry.
C. We can email Mr. White t get mre infrmatin.
D. Yu can write a stry f 350 wrds r s t jin in the cmpetitin.
B
On Sunday afternn, after Tina finishes her hmewrk, she plays with her dg and then watches her favrite TV shw. Her mm tells her t make her schl things tidy first, but she desn't listen. “I'll d it in a minute,” she says.
After watching TV, Tina cmes t her rm t tidy up her schl things. After five minutes, she runs t her mm, “Mm, I can't find my English bk. D yu knw where it is?”
Mrs. Brwn says n and she jins Tina in lking fr it. After abut ten minutes, they see the bk in their dg's muth!
Tina runs t Tny quickly and takes the bk ut. She lks at Tny and wants t beat(打) him, but Mrs. Brwn stps her and says, “Dear, I knw yu are feeling terrible nw. But yu may have a prblem(问题)first.”
Tina feels srry and then knws what her prblem is. D yu knw?
( )19. What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 1 refer t?
A. Ding hmewrk.B. Playing with the dg.
C. Watching a TV shw.D. Tidying up her schl things.
( )20. Where des Tina find her English bk?
A. In her rm.B. In her schlbag.C. In her dg's muth.D. In her mm's rm.
( )21. Which f the fllwing is the right rder?
①Tina feels srry.②Tina watches TV.
③Tina finishes her hmewrk.④Tina lks fr her English bk.
A.②③①④B.②③④①C.③②④①D.③②①④
( )22. What d yu think Tina's prblem can be?
A. She always listens t her mm.B. She watches TV fr t lng.
C. She isn't friendly t the dg.D. She desn't keep her things tidy.
C
Happy Future is an animal help center. The wrkers in it ften think f great ideas t get their dgs adpted(被收养该试卷源自 全站资源不到一元,每日更新。 的).
Jenny is ne f the wrkers! There is a seven-year-ld dg with nly ne ear at the center. When she finds that n ne wants t adpt the dg, she thinks f an idea She lets the dg paint(用颜料画)beautiful pictures. Peple lve the dg's pictures a lt. And then the dg has a cl name -Van Halen.
Many peple lve Van Halen's stry. The animal help center hlds(举办) sme shws t shw Van Halen's pictures every mnth. Lts f peple cme t watch the shws and buy Van Halen's pictures. Then the wrkers use the mney(钱) t help ther dgs at Happy Future t find gd hmes.
Van Halen is a big star. A lt f peple knw the kind dg and like it. Jenny says Van Halen will have a new hme and its new family are nice peple. Jenny wants it t have a happy life.
( )23. Which questin can the secnd paragraph answer?
A. Hw ld is Van Halen?B. What des Van Halen like eating?
C. What animals des Van Halen like?D. When is Van Halen's birthday?
( )24. What is Jenny like?
A. She is nt a clever wrker.B. She is a kind wrker.
C. She desn't wrk hard.D. She desn't like t ask fr help.
( )25. What can we learn frm Paragraph 4?
A. Van Halen has a bring life in Happy Future.B. Mre wrkers will wrk in the animal help center.
C. Van Halen will nt live in the animal help center.D. Van Halen will live with Jenny and her family.
( )26. Why des the writer write the passage?
A. T let us knw dgs can help peple d difficult things.B. T tel us hw t help adpted dgs have a gd life.
C. T let us knw where we can watch great animal shws.
D. T tell us abut a nice animal help center and a different dg.
D
Friends are imprtant because they make yu happy, they share many nice things with yu, and they're there fr yu when yu need help. Smetimes we may feel it difficult t make friends. The fllwing tw ways may help yu make friends easily.
Make yurself free. If yu want t make friends, yu need t have time t meet and talk with peple. It yu're always busy, friends may nt cme t find yu because they dn't want t bther(打扰)yu. When yu're at schl, yu can sit smewhere with ther peple. It desn't have t be a crwded(人多的) table, but try t sit at ne table with at least(至少) tw ther peple.
Jin a club t meet new peple. Yu can jin the art club at schl if yu like drawing. If yu lve t sing and dance, g t the music club. Yu will find sme peple with the same hbby(爱好) as yu. It is easy fr yu t make friends with them because yu can have a nice talk abut yur hbbies. And then yu can talk mre abut yur hbbies with them.
I hpe everyne can have a lt f gd friends and a happy life.
( )27. Why are friends imprtant accrding t the passage?
①Because they make us happy.②Because they share nice things with us.
③Because they knw hw we feel.④Because they can give us help.
A.①③④B.①②③C.①②④D.②③④
( )28. What is imprtant fr making friends accrding t the writer?
A. Lts f mney.B. Free time.C. Nice clthes.D. Gd luck.
( )29. What des Paragraph 3 mainly tell us?
A. Students can't be afraid f making friends utside.B. We can't g t crwded places with ur friends.
C. It's wrng fr peple with different hbbies t be friends.
D. We can easily make friends with peple having the same hbby as us.
( )30. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
A.①/②③/④B.①/②/③④C.①②/③/④D.①②/③④
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
下面文章中有5处(第31-35题)需要添加首句。请从以下选项(A、B、C、D、E和F)中选出符合各段意思的首句。选项中有一项是多余选项。
A. It is the schl dining hall.B. Here is the schl teaching building.
C. That is the schl theatre(剧院).D. This is the schl library.
E. It is the schl chess club.F. This is the schl playgrund.
(31)___________It is a large and clean ne. Many students cme here and d sme activities every weekday. Yu can take a walk r run, but yu can't bring a pet dg here.
(32)___________Only students have lunch in it. 100 students can eat lunch here at the same time. Dn't waste(浪费)any fd r drinks.
(33)___________It is large and new. Students can read bks and d their hmewrk here. Dn't talk ludly here. (34)___________There are thirty classrms and five teachers' ffices in it. Keep the hallways and
classrms clean. Dn't eat here.
(35)___________Students can watch mvies in it. At the art festivals, students can als watch sme shws there. If yu watch mvies r shws, yu shuld arrive befre they start. Remember t keep the chairs clean.
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出一个最佳选项。
Tday is Mnday and the weather is fine. It's 9:15 am. And it's time__36__the labr(劳动)class. Ms. White__37__all the students t g t the schl farm. Betty and her__38__are very happy. They think they can__39__. They'll eat pears and apples n the farm. But when they cme t the farm, they dn't__40__any fruits.
Betty asks, “Ms. White, __41__are the fruits?”
Ms. White says, “Lk! In this big__42__.”
Sme students lk int the bx, but they__43__see tls(工具) and seeds.
“We'll plant the fruit seeds tday. Let's __44__it nw!” Ms. White says.
All the students take the tls__45__plant the seeds. At first, it's a nice thing fr them. But after a shrt time, sme students dn't like ding this. __46__think the planting is bring and difficult.
At this time, Ms. White says, “Bys and girls, it’s difficult t turn a seed int (把一粒种子变成)a fruit. And we can't finish it in ne__47__r ne day. It needs a lng__48__and hard wrk. After that, we can have fruits t eat. It's__49__fr us t knw hw a seed turns int a fruit.”
Nw, the students__50__why they have the labr class.
( )B.frC.abutD.t
( )B.helpsC.asksD.leaves
( )B.studentsC.teachersD.classmates
( ) utB.cmebackC.get upD.think abut
( )B.seeC.likeD.want
( )B.whenC.whyD.where
( )B.bagC.bxD.desk
( )B.justC.ftenD.never
( )B.meetC.haveD.play
( )B.ifC.butD.and
( )B.YuC.SheD.They
( )B.classC.rmD.stre
( )B.shwC.stryD.walk
( )B.smallC.shyD.gd
( )B. takeC.knwD.tell
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)第二节(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
It's a fine Sunday mrning. Anna and her mm want t have a(51)_________(relax)time in the park. They get n a bus ging t the park. “Lk, Mm!”Anna says. “The(52)_________(drive) hat and my hat have the same clr!”
Then she walks t the bus driver(53)_________(quick) and says, “Lk, Ms. Driver! Our(54)_________(hat)are bth red.”
“Shh, Anna! Can't yu see the sign (标牌) ‘Dn't talk t the driver’? It's very dangerus (危险的),” Mm says.
“I'm srry, Mm,” Anna says. Then she (55)__________(stp)talking t the driver. After a lng ride, they arrive at the park.
“Mm, can I play with my ty car nw?” Anna asks.
“Yes, but dn't g t far. Yu can nly play here,” Mm says. Then Anna is happy (56)________(play)with her ty car and has a great time in the park. (57)________11:50 am, Mm wants t leave. “Cme n, Anna!”Mm says, (58)________
Anna keeps playing.
“Anna, please be(59)_________gd girl,”Mm says.
Anna stps and says, “Dn't yu remember the sign n the bus, Mm? Yu can't (60)_________(talk)t me when I drivel Dn't yu knw the imprtant rule?”
“Haha, yu're right! But we have t g nw,” Mm says.
第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词或短语的适当形式填空,每个单词或短语仅用一次。
61. --My brther can play the pian. --My sister can___________d that. She ften plays it at schl shws.
62. She has___________friends because she is very utging.
63. --Jim, hw abut___________yur dg t my hme? I want t play with it. --OK. See yu later!
64. Dn't be___________t ask me fr help if yu have any prblems.
65. There are s many___________n the playgrund. They are playing games.
B.根据下列句子及所给的首字母或汉语提示,写出各单词的正确、完全形式(每空限填一词)。
66. We all like red clthes during the Spring Festival. The clr red is a s___________f gd luck in China.
67. --Kate. des the zngzi t___________gd? --Yes, it's really delicius. D yu want t have a try?
68. Elephants are very smart. They still r___________the way after walking fr a lng time.
69. My neighbr is always n___________, and he likes playing lud music in the evening.
70. I p___________playing basketball-everyday because I want t be a basketball player.
71. Welcme t Hangzhu. It is a___________(美丽的)city with a lng histry.
72. There are ne___________(百)peple in the hall.
73. ___________(非洲)is a gd place t enjy the wildlife(野生动物).
74. She has a___________(梦想)f becming a famus singer.
75. He___________(有时)ges jgging in the park after wrk.
第二节书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
假设你是刘敏,你的美国笔友Gina给你发了一封电子邮件。请你阅读后回复。邮件的开头和落款已给出,不计入总字数
Dear Liu Min,
Hw's everything ging? Yu said yu are a vlunteer(志愿者) at the children's hme in the last e-mail. Hw d yu g t the children's hme? What d yu think f the children there? What d yu usually d at the children's hme? By the way, I will g t the z t see animals this weekend. D yu like animals? Please tell me mre.
Hpe t hear frm yu.
Yurs,
Gina
要求:短文应包括所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;词数60左右。
16-18 CBD 19-22 DCCD 23-26 ABCD 27-30 CBDA 31-35 FADBC
36-40 BCDAB 41-45 DCBAD 46-50 DBADC
51.relaxing; 52.driver’s; 53.quickly; 54.hats; 55.stps; 56.t play; 57.At; 58.but; 59.a; 60.talk;
61.als; 62.lts f; 63.bringing; 64.afraid; 65.children; 66.symbl; 67.taste; 68.remember; 69.nisy; 70.practice; 71.beautiful; 72.hundred; 73.Africa; 74.dream; 75.smetimes;Place(名次)
The 1st
The 2nd
The 3rd t the 8th
What t get
3 dictinaries and 20 bks
2 dictinaries and 10 bks
1 dictinary and 5 bks
child, als, afraid, lts f, bring
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