广西壮族自治区百色市2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中考试英语试题

这是一份广西壮族自治区百色市2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中考试英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了 M， W等内容，欢迎下载使用。


2023~2024学年度下学期阶段质量调研试题
七年级英语 听力材料及参考答案
英语听力测试
下面是听力试音时间。
M：Hi, Helen. Happy birthday!
W：Thank yu, Bill.
M：S, hw ld are yu, Helen?
W：I’m twelve. Hw ld are yu?
M：I’m thirteen.
W：When is yur birthday?
M：My birthday is in August.
W：Well, d yu want t cme t my birthday party?
M：Oh, yes. When is it?
W：At three this afternn.
M：OK, great. See yu.
（播两遍）
试音到此结束。
英语听力考试现在开始。
（一）听句子，选图片。
你将听到五个句子，请选出与所听句子内容相符的图片，有一幅图是多余的。每个句子读两遍。
1. My favrite animal is elephants.
2. Yu can’t eat r drink here.
3. My mther likes ging shpping n the weekends.
4. Mike cmes t Beijing by plane.
5. Can yu make yur bed every mrning?
（二）听短对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，请根据对话内容，选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. M：What are yu ding nw, Mary?
W：I am reading a stry bk.
7. W：What a lvely dg, hw ld is it?
M：It’s nly six mnths ld.
8. W：Can yu play cmputer games at hme, Tm?
M：Yes, but nly n Saturday nights, fr tw hurs.
9. M：Wh is the girl under the tree, Cindy?
W：She is my best friend, Alice.
10. W：Hw d yu get t schl, Jack?
M：I ride my bike because it’s nly 5 kilmeters frm my hme t schl.
（三）听长对话，选择最佳答案。
你将听到三段对话，请根据对话内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案，每段对话读两遍。
请听第一段对话，回答第11至13小题。
W：What’s yur favrite sprt, Alex?
M：My favrite sprt is basketball.
W：Our schl has many clubs. D yu want t jin the basketball club?
M：N, I dn’t. But I want t jin the sccer club.
W：OK. Let’s jin the sccer club. Then we can play sccer tgether.
M：When can we play sccer in the sccer club?
W：We can play sccer in the sccer club n Tuesday afternn.
请听第二段对话，回答第14至16小题。
W：D yu want t g t Jim’s birthday party tmrrw, Tm?
M：I’d lve t. Hw many friends des Jim ask?
W：Six. What shuld we buy fr him?
M：Jim likes music. S let’s buy sme CDs fr him.
W：When des the party start?
M：It starts at a quarter t seven in the afternn. Dn’t be late.
请听第三段对话，回答第17至20小题。
W：Hi, Dave. D yu want t watch the basketball game in the park n Thursday evening?
M：I’d lve t, but I can’t, Linda. I can’t g ut n schl nights.
W：Oh, that’s t bad.
M：I have t many rules at hme. I must practice the guitar fr tw hurs in the evening.
W：Can yu watch TV n schl nights?
M：Yes, I can. But I can nly watch fr half an hur. And I must make my bed after getting up.
W：Me t. My mther says it’s a gd habit t make the bed clean and tidy.
（四）听短文，选择最佳答案。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，选出每个问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
Mary ges t see Bb tday. Mary is very happy t say that “Hw big yur huse is! Bb.” Bb says “My grandparents’ hme is very big, t. But they live far away frm us. It’s abut 500 kilmeters away.” S Bb and his parents g t see their grandparents tw times a year. They g there by train. The train ride takes abut six hurs. But Bb says the train ride isn’t bring. It’s really interesting, because he can see many interesting things n the way t his grandparents’ hme.
（五）听短文，填信息。
你将听到一篇短文，请根据短文内容，将所缺信息填入答题卡对应的横线上，每空一词。短文读三遍。
It’s Sunday tday. Lisa desn’t g t schl. After getting up, she runs fr thirty minutes then she has an egg, sme bread and a glass f milk fr breakfast. After that she starts t d her hmewrk. She finishes her hmewrk at 10:00 ’clck. At 10:30, Lisa ges t the clthes stre with her mther. She wants t buy a T­shirt fr her father. Why? Because her father’s birthday is cming.
In the afternn, She ges t the swimming club t learn swimming. She likes swimming and she wants t be a swimming star. She wants t be a running star, t. She hpes her dream can cme true.
英语听力考试到此结束，请同学们将听力答案转涂到答题卡上，然后继续做笔试部分的题目。
参考答案
作文范文
Dear Bill,
I’m s happy t make friends with yu.
I’m a lvely girl. I like playing vlleyball, because it can keep me healthy. I can als play chess. It’s abut 3 kilmeters frm my hme t schl. I usually g t schl by bike because it’s gd exercise. It usually takes me 15 minutes t get t schl. I like my schl life very much. There are many clubs in ur schl. We can jin sme f them. But my schl als has many schl rules. Fr example, we can’t be late fr schl.
Yurs,
Mary
评分标准
一、听力测试（26—30小题）、选词填空（76—85小题）
按参考答案评分，26—30小题，每小题单词拼写完全正确评1分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分，不设小数点以下分值。76—85小题，每小题单词拼写完全正确评1.5分，形式不对（含大小写错误）不予评分。
二、书面表达
1．本题满分为15分，不设小数点以下分值。按五个档次评分（见下表）。
2．本题具有一定的开放性，考生可以根据要点紧扣主题适当发挥，但必须涵盖所有要点内容。
3．评分时，先根据考生的书面表达内容及语言表达情况，初步确定其所属档次，然后根据该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次，最后评分。相同的错误不重复计算；单词拼写错误四个以上扣0.5分，全文最多扣2分；字数少于70词扣1分。
4．文中若透露个人信息，一律不予评分。
五级写作评分标准
1-5
EDAFC
6-10
BCBAA
11-13
CAB
14-16
BCB
17-20
BCAC
21-25
ABACA
26
30/thirty
27
finishes
28
T-shirt
29
swimming
30
star
31-35
ABCBC
36-40
ABCBA
41-45
DBFEC
46-50
BCACC
51-55
BCCAC
56-60
TFFTF
61-65
ABBCA
66-70
AABCC
71-75
CACBC
76
eight
77
never
78
leaves
79
tidy
80
at
81
because
82
wman
83
quickly
84
minutes
85
her
档次
分数
评分标准
第五档
14~15分
很好地完成了规定的写作任务。包含所有内容要点，结构完整，语句流畅，意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇，语法和词汇错误极少（没有或仅有1处语法错误），格式正确，书写规范。
第四档
11~13分
较好地完成了规定的写作任务。基本上包含所有内容要点，结构较完整，语句完整，意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少（有2~3处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写较为规范。
第三档
8~10分
基本上完成了规定的写作任务。包含主要内容要点，结构欠完整，少数语句不通顺，意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有4~5处语法错误），格式基本正确，书写基本规范。
第二档
5~7分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只包含少数内容要点，结构不完整，多数语句欠完整，意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多（有6~7处语法错误），影响理解，格式不够正确，书写欠规范。
第一档
0~4分
未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。只写出个别要点，结构不完整，多数语句不完整或意思不明，语法和词汇错误很多，书写不规范。