辽宁省抚顺市新抚区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中教学质量检测英语试题

这是一份辽宁省抚顺市新抚区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中教学质量检测英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 — ?， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

考试时间：90分钟 试卷满分：90分
※考生注意：请在答题卡各题目规定答题区域作答，答在本试卷上无效。
★第一卷（选择题部分共35分）
Ⅰ.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
l.—The is dirty. Hw can we make fd here?
—Let’s clean it right nw.
A. library B. classrm C. kitchen D. statin
2. The train at 3:20. We must g quickly.
A. calls B. wrks C. walks D. leaves
3. Red is a symbl gd luck fr Chinese peple.
A. frm B. f C. abutD. n
4. This is a very village because there are nly 100 villagers here.
A. busy B. cl C. quiet D. welcme
5. My cusin can dance very well. I can dance very well.
A. als B. nly C. still D. t
6. My mm wants t drive me t schl, s I take the subway.
A. must B. mustn’t C. have t D. dn’t have t
7. In class, we must the teacher and we can’t eat r sleep.
A. listen t B. get t C. talk with D. play with
8. —Wh is that girl?
—She’s Tina. She’s playing vlleyball with her friends. She ften sprts afterschl.
A. play B. plays C. is playing D. are playing
9. — ?
—He is talking with his friend n the phne.
A. What’s Jack dingB. Hw is Jack
C. What’s Jack talking abut D. Hw’s Jack’s cusin
10. —We can jin the chess club.
— . I like playing chess.
A. See yuB. Sunds gdC. Thank yuD. It lks nice
Ⅱ.完型填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读短文，掌握其大意，从A、B、C、D中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In a yellw huse lives a big white dg. His name is White.
He has everything, but he’s nt happy. His wner(主人) Anna ften wrks late and she desn’t have much 11
t play with him.
A little girl lives with her tw dgs next t White’s huse.
White thinks, “It must be fun t play with 12 .” Then he runs t the little girl’s huse, 13 the little girl desn’t like White.
White knws Mrs. Green has a little yellw dg. They 14 near his huse, t. S he runs int Mrs. Green’s huse.
Mrs. Green is 15 t see White and plays with him. But after ten 16 , she sits n her sfa and ges t sleep.
“It’s 17 I want t g hme.”
White isn’t happy. He thinks, “ 18 can play with me?”
Then Anna cmes hme. She’s s nice. She likes him and she desn’t just sit n the sfa. They play games and she tells him that she 19 him s much at wrk.
“She is the best wner 20 me,” White thinks. “I’m a lucky dg!”
11. A. fd B. fun C. time D. luck
12. A. me B. yu C. itD. them
13. A. and B. r C. because D. but
14. A. walk B. live C. stp D. wrk
15. A. afraid B. easy C. happy D. srry
16. A. mnths B. weeks C. days D. minutes
17. A. great B. bring C. scary D. different
18. A. What B. Where C. Wh D. Hw
19. A. misses B. fllws C. watches D. thanks
20. A. atB. fr C. frm D. with
Ⅲ.阅读理解（共两节，满分15分）
第一节：（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读短文，然后根据其内容从A、B、C、D中选择最佳选项。
Passage 1
21. Tny’s pet is frm his .
A. cusinB. friendC. uncle D. grandpa
22. What clr is Plly?
A. Black.B. Green and yellw.C. Brwn.D. Yellw and white.
23. Tm thinks his pet is .
A. lazy B. cute C. beautiful D. smart
24. What’s Dudu’s favrite fd?
A. Fish.B. Apples.C. Meat.D. Vegetables.
25. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Piggy is a cat.B. Plly is tw years ld.
C. Dudu can say “Hell”.D. Alex likes taking a walk.
Passage 2
Lily and Lucy are playing in the living rm.
“Meetu, Meetu! I am Meetu.”
Lily lks at Lucy and says, “What is that? It sunds scary.”
“I dn’t knw,” says Lucy, “but I think it is funny.”
They lk ut f the windw and find a parrt(鹦鹉) in a tree.
Lily and Lucy happily g ut int the garden(花园). This parrt is very beautiful. They give(给) the parrt sme fd and play with it.
The girls take the parrt hme. Mm is making breakfast in the kitchen. They run t ask her, “Mm, can we keep this parrt?”
Mm lks at the parrt and says, “N, I am srry. The parrt belngs t Mrs. Miller. It must be lst.”
Lily and Lucy are sad(难过的) t hear this, but they give the parrt back t Mrs. Miller. Mrs. Miller desn’t live far frm them. She is happy tgether pet back. “Thank yu. Yu girls are s nice,” she says. “Oh, yu tw lk sad. Yu are always welcme t cme here and play with Meetu.”
Lily and Lucy are happy t hear this.
26. Lily feel after hearing “Meetu, Meetu! I am Meetu.”
A. happy B. afraid C. funny D. srry
27. Where d Lily and Lucy find the parrt?
A. In the dining hall.B. In the kitchen.
C. In the living rm.D. In the garden.
28. What des the wrds “belngs t” mean in Chinese?
A.模仿B.带领C.属于D.袭击
29.Lily and Lucy may(可能) next.
A. buy a parrtB. give the parrt sme fd
C. take the parrt hme D. g t Mrs. Miller’s huse ften
30.What’s the best title(标题) fr the passage?
A. A lst petB. A nice wman
C. A smart girlD. A beautiful garden
第二节：（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
阅读下面短文，然后从短文后的五个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Passage 3
Dave is my best friend. He usually lives in Lndn, but nw he is in Califrnia. 31
Dave sends me messages(发信息) every day. This is ne f the messages: “Hell. Rick. I’m having a break(休息) between classes. 32 Sme are studying and sme are reading. Sme bys are talking abut sprts. Sme girls are singing sngs. I am taking phts f everyne.” 33
Dave lives faraway nw. I miss him a lt. We can’t meet ften, but it’s OK because we ften send messages. 34 We als use We Chat t send phts. I like hearing abut Califrnia because there are s many differences(差别) between Califrnia and Lndn.
Here is als gd news. 35 I am very excited abut that!
A. My classmates are ding different things.
B. I like hearing abut Dave’s life at schl.
C. And n weekends we can talk n the phne.
D. My parents say I can g and visit Dave in the summer.
E. His parents are wrking in Califrnia, s he is there, t.
★第二卷（非选择题部分 共55分）
Ⅳ.句子翻译（共8小题，满分10分）
根据所给中文完成句子翻译。（局部翻译每小题1分；整句翻译每小题2分）
36.我们必须准时到校。
We must get t schl .
37.Dale每天弹吉他一个小时。
Dale fr an hur every day.
38.这个周末去电影院怎么样?
What abut this weekend?
39.他们不想砍倒这些树。
They dn’t want t .
40.妈妈对我要求严格。
Mm me.
41.Linda通常步行去图书馆吗?
Des Linda usually the library?
42.现在我的哥哥正在做作业。
.
43.到学校花费你多长时间?
?
Ⅴ.句型转换（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
44. He usually exercises n weekends.（改写为否定句）
He usually n weekends.
45. We can’t talk in the library.（改写为祈使句）
in the library.
46. It is abut three kilmeters frm here t my hme.（对划线部分提问）
is it frm here t yur hme?
47. Gina can play the pian.（对划线部分提问）
Gina d?
48. The lins are frm Africa.（改写为同义句）
The lins Africa.
Ⅵ.阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读短文，然后用短文括号中所给词的适当形式填空
My uncle’s name is Mark Smith, and he is frm New Yrk. He is a great sccer player and he 49 (wrk) fr a prfessinal(职业的) sccer club. 50 (them) sccer games are usually n Saturdays. On Saturday mrning, he gets up at 7:30 and then 51 (exercise) fr an hur. At abut nine, He has breakfast 52 (with) his family at hme. He usually has sme bread and an egg. After breakfast, he 53 (either) reads bks r tells his sn Sme 54 (stry) .He usually ges t the Sprts 55 (center) at 11:30 and has lunch with the 56 (ther) players at 12:15. They usually eat 57 (health) fd like chicken and vegetables fr lunch. The game starts(开始) at 3:00 and 58 (finish) at a quarter t five. After the game, he usually gets hme by subway. At hme, he talks t his family abut the game. And then he watches sprts games n TV. They help him a lt.
Ⅶ.阅读回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
Jeff is ten years ld. He lives with his parents in the USA. Jeff’s birthday is cming. He wants t get sme nice gifts(礼物).
Jeff has an aunt. She is in Kenya, Africa. She has a great idea. She gives sme mney(给些钱) t a grup t celebrate(庆祝) Jeffs birthday. The grup helps save elephants.
On Jeff’s birthday, he get sane-mail frm the grup. They say thanks t him. Jeff is very happy. He wants t learn abut elephants and the grup’s wrk. S he finds time t g t Kenya with his mther. The by lves the animals and he wants t help save them, t.
When Jeff cmes back, he sets up(设立) a grup. It tells peple t save the elephants in Kenya. Jeff als wrks t make mney fr an elephant park in Thailand. “On my next birthday,” he says, “I dn’t need any gifts. I hpe my friends can give mney t the park.”
Jeff lves his wrk and he is happy he can help elephants.
59. Wh gives mney t a grup fr Jeff’s birthday?
60. What des Jeff get frm the grup n his birthday?
61. Where des Jeff g with his mther?
62. Des Jeff’s grup tell peple t save the elephants in Thailand?
63. What makes Jeff happy?
Ⅷ.任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读短文，然后按要求完成任务。
I’m Alan. Tday is Sunday.(A) My Parents want t take my sister and me t the z. We are very happy. My mther takes sme bread. My sister takes sme fruit. And I take sme milk and water. We leave hme at 9:00 a.m.
After half an hur’s drive, we get t the z. Lts f peple are there. My father(B) buys fur tickets(票) and we walk int the z. First, we take a(C) small bus t the beast area(猛兽区). There we get n a small train. It takes us arund the area. We see lins and tigers.
After the train ride, we walk dwn the z and see many ther (D) (animal), like pandas, giraffes and kalas. My father (E) (take) lts f phts fr us.
We have lunch at the z at abut 1:00 p.m. After lunch, we g hme thugh(尽管) I want t g back t see the animals again.
64.将文中划线句子（A）翻译成汉语：

65.写出文中（B）和（C）处划线单词的反义词 ， 。
66.在文中（D）和（E）的空白处分别用括号内所给词的适当形式填空
67.根据文章内容补全句子：
Alan’s family get t the z by at in the mrning.
68.根据文章内容回答问题：What animals des Alan see n the train?

Ⅸ.书面表达（共10分）
69.根据要求完成作文，词数：约60-80词。
假如你是David，现在是周六晚上八点，你收到了你的美国朋友Jim的微信消息。请你根据消息内容回复他。
注意：1.短文须包含微信消息中Jim询问的所有信息，可适当发挥；
2.开头已给出，不计入总词数；
3.文中不得透露任何个人和学校的真实信息。
2022—2023学年度（下）学期期中质量检测
七年级英语试卷参考答案
试卷满分：90分
Ⅰ.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
1-5 CDBCA6-10 DABAB
Ⅱ.完型填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
11-15 CDDBC16-20 DBCAB
Ⅲ. 阅读理解（共两节，满分15分）
第一节：（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
21-25 CBDAD26-30 BDCDA
第二节：（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
31-35 EABCD
Ⅳ.句子翻译（共8小题，满分10分）
36. n time
37. plays the guitar
38. ging t the mvies
39. cut dwn these/the trees/cut these/the trees dwn
40. is strict with
41. walk t
42. My brther is ding （his） hmewrk nw.
43. Hw lng des it take yu t get t/arrive at schl?
V.句型转换（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
44. desn’t, exercise
45. Dn’t talk
46. Hw far
47. What can
48. cme frm
Ⅵ. 阅读填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
49. wrks 50. Their 51. exercises 52. with 53. either
54. stries 55. Center 56. ther 57. healthy 58. finishes
Ⅶ.阅读回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
59. His/Jeff’s aunt.
60. An e-mail.
61. T Kenya.
62. N.
63. Helping elephants.
Ⅷ. 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
64. 我的父母想带我的妹妹/姐姐和我去动物园。
65. sell(s), big
66. animals, takes
67. car, 9:30
68. Lins and tigers.
Ⅸ.书面表达（共10分）
69.
Hi, Jim. It’s 8:00 p.m. in China. I’m watching a TV shw with my parents. I als have sme rules t fllw at hme. First, I must g t bed befre ten ’clck and get up befre half past six. Secnd, I must get hme befre seven ’clck n schl days and befre eight n weekends. Third, I can watch TV r play cmputer games nly n weekends. I think these rules are strict but they are gd fr me.
My name is Tny. I have a three-year-ld pig(猪). His name is Piggy. He’s frm my uncle. Piggy is black and vegetables are his favrite fd. He is lazy. He sleeps all day!
I’m Laura. I have a beautiful bird(鸟), Plly. She’s green and yellw and she’s fur years ld. She’s frm my grandpa. She likes apples best. She can say “Hell” and “Gdbye”.
My name is Tm. My pet’s name is Alex. He is a brwn dg frm my cusin. Alex is ne year ld. His favrite fd is meat. He is very smart. He likes taking a walk with me in the evening.
My name is Linda. I have a cat, Dudu. She is tw years ld. She is frm my friend Ann. Dudu is yellw and white and she likes fish (鱼肉) best. She is cute. She likes playing with meat hme.
Jim
Jim；
Hi, David. What are yu ding nw? It’s 8:00 a.m. Saturday, but I can’t g ut with my friends because I have t help lk after my sister and clean the huse. And after that, I must practice the pian fr an hur. What abut yu? D yu have any rules at hme? What d yu think f them?
David
Hi, Jim. It’s 8:00 p.m. in China.