安徽省宣城市宁国市2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题()
展开考试时间90分钟,试卷满分100分
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
I. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des Tm ften d n the weekend?
A. B. C.
2. What is the weather like tday?
A. B. C.
3. Hw ften des Sally exercise?
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
4. Which mvie theater des the girl think is the best in the twn?
A. Twn Theater. B. Sun Theater. C. Shidai Theater.
5. What is Peter ding nw?
A. He is playing games. B. He is watching TV. C. He is studying.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答6-7小题。
6. When is the party?
A. On Friday evening. B. On Sunday mrning C. On Sunday evening.
7. What is Ben ging t d this weekend?
A. G t Beijing. B. Help his parents d husewrk. C. Have a pian lessn.
听下面一段对话,回答8-10小题。
8. Wh is Tina's cmputer frm?
A. His mther. B. His uncle. C. His aunt.
9. Hw ften des Tina use the cmputer?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week.
10. What des Tina think f the cmputer?
A. Useful B. Just-s-s. C. Bad. 您看到的资料都源自我们平台,20多万份试卷,家威杏 MXSJ663 每日最新,性比价最高Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What are the students ging t d tmrrw?
A. G t the park. B. G t the party. C. G t Munt Huang.
12. Where are they meeting?
A. At the bus stp. B. At the schl gate. C. In the classrm.
13. When are they leaving?
A. At 7: 00. B. At 7: 30. C. At 18: 00.
14. Hw are they ging there?
A. By bike.B. By bus. C. On ft.
15. Hw lng are they staying there?
A. Fr abut 6 hurs. B. Fr abut 7 hurs. C. Fr abut 8 hurs.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分25分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. I ften exercise at the park _______ the fresh air.
A. because f B. becauseC. s that D. befre
22. My grandma is very nice and she always cks _______ fr me.
A. wnderful smething B. wnderful anything
C. smething wnderful D. anything wnderful
23. —_______ d yu practice playing sccer?
—Twice a week. Practice makes perfect.
A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. Hw lng D. Hw ften
24. I wnder if Sally _______ t my party next Sunday. If she _______ t my party, I'll be very happy.
A. ges, ges B. will g, will g C. ges, will g D. will g, ges
25. —Can yu g t the mvies with me?
—_______. I have t lk after my little brther.
A. N prblem B. Sure, I'd lve t
C. Excuse me D. Srry, I'm nt available
26. There _______ a talent shw in ur schl tmrrw.
A. is B. will have C. is ging t be D. is ging t have
27. —Which clthes stre is _______, Tm's r Sally's?
—Tm's. The service is als better there.
A. cheaper B. mre cheaper C. cheaply D. mre cheaply
28. —D yu _______ asking Tm t watch the game shw with us?
—Of curse nt. The mre students, the better.
A. hpeB. mind C. decideD. expect
29. We dn't need t g t the supermarket because we have _______ fd.
A. littleB. magic C. thin D. enugh
30. I like t watch the _______ best because I want t find ut what's ging n arund the wrld.
A. news B. sitcms C. talk shws D. talent shws
VI. 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
Li Lei is a middle schl student frm Xuancheng. He 31 sme New Years's reslutins yesterday. He wants t keep healthy. S he is ging t exercise mre and eat 32 fd. He 33 junk fd. He is ging t 34 the sccer team because he likes sccer. He is ging t practice 35 sccer every weekend. He als wants t imprve his English. He has a pen pal named Jenny in Australia. And he is ging t write e-mails in English 36 Jenny. Jenny is 37 in Chinese culture, s she wants t learn mre abut China. Jenny is a helpful girl and she is as 38 as Li lei. When Li Lei grws up, he is years 39 he finishes high schl. He is ging t wrk hard. He lves children and he thinks 40 children will be wnderful.
31. A. made B. hadC. did D. went
32. A. healthy B. health C. healthiest D. healthier
33. A. didn't eat B. is ging t eat C. isn't ging t eat D. ate
34. A. be B. g C. playD. make
35. A. t play B. playing C. play D. plays
36. A. with B. inC. tD. at
37. A. excited B. strictC. hard-wrking D. interested
38. A. friendlyB. friendliest C. friend D. friendlier
39. A. where B. afterC. until D. n
40. A. lking fr B. lking after C. lking atD. lking up
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分35分)
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A: Hi, Bill! What are yu ding?
B: 41
A: What d yu need t make it?
B: Well, we need sme bananas and milk.
A: 42
B: Tw cups.
A: Then hw d yu make banana milk shake?
B: 43 and next put the bananas in the blender.
A: I knw, then pur the milk int the blender.
B: Yes. Nw, 44
A: Oh, it seems easy.
B: 45 Here yu are.
A: Thank yu! It's really delicius.
B: Yu're welcme.
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Sydney Twer
Hw t get there: train t Twn Hall Statin and a shrt walk alng Market Street
Hw t bk tickets: by phne/fax r thrugh the website
Attractin: Sydney's best views are just beginning! Sydney Twer takes yu t the highest pint abve Sydney fr exciting 360° views f ur beautiful city.
46. Sydney Twer is _______ in Sydney, Australia.
A. the highest pint B. the biggest statin
C. the mst beautiful park D. the busiest street
47. If Tm and his parents g t visit Sydney Twer, they have t pay _______.
A. $60B. $90C. $150D. $120
48. Hw lng is it pen?
A. 12 hurs. B. 13 hurs. C. 14 hurs. D. 15 hurs.
B
Like many ther yung bys, I didn't knw what I wanted t be when I was a middle schl student. My mther advised me t be a teacher like her, but it seemed that I was nt interested in it. My father wanted me t be a pianist. Hwever, I culdn't stand spending all f my time in frnt f a pian.
I gt my gal(目标) after I went t high schl. I gt a part-time jb at the schl radi statin and I fund it was interesting. I lved t discuss schl life and my favrite music with my schlmates n the radi. I kept ding this jb during the next six years. When I left the university, I gt a fulltime jb at ur lcal(当地的)radi statin. My career(事业) began. My prgram is successful and I have a lt f fans. I enjy my jb and my life nw.
49. What did the writer's mther d?
A. A teacher. B. A pianist. C. A dctr D. A scientist.
50. When did the writer start wrking at a radi statin?
A. When he was ten years ld. B. When he was a high schl student.
C. When he studied at university. D. After he left the university.
51. Which is the best title f the passage?
A. Never listen t yur parents. B. Study hard t make yur dream cme true.
C. N jb is easy t get. D. The part-time jb is helpful fr my career.
C
Welcme t yur future life!
Yu get up in the mrning and lk int the mirrr. Yu lk yung. In 2135, many peple can live t be abut 150 years ld. S at the age f 40, yu're nt ld at all. And yur parents lk the same age as yu!
Yu say t yur shirt, “Tum red.” It changes(改变)frm blue t red. In 2135, “smart clthes” can change the clr r style(样式) as yu like.
Yu walk int the kitchen. Yu pick up the milk, but yu hear the vice(声音), “Yu shuldn't drink that!” Yur fridge remembers the infrmatin abut the milk. It knws that the milk is nt fresh. In 2135, every husehld appliance(家用电器) is like yur secretary(秘书).
It's time t g t wrk. In 2135, cars drive themselves. Just tell yur “smart car” where t g. On the way, yu can call a friend with yur watch. Such “smart technlgy” is all arund yu.
S will all these things cme true? “All these things will cme true, even better,” says a scientist. I agree with the scientist. I am lking frward t the new life.
52. In the kitchen, where is the “vice” frm?
A. The watch. B. The secretary. C. The milk. D. The fridge.
53. What are the cars in 2135 like accrding t the passage?
A. They run in the sky. B. They dn't need gas(汽油).
C. They dn't need drivers. D. They can talk with peple.
54. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the life in 2135?
A. Peple dn't need t g t wrk. B. Peple dn't need t wear clthes.
C. Peple dn't need t have breakfast. D. Peple can say t the shirts t change the styles.
D
A gal is smething yu want t reach.
First, decide what yur gal is. Fr example, d yu want t pass a test? D yu want t be a dctr?
When yu have decided n yur gal, write it dwn n paper and lk at it every day. Then decide what yu must d t succeed.
Many peple never reach their gal because they think it is impssible. But yu must always believe that yur gals are pssible, dn't think, “This test is difficult. I'll prbably fail.” Instead(相反), think, “This test is difficult, but I've wrked hard and I will pass it.”
Mst peple are successful at things they enjy. S always try t enjy yur wrk. Keep lking at the gal yu wrte n paper and think hw happy yu will be when yu succeed. Think abut that happiness while yu are wrking and yu will enjy yur wrk.
55. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure(结构)f the passage?
A. B. C. D.
56. What des the underlined wrd “it” refer t in Paragraph 2?
A. The test. B. The paperC. The gal. D. The jb.
57. Where culd we prbably read this passage?
A. A science bk. B. A sprts magazine.
C. A medicine instructin. D. An educatin newspaper.
阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
E
A beautiful and clrful Macaw(金刚鹦鹉) watched a brwn beetle(甲虫)as it climbed acrss the frest.
“Where are yu ging, my friend?” Macaw called ut. “I am ging t the sea.” Beetle answered.
Just then, a paca(无尾刺豚鼠) passed by. “Yu?” Paca laughed. “Yu're s slw and it will take yu a hundred years!” Macaw lked dwn and said, “Yu shuldn't say that, Paca. Why dn't yu race with him? I'll give a new cat t whever first reaches the big tree beside the river as a prize.” Paca laughed harder, “There is n need t have a race! Yu may give me the cat right nw!” But Beetle said, “I will race. If I win, I wuld like a cat like yurs, Macaw.”
Paca hurried away. Then he thught, “I am s much faster than slw Beetle. I can take my time.” When Paca reached the tree, hwever, he was amazed t see Beetle n a tree stick waiting fr him. Paca asked, “Hw did yu get here?” “I flew,” Beetle answered with a smile. S there is n dubt that Beetle was the winner f the race.
Macaw smiled at Beetle, and Beetle's hard back began t shine with the clrs f a rainbw(彩虹)ever since. Paca learned that he shuldn't shw ff what he has, but he can use it when necessary.
58. Where was Beetle ging when Macaw met him? (不超过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
59. Hw did Beetle reach the tree? (不过5个词)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
60. What des the stry want t tell us? (不超过15个)
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分20分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
61. When we are sad, we can s________(分享)ur sadness with gd friends.
62. Jhn wrked very hard and w________(赢得) the first place in the cmpetitin.
63. Everyne has a r________(角色) t play in making ur cuntry mre beautiful.
64. In the future, s________(太空)travel will be a cmmn thing
65. Tm is s________(聪明的)than Jim, but Jim is mre hard-wrking than Tm.
X. 书面表达(共1小题,满分15分)
学校英语正在举行英语征文比赛,请根据以下提示以“My Best Friend”为题用英语写一篇短文介绍一下你的好友Daniel。
What's his favrite sprt? Hw ften des he d it?
What's his favrite TV prgram? Why des he like it?
What's his future plan? Hw is he ging t d that?
……
要求:1. 切合题意,内容完整;
2. 表达清楚,书写规范;
3. 80个词左右。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
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2023-2024学年度第一学期质量监测
八年级英语听力材料
I. 短对话理解
你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Tm, what d yu ften d n the weekend?
M: I ften play sccer with my friends.
2. W: What a bad day it is!
M: Yes, it's snwy and we have t stay at hme.
3. M: Hi, Sally. I knw yu like sprts very much, but hw ften d yu usually exercise?
W: Usually three times a week.
4. M: Linda, which mvie theater d yu like best in the twn?
W: I like Twn Theater best because it has the mst cmfrtable seats.
5. M: Where is Peter nw? I can't see him.
W: Oh, he is studying fr the test in his rm.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解
你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个
最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答6-7小题。
W: Hi, Ben. Can yu cme t the party n Friday evening?
M: I'd lve t, but I'm afraid I can't.
W: Oh, why?
M: I have t stay at hme and help my parents d husewrk, they are t busy. But anyway, have a gd time.
W: Thank yu.
听下面一段对话,回答8-10小题。
M: Tina, d yu have a cmputer?
W: Yes, I have ne. It's a birthday present frm my aunt.
M: What d yu usually d n it?
W: I usually lk fr infrmatin.
M: Hw ften d yu use yur cmputer?
W: Twice a week.
M: What d yu think f it?
W: It's useful. I like it very much.
Ⅲ. 短文理解
你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
Tmrrw the students at Yucai Middle schl will nt have class. They are ging t climb Munt Huang. The students are ging t meet at the schl gate in the mrning and they are leaving at seven 'clck. They are ging there by bus. They are getting there at abut ten 'clck. They will have a gd time. They are cming back at fur 'clck in the afternn.
Ⅳ. 信息转换
你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Hell! My name is Kate. I'm fifteen years ld. I'm a girl. Let me tell yu smething abut my trip. Last weekend, I went t Beijing with my parents. It was sunny and ht and we went there by sub-way. We did smething interesting there. We climbed the Great Wall and tk many phts there. We ate Beijing duck, it was cheap and delicius. I think Beijing is a gd place t have fun.
听力部分到此结束,请同学们继续答题。
2023-2024学年度第一学期质量监测
八年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
I-IV. (共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
1-5 CBCAC 6-10 ABCCA 11-15 CBABA
16. 15/fifteen 17. weekend 18. ht 19. phts 20. Delicius
评分标准:1-20题每小题1分。16-20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
第二部分 英语知识运用(共两大题,满分25分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21-25 ACDDD 26-30 CABDA
评分标准:21-30题每小题1分。
VI. 完形填空(共10小题;每小题1. 5分,满分15分)
31-35 ADCDB 36-40 CDABB
评分标准:31-40题每小题1. 5分。
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分35分)
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
41-45 CFEBG
评分标准:41-45题每小题1分。
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
46-50 ACBAB 51-55 DDCDB 56-57CD
58. T the sea.
59. Beetle flew there.
60. We shuldn't shw ff what we have, but we can use it when necessary.
评分标准:46-60题每小题2分。(58-60题意对即可)
第四部分 写(共两大题,满分20分)
Ⅸ. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
61. share 62. wn 63. rle 64. space 65. Smarter
评分标准:61-65题每小题1分。
X. 书面表达(共1小题,满分15分)
My best friend
I have a gd friend. His name is Daniel. He is 12 years ld. He is tall and strng. He has gd habits. He likes sprts very much and his favrite sprt is sccer. He usually plays sccer three r fur times a week. I think it's gd fr his health. In his free time, he smetimes watches TV and he likes talent shws best because they are interesting. In the future, he is ging t be a math teacher like his father, s he is ging t study math really hard. He is a helpful by and he always helps me in math.
评分原则:本题总分为15分,评分原则略。Name
Kate
Age
16
Time
Last 17 .
Place
Beijing
Weather
It was sunny and 18 .
Activities
Climbed the Great Wall and tk many 19 .
Fd
Cheap and 20 .
A. Hw many bananas d yu need?
B. turn n the blender.
C. I'm making banana milk shake.
D. D yu like it?
E. First, peel the bananas.
F. Hw much milk d yu need?
G. Yu can taste it nw.
Address: 100 Market St. Sydney
Phne: 029333 9222
Fax: 0293339208
Open time: 9: 00 a. m. t 10: 00 p. m.
Ticket: $ 60(fr an adult)
$30 fr a child)
Website: www. sydneytwer. cm. au
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