112，河南省安阳市殷都区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末教学质量检测英语试题（）

这是一份112，河南省安阳市殷都区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末教学质量检测英语试题（），共7页。

注意事项：
1．本试卷分试题卷和答题卡两部分，试题卷共6页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2．请直接将答案写在答题卡上，写在试题卷上的答案无效。
3．答题时，必须使用2B铅笔按要求规范填涂，用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔书写。
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s wrng with Rse?
A. She has the flu.B. She has a tthache.C. She has a headache.
2. Hw lng shuld the man ck them?
A. 10 minutes.B. 20 minutes.C. 30 minutes.
3. What’s the girl ging t be in the future?
A. A musician.B. A teacher.C. A tennis player.
4. Hw will the by g t schl?
A. By bike.B. By car.C. By subway.
5. Which pen des the man want t take?
A. The black ne.B. The red ne.C. The blue ne.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What was the scre (比分) f the basketball game last Wednesday?
A. 60:54.B.60:46.C.60:40.
7. Why did Mary’s team lse the game?
A. Because her team wasn’t strng.
B. Because ne f her teammates fell ill.
C. Because they didn’t d well in teamwrk.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Hw ften des the by cycle (骑自行车)?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Three times a week.
9. What des the girl ften d after dinner?
A. She ges fr a walk.B. She plays the vilin.C. She plays tennis.您看到的资料都源自我们平台，家威杏 MXSJ663 免费下载听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Wh will give the talk?
A. A man frm England.B. A wman frm England.C. A wman frm Australia.
11. What time will the talk start?
A. At 2:30 p. m.B. At 3:30 p. m.C. At4:30 p. m.
12. What will yu learn frm the talk?
A. What t d in a fire.B. What t d in the fld (洪水).
C. What t d in an earthquake (地震).
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. Wh is nt feeling well?
A. Tm.B. Tm’s sister.C. Tm’s brther.
14. What didn’t Tm have fr dinner yesterday?
A. Sandwiches.B. Ptat chips.C. Hamburgers.
15. What is the dctr’s advice?
A. T have a gd sleep.B. T take sme medicine.C. T eat nthing fr ne day.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
A. B. C. D. E.
16. ______ 17. ______ 18. ______ 19. ______ 20. ______
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
Here is a list (清单) f the televisin prgrams n CCTV Internatinal.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. Yu’ll knw smething abut ______ at12:00 a. m. every day.
A. newsB. cultureC. travelD. Asia
22. If yu want t watch a sccer match, the best prgram fr yu is ______.
A. News HurB. Asia TdayC. Sprts SceneD. Travel in Chinese
23. Lily is learning abut Chinese histry, she can watch Chinese Civilizatin ______.
A. every dayB. n weekendsC. six days a weekD. five days a week
24. My dad always watches Asia Tday ______.
A. at 4:00 p.m. n SundayB. at8:00 p.m. n Sunday
C. at 8:00 a.m. n SaturdayD. at 12:00 a.m. n Saturday
25. Cmmunicate in Chinese is a prgram that ______.
A. teaches yu ChineseB. listens t Chinese music
C. let yu knw Chinese newsD. tells yu smething abut Chinese arts
B
Like many ther yung bys, I didn’t knw what I wanted t be when I was a middle schl student. My mther wanted me t be a teacher like her, but it seemed that I was nt interested in it. My father wanted me t be a pianist. Hwever, I culdn’t stand spending all f my time in frnt f a pian.
I gt my gal (目标) after I went t a high schl. I gt a part-time (兼职) jb at the schl radi statin and I fund it was interesting. I lved t discuss schl life and my favrite music with my schlmates n the radi. I kept ding this jb during the next six years. When I left the university, I gt a full-time jb at a radi statin. My career (事业) began. Nw my prgram is successful and I have a lt f fans. I enjy my jb and my life.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. What did the writer’s mther d? ______
A. A dctr.B. A teacher.C. A pianist.D. A scientist.
27. When did the writer start wrking a part-time jb at a radi statin? ______
A. When he was ten years ld.B. After he left the university.
C. When he was a high schl student.D. When he studied at the university.
28. What did the writer talk abut n the radi? ______
A. Sprts.B. Famus films.
C. Famus peple.D. Schl life and his favrite music.
29. Which f the fllwing is TRUE? ______
A. The writer culdn’t play the pian.B. The writer was interested in teaching.
C. The writer’s prgram is very ppular nw.D. The writer ften interviewed (采访) stars.
30. Which is the best title fr the passage? ______
A. N Jb Is Easy t Get
B. Never Listen t Yur Parents
C. Study Hard t Make Yur Dream Cme True
D. The Part-Time Jb Helped Me Find My Career
C
Healthy eating desn’t just mean what yu eat, but hw yu eat. Here is sme advice n healthy eating.
Eat with thers. It can help yu t see thers’ healthy eating habits. If yu usually eat with yur parents, yu will find that the fd yu eat is mre delicius.
Listen t yur bdy. Ask yurself if yu are really hungry. Have a glass f water t see if yu are thirsty - smetimes yu are just thirsty, and yu need n fd. Stp eating befre yu feel full.
Eat breakfast. Breakfast is the mst imprtant meal f the day. Because yu dn’t eat fr the past ten hurs, yur bdy needs fd t get yu ging. Yu will be smarter after eating breakfast.
Eat health y snacks (零食) like fruits, ygurt r cheese. We all need snacks smetimes. In fact, it’s a gd idea t eat tw health y snacks between yur three meals. This desn’t mean that yu can eat a bag f chips instead f a meal.
Dn’t eat dinner late. In ur busy life, we always put ff eating dinner until the last minute. Try t eat dinner at least 3 hurs befre yu g t bed. This will give yur bdy a chance (机会) t digest mst f the fd befre yu rest fr the next 8 - 10 hurs.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Which is the mst imprtant meal in a day accrding t the writer? ______
A. Lunch.B. Dinner.C. Snacks.D. Breakfast.
32. What’s the writer’s advice n health y snacks? ______
A. Eating enugh every day.B. Nt eating snacks at all.
C. Eating as much as yu can.D. Eating tw health y snacks between yur three meals.
33. The underlined wrd “digest” means “______” in Chinese.
A. 储存B. 享用C. 消化D. 循环
34. What is the structure f the text?
A. B. C. D.
35. The passage mainly tells us ______.
A. hw t eatB. why t eatC. when t eatD. where t eat
D
Many peple tday like exercise. Sme like t run, and sme like t walk. Others dance r play balls. They d different kinds f exercise. Why d peple like exercising? 36.______ And it helps make them tired, s they sleep better at night.
Yu may like t run. 37.______ Make sure yu have the right shes. Sme peple like t run n rads. but they must watch ut (小心) fr cars.
38.______ Yu may take a lng walk in the park. It’s mre fun if yu dn’t g alne. G with a friend. The tw f yu may have a great time.
Sme peple like t swim. 39.______ If yu like this kind f exercise, make sure that smene is watching yu.
Jumping a rpe (绳子) r riding a bike is als gd exercise.
40.______ Find ut what yu like. D exercise every day, and yu will knw what it makes yu feel.
根据材料内容，从下面所给选项中选择恰当的一项还原到文章中，使短文通顺、意思完整，并将其标号填入题后横线上。
A. Walking is a gd exercise.
B. It’s gd fr their health.
C. There are many ther exercises.
D. If yu d, take care f yur feet.
E. But thers dn’t like t g int the water.
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
One day a small by was walking alng the street in Lndn. His 41 was Tm. It was a cld winter day in 1900. His family was very 42 . One day he culd have n breakfast r lunch. He wanted t buy bread, 43 he didn’t have mney.
His father 44 when he was very yung. His 45 was ften ill (生病的), s she culd nt 46 Tm and his brther Mike. They had t wrk t 47 their mther.
He was 48 but his dream was very big. His 49 was t be a great man in the wrld f the film. S he wrked very 50 with singing and dancing. Then, a man came t him and asked, “Wuld yu wrk fr 51 film?” “Certainly,” he answered. And he did his 52 in the man’s film. Many peple said. “We have never 53 such an interesting film.”
Thirty years later, this same by was amng the mst 54 peple in the wrld. He made many gd 55 . A lt f peple liked them.
41. A. nameB. teacherC. friendD. dentist
42. A. bigB. richC. prD. happy
43. A. rB. sC. andD. but
44. A. diedB. livedC. playedD. prmised
45. A. fatherB. mtherC. servantD. perfrmer
46. A. lk atB. lk frC. lk likeD. lk after
47. A. seeB. winC. helpD. give
48. A. smallB. quietC. seriusD. wnderful
49. A. jbB. wishC. partD. infrmatin
50. A. hardB. earlyC. ludlyD. luckily
51. A. myB. hisC. yurD. their
52. A. mstB. bestC. leastD. wrst
53. A. seenB. tuchedC. discussedD. questined
54. A. famusB. dangerusC. necessaryD. cmfrtable
55. A. cardsB. cakesC. gamesD. films
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
Talent shws like American Idl and China‘s Gt are becming mre and mre ppular. All these shws have ne thing 56 cmmn: They try t lk fr the mst 57 and creative peple. All 58 f peple can jin these shws. The peple wh watch the shw usually play a 59 in deciding the winner. And the winner always gets a very gd 60 .
Sme peple like talent shws because it is always fun t watch ther peple shw their talents. And they 61 peple a way t make their dream cme 62 . Hwever, nt everybdy enjys 63 these shws. Sme think the perfrmers just 64 up their lives in rder t succeed. N matter whether the infrmatin is true r nt, it’s wrth (值得) watching if yu dn’t take these shws t 65 .
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Tw years ag, I was nt gd at English. Smetimes I culdn’t understand what the teacher said. And I was t shy 66 ask the teacher fr help. What’s mre, I was afraid that thers wuld laugh 67 me. I kept it t myself. Luckily, my English teacher, Ms. Li. fund I was s upset. She talked with me and encuraged (鼓励) me t slve the prblem. Als she helped me 68 my English. With her help, I started t try my best t learn English. Nw my English is becming better 69 better.
If yu have the same prblem 70 me, remember that facing prblems bravely is the first step t slve prblems.
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Lin Hai. Lng time n see. 71.______?
B: I went t Linzhu t visit my grandparents this summer.
A: 72.______?
B: I visit my grandparents nce a mnth. And I can climb muntains there.
A: 73.______?
B: I really like it. It’s very beautiful. There are many famus places there, like Hngqi Canal (红旗渠).
A: 74.______?
B: N, it’s nt very far. It’s abut 50 kilmeters frm Anyang. Next Sunday I am ging t Linzhu again. Wuld yu like t g with me?
A: 75.______. Thank yu.
B: Yu’re welcme.
六、书面表达（20分）
假如你是Lin Hai，你要参加学校举办的“My best friend”征文比赛，请你根据提示信息写一篇文章介绍一下你的好朋友，并谈谈你对朋友的看法。
内容提示：
1. What des he/she lk like? What’s his/her persnality (性格)?
2. What’s his/her favrite hbby?
3. What’s he/she ging t d during the winter vacatin?
4.…
要求：1．语言表达要准确，语意要通顺、连贯；2．文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称；3．80词左右。
My best friend
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2023—2024学年第一学期教学质量检测
八年级英语参考答案及评分标准
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1—5 BCAAB6—10 ACABB11—15 CAABC16—20 DAECB
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21—25 ACDBA26—30 BCDCD31—35 DDCBA36—40 BDAEC
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
41—45 ACDAB46—50 DCABA51—55 ABAAD
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
56—60 in, talented, kinds, rle, prize,
61—65 give, true, watching, make, seriusly
66—70 t, at, with, and, as
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
71. Where did yu g (this summer) / What did yu d (this summer)…
72. Hw ften d yu visit yur grandparents/…
73. What d yu think f Linzhu / Hw d yu like Linzhu/…
74. Is it far (frm Anyang)/…
75. Sure, I’d lve/like t / Yes, I’d lve/like t/…
六、书面表达（20分）
略题号
一
二
三
四
五
六
总分
分数
Asia Tday
Mnday — Sunday
(4:00 a.m. 8:00 p.m.)
Travel in Chinese
Mnday — Saturday
(3:15 a.m. 9:15 a.m. 3:15 p.m.)
News Hur
Mnday — Sunday
(12:00 a.m.)
Chinese Civilizatin
Mnday — Friday
(3:55 a.m. 9:55 a.m. 3:55 p.m.)
Cmmunicate (交流) in Chinese
Mnday — Saturday
(3:15 a.m. 9:15 a.m. 3:15 p.m.)
Sprts Scene
Mnday — Sunday
(10:15 :00 p.m.)
kind serius give r le prize true in watch talent make