福建省三明市尤溪县2023-2024学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题

这是一份福建省三明市尤溪县2023-2024学年八年级上学期1月期末英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 听力等内容，欢迎下载使用。


1. 听力 (共三节, 20 小题; 每小题 1.5分, 满分30分)
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第一段对话 ，回答第 6 小题。
6. Hw lng was Jane's trip?
A. Tw days. B. Tw weeks. C. Tw mnths.
听第 2 段对话，回答第 7 小题。
7. What's the matter with the man?
A. A headache. B. A stmachache. C. A tthache.
听第 3 段对话，回答第 8 小题。
8. Which sprt des the by prefer?
A. Skating. B. Playing basketball. C. Playing sccer.
听第 4 段对话，回答第 9 小题。
9. What are they talking abut?
A. Health. B. Nature. C. Hbby.
听第 5 段对话, 回答第 10、11 小题。
10. What did Ann use t d?
A. Make tea. B. Take phts. C. Draw pictures.
11. Wh likes taking phts?
A. Ann. B. Ann's father. C. Ann's mther.
听第 6 段对话, 回答第 12、13 小题。
12. Hw are they having the talk?
A. By We Chat. B. Face t face. C. On the phne.
13. What was Jane ding at 8 'clck?
A. She was having a call.
B. She was ding her hmewrk.
C. She was waiting fr Jack.
听第 7 段对话 , 回答第 14、15 小题。
14. Hw ften des James listen t music n the Internet?
A. Three times a week. B. Fur times a week. C. Five times a week.
15. What des Betty usually d with her cmputer?
A. Listen t music. B. Watch English mvies.
C. Get sme infrmatin fr her lessns.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。
(短文读三遍)
Ⅱ. 选择填空 (共 15 小题; 每小题1分, 满分 15分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。
21. English is useful language in the wrld, many children begin t learn it at a yung age.
A. a B. an C. the
22. Betty has a beautiful . She wants t be a singer in the future.
A. lk B. idea C. vice
23.—Wuld yu like sme chicken?
—Give me smething t drink. I'm nt .
A. hungry B. excited C. happy
24.—Mm, culd yu help me with my hmewrk?
—I'm afraid nt. Yu shuld d it by .
A. herself B. yurself C. myself
25.— d yu d yur hmewrk every day?
—Abut tw hurs
A. Hw ften B. Hw sn C. Hw lng
26.——T ur eyes, we'd better relax fr a while after reading fr a lng time.
A. pen B. check C. prtect
27. Accrding t( 根据 ) the traffic rules, children under 12 ride a bike n the rad.
A. needn't B. mustn't C. can't
28. Sme animals are , and we must d smething t prtect them.
A. in danger B. in time C. in fact
29. Paris the 2024 Summer Olympics with “Games wide Open”as its slgan ( 口号 )
A. held B. hlds C. will hld
30. Lk!The sign says,“ Schl ahead. Drive .”
A. quickly B. carefully C. differently
31. Tny is my best friend. He always tries t make me when I'm unhappy.
A. laugh B. laughs C. laughing
32. Nwadays mre peple send messages thrugh WeChat. It's th an writing a letter.
A. slwer B. earlier C. faster
33. I lve t listen t rck music I am running.
—It's a gd way t relax.
A. while B. after C. if
34. If yu want t knw mre infrmatin, n the Internet.
A. put it up B. wake it up C. lk it up
35.—D yu knw ?
—In April,2023.
A. hw Giant Panda Ya Ya returned t China
B. when Giant Panda Ya Ya returned t China
C. whether Giant Panda Ya Ya returned t China
Ⅲ. 完形填空(共10 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Abut half a mnth ag, I had a bad fever and headache. I 36 my bdy at that time, s I went t the hspital. First f all, a nurse tk my 37 . It was 38.9℃. Then the dctr asked hw I felt and then he checked whether my lungs were OK. 38 that, he asked me t take a bld test(验血). Later, the dctr said that there was nthing serius with me and that I just caught a cld. Hearing that, I didn't feel s 39 .
Then the dctr wrte ut a prescriptin(处方) fr sme medicine. He als 40 I shuld have enugh water and sleep. They wuld make me lk better and help me get well sn. I 41 the dctr and went hme.
I fllwed the dctr's advice. Every day, I tk the 42 three times, drank a lt f water and slept fr mre than ten hurs. Tw days later, I was much better and I was 43 enugh t g t schl after ne week.
Nw I ften play sprts 44 sprts make me strng, healthy and happy. I als wash 45 hands ften s that I wn't catch a cld easily. I have meat, eggs and milk every day because they are rich in prteins(富含蛋白质) and are imprtant t help me grw and stay healthy.
36. A. lked after B. wrried abut C. gave up
37. A. advice B. pint C. temperature
38. A. After B. With C. Frm
39. A. angry B. afraid C. active
40. A. cheered B. suggested C. minded
41. A. missed B. visited C. thanked
42. A. medicine B. matter C. chance
43. A. excited B. strng C. successful
44. A. while B. if C. because
45. A. my B. her C. his
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共两节, 25 小题; 满分 45分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。(共20小题； 每小题2分，满分40分)
A
Welcme t ur Z!
Opening Hurs:
9:00 a. m.~4:00 p. m. (Mnday-Saturday)
Yu can enjy interesting animal shws at 3:30 p. m.
Ticket Price:
Adults(成人)(18-59) ¥30
Old peple (60+) ¥25
Children(2-17) ¥20
Babies (Under 2) Free
T enjy yur visit, yu must bey the rules.
Be kind t animals. This is their hme.
Cme with an adult if yu're under 17.
Dn't bring pets int the z.
Dn't feed animals. They may becme ill after eating yur fd.
Dn't make nises(噪音). This may scare sme animals and they may hurt yu.
Wear shirts and shes fr yur safety while in the z.
Click ( 点击 ) here t buy yur ticket. BUY
46. We can visit the z Except .
A. Mnday B. Friday C. Saturday D. SundayA visit t Peter in hspital
What
happened
Peter hurt his _16___le g during the game.
It is a little _17____.
Where t g
The Peple's Hspital, Flr 9, Bed 18.
What t d
We will 19 at the schl gate at half past five.
We will give him a get-well card, sme_20___and flwers.
47. If yu want t watch an animal shw, yu shuld arrive at the z .
A. befre 3:30 p. m. B. after 4:00 p. m.
C. at 4:00 p. m. D. at 4:30 p. m.
48. If Mr. and Mrs. Green (bth 65) take their five-year-ld grandsn t the z,they will pay .
A.¥20 B.¥25
C.¥50 D.¥70
49. What can peple d in the z?
50. Which f the fllwing is True?
A. The z is pen fr eight hurs a day.
B. Yu can buy tickets n the Internet.
C. Yu must bey five rules when yu are at the z.
D. The ticket fr an ld man is cheaper than that fr a child.
B
Tm had a bk in his hands and tears in his eyes.“What wrries yu, Tm?”asked Mrs. White.
“Our teacher asked us t recite the pem Little Jim. I dn't think I can d it well.”said Tm in a sad vice.
“Well, dear sn,”said Mrs. White,“Lk at that snail(蜗牛) n the wall. Hw slw it is! Yu will see it get t the tp at last. S just try a few lines each day, and yu may recite it in the end.”
Tm thught he might run a race with the snail. S he planned t try it.
At last, the day came. The teacher asked Tm t recite the pem. T her surprise, Tm did nt miss a wrd. His heart was full f jy when the teacher said,“Well dne, Tm!”
“And nw tell us hw yu culd recite the pem s well.”said the teacher.
“A snail n the wall taught me hw t d it.”said Tm.
“ Hw did the snail teach yu, Tm?” asked the teacher.
“Isaw it climb up the wall little by little. It didn’t stp. At last, it climbed t the tp. And I thught I culd d the same. S I recited it little by little, and did nt give up.”said Tm.
“Well dne, Tm!”said the teacher.“Nw students, let us give a gd cheer tTm and the snail n the wall.”The classrm rang with a great cheer.
51. What did the teacher ask Tm t d?
A. T write the pem. B. T recite the pem.
C. T read the pem. D. T teach the pem.
52. Mrs. White is Tm's .
A. mther B. sister
C. teacher D. classmate
53. What des the underlined wrd“it”refer t(指代)?
A. The snail. B. The pem.
C. The bk. D. The wall.
54. What d yu think f Tm?
A. Kind. B. Brave.
C. Clever. D. Hardwrking.
55. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Never give up B. All rads t Rme
C. A tree can't make a frest D. Never t ld t learn
C
D yu knw that Asian Games are held every fur years? Did yu watch the19th Asian Games this autumn? If s, d yu still remember wh wn the first gld medal fr the Chinese team?
On the first day f the 19th Asian Games in Hangzhu, the Chinese team did very well in the Wmen's lightweight duble sculls(女子轻量双人双桨) and gt the first gld medal in less than 10 minutes.
Frm the 2002 Asian Games in Busan (釜山) t nw, the Chinese team has been the first ne t win the first gld medal in six Asian Games. This time Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping ▲ the ther players, finishing at 7 ' 06.78".
Zu, 22,a Hangzhu girl, gt a gld medal in her hmetwn. Qiu, 24, is frmSuth China's Guangdng. In 2021, they wrked tgether. After jining hands,they wn a lt f great results. In 2022, they wn the secnd place at the Wrld Rwing(划船运动) Cup in Belgrade. Nw they will g fr the Paris Olympics thrugh the 2023 Rwing Wrld Champinships(锦标赛).
In men's lightweight duble sculls, Fan Junjie and Sun Man wn anther gld medal fr China. Chinese players tried their best at the Asian Games.
56. What sprt are Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping gd at?
A. Running. B. Jumping. C. Rwing. D. Swimming.
57. Which f the fllwing can be put “ ▲ ”in Paragraph3?
A. beat B. wn C. prtected D. taught
58. Which Asian Games happened in Busan?
A. The 10th. B. The 12th. C. The 14th. D. The 16th
59. The underlined phrase“jining hands”means in Chinese.
A. 挥手 B. 联手 C. 握手 D. 接手
60. We knw Zu Jiaqi and Qiu Xiuping frm the passage.
A. are f the same age. B. cme frm Hangzhu.
C. wrked tgether fr five years. D. will be in Pairs Olympics.
D
Hw is the weather in yur twn r city nw? Are yu feeling winter is cming?Lidng, the Start f Winter, will arrive n Nvember7 in 2024.
Lidng was a big day in ancient(古代的) China. Befre the day, the emperrs(帝王) wuld take a shwer and have n meat. On that day, the emperrs and their fficials(官员) wuld all dress in black and g ut f the city t welcme winter.Tday, t welcme the day, sme peple chse t have swimming games in sme cld places such as Harbin in Heilngjiang Prvince.
As winter cmes, the weather gets clder and clder. Chinese peple ften eat different kinds f fd t keep warm and healthy. On the day f Lidng, peple inNrth China lve eating dumplings. In Suth China, peple lve t eat chicken, duck and fish. In sme places in Guangdng Prvince, peple eat sugar cane(甘蔗). They think it is gd fr their teeth. In Nanjing, Jiangsu Prvince, peple eat green nins(大葱) fr gd health.
Lidng is the time t start wearing warm clthes. In ancient times, the emperrs wuld hand ut warm winter clthes t the fficials. Peple wuld als remember t give“clthes”t their lst family. They wuld als eat delicius fd t shw hw much they missed the lst nes.
61. What did the emperrs d t welcme winter in ancient times?
① They tk a shwer. ② They didn't eat meat.
③ They wre black clthes. ④ They had a swimming game.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④
C. ②③④ D. ①③④
62. What d peple in sme places in Guangdn g Prvince eat n the day fLidng?
A. Ptates. B. Sugar cane.
C. Dumplings. D. Green nins.
63. What can we knw abut Lidng frm the last paragraph?
A. Family and friends ften get tgether.
B. The emperrs gave warm clthes t pr peple.
C. Peple shwed hw much they missed their lst family.
D. Enjying delicius fd is the mst imprtant thing t d.
64. What is the structure(结构) f the passage? (Paragraph 1=P1...)
65. In which part f a newspaper can we read this passage?
A. Sprts. B. Peple.
C. Health. D. Festival.
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。 (共5 小题； 每小题1 分，满分5分)
E
Many peple think that being health y is difficult, but that's nt true. Here are sme ways t keep healthy.
Drink mre water. 66 Water keeps bdies at the right temperature.
Eat well. It is imprtant t pay attentin t (注意) what yu eat and hw yueat. Vegetables and fruit are gd fr the brain(大脑). Yu shuld eat them every day.
Eat at the right time. 67 If yu eat t late at night, yu may have difficulty sleeping.
D mre exercise. If yu eat much fd but d little exercise, yu will becme heavy and it will be easy fr yu t get ill. 68
Get utside. When yu spend time utdrs, the fresh air helps imprve(改善)yur md (情绪). 69 Spending t much time n them will be bad fr yur eyes. Spend sme time ging fr a walk in the sun, relaxing at a park, r staying active with a sprt.
Get a gd night's rest. When yu sleep well, yu can wake up easily the next mrning. 70 Sleeping well is very imprtant fr yur health!
A. Keep away frm TV r cmputers.
B. What's mre, yu will have mre energy the next day.
C. Try nt t eat 2 t 3 hurs befre yu g t bed.
D. Everyne shuld drink five t eight glasses f water a day.
E. Ding sprts every day can help build yurself up.
V. 情景交际(共5 小题, 每小题2分, 满分 10分)
根据情景提示， 完成下列各题。
71. 当 David 不小心踩到你时，他可以这样表达歉意：

72. 当你不同意对方的观点时，可以这样说：

73. 你得知华为手机 M6 技术在全世界遥遥领先时，你会这样赞叹：
!
74. 你想知道 Michael 最喜欢哪种类型音乐，可以这样问：
d yu like best, Michael?
75. 当你看到Lily一直咳嗽时，可以这样给她建议：
Why nt ?
VI. 看图写话 (共5 小题; 每小题2 分, 满分 10分)
VII.短文填空(共 10 小题; 每小题1 分, 满分 10分)
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个适当的单词，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。
My name is Mike. I am 81 middle schl student. I am in Grade 8. I spent mst time n the internet in the past. I was fnd 82 chatting with friends n QQ.And I enjyed watching vides 83 /ˌɒn'laɪn/. On weekends, I lst 84 (I)in playing cmputer games. Hwever, day by day I fund I didn't like my study. Ifelt sleepy and 85 /'taIəd/ all day. Internet became my whle life. My mther said that I needed a change.
My mther tk me t the park in ur city. I lay n the 86 /grɑːs/, smelled the spring and listened t the wind singing. The nature prvided cmfrt and peace fr me. At that time, I fund sme children 87 (play) musical instruments near a lake. The by with a guitar in hands 88 (catch) my ears. The music was bth pleasure 89 relaxing. Nw I jined them and learned playing the guitar. It became ne f my favrite 90 (hbby). Everyne think s that I am active nw.
VIII.书面表达(满分15分)
91. 2023 年 12月 18日, 甘肃省石山县发生了 6.2级地震, 再次提醒我们在校园里开展防震演练活动的重要性，假如你是李华，请你根据以下导图提示，给你校校刊英语专栏写一封关于在地震中如何保护自己的建议信。
注意事项：
1.80词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2.内容必须包括所给的全部要点，可适当发挥；
3.语句通顺、意思连贯、语法正确、书写工整。
Dear bys and girls,
Many peple get hurt r die in the earthquake every year. S it's very imprtant t knw sme ways t prtect yurselves in the earthquake. Here are sme suggestins fr yu.



I hpe the suggestins abve may help yu.
Yurs,
Li Hua