四川省泸州市合江县第五片区2021-2022学年八年级上学期联合考试英语试题（月考）

这是一份四川省泸州市合江县第五片区2021-2022学年八年级上学期联合考试英语试题（月考），共13页。

（考试时间: 120 分钟， 共 120 分）
、 ※注意事项：考生答题时，必须将答案写在答题卡上，答案写在试卷上无效。
一.听力（满分20分）
第一节：听句子，选择最佳应答语，每个句子读两遍。（5分）
第二节：听对话，选择正确的答案，每个对话读两遍。（5分）
( )6. What des Maria like t d?
( )7. What des Eva’s skirt lk like?
A. It’s a yellw skirt. B. It has little flwers n it.
C. It lks the same as the wman’s.
( )8. What is the wman cking?
( ( )9. What des Tim want t be when he grws up？
( )10. Hw much ygurt des the man want t put in the salad?
第三节:根据对话内容回答问题（5分）
听第1段材料，回答第11-12题，对话读两遍。（2分）
( )11. What did Jenny d yesterday evening?
A. She prepared fr a test. B. She had a party.
C. She went t her grandparents’ hme.
( )12. Hw many peple watched the sccer game tgether?
A. 30. B. 25. C. 20.
听第二段对话，回答第13-15小题。对话读两遍（3分）
( )13.Where des Ann’s cusin cme frm?
A. America B. Canada C. the UK
( )14. What's Ann’s cusin like?
A. Quiet B. Outging C. Very shy.
( )15. Hw ften des Ann’s cusin visit her?
A. Once a year. B. Twice a year. C. Three times a year.
第四节:听短文，选择正确答案。短文读两遍（5分）
( )16. When did Catherina mve here?
A. Tw mnths ag B. One mnth ag C. Three weeks ag
( )17. What party is Catherina’s family ging t have?
A. A birthday party. B. A husewarming party. C.A tea party.
( )18. Hw ld is Catherina’s daughter
A. 13. B.14. C.15.
( )19. What can Mr. Li’s sn play?
A. The drum. B. The pian. C. The guitar.
( )20. Why can’t Catherina’s daughter study well at night?
A. Because she is ften tired.
B. Because the music is t lud.
C. Because her hmewrk is t difficult.
基础知识运用（满分55分）
二．单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
( )21. His mther wants him _______at hme tday.
A. stays B. stayed C.t stay D. staying
( )22. The envirnment will be in great_________.
A. danger B. dangerus C. dangers D. denger
( )23. There is ______ fr him t d tday.
A. smething imprtantB. imprtant smething
C. anything imprtant D. imprtant anything
( )24. —Hw many birds can yu see in the trees? —I can see _________ birds in them.
A. hundreds f B. five hundreds C. hundred f D. five hundreds f
( )25. She ________ t New Yrk City last summer vacatin.
A. g B. ges C. went D. wents
( )26 - ______________ d yu exercise? - twice a week.
A.Hw many B. Hw much C. Hw lng D. Hw ften
( )27. My brther is _________ than me.
A. shrt B. shrter C. shrtest D. mre shrt
( )28. There is ging t ________ a basketball game tmrrw.
A. has B. have C. be D. having
( )29. I want t be a ________, because I like cking all kinds f delicius fd.
A. ck B. dancer C. cker D. pilt
( )30. Hw much ________ d yu need?
A. bananas B. hney C. apples D. watermelns
三．完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，从题中所给的选项中，选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
A
I am ging t have a party tmrrw night. But my mther and my best friend can't d 31 fr me.1 will d everything by myself t make all my friends have fun at the party. S I have 32 time t watch a mvie with my sister. I try t make 33 party a nice ne.
I invited my friends 34 . I have t d s many things nw. 1 am very 35 .
but I feel very happy. I am very sleepy(困倦的) and I really want t g t bed.
B
My dream in life is t becme a dctr. I think that being a 36 is ne f the mst imprtant jbs in the wrld. Mst peple are busy wrking every day. They dn't have much 37 t relax r d exercise. Lts f them are in 38 health because they dn't take gd care f themselves. I wuld like t help them get 39 again. I knw it's nt 40 t be a dctr. I need t learn a lt. I am ging t study hard t 41 my skill .As a dctr I am ging t try t 42 the peple wh are sick（生病的）. I'll always be there with them when they need me. If smene desn't have enugh 43 , I am still ging t help him r her. I believe after he gets sme mney, he is ging t give the mney back t 44 . Maybe dctrs can't make much mney, 45 I dn't care. It wuld be great t be a dctr because I can help thers. Helping thers wuld make me happy.
四．阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Tmrrw is Sunday. I’m nt ging t wrk. I’m twenty-tw. My little brther isn’t ging t schl. He is ten years yunger than I am. I’m ging t d sme shpping. My brther is ging t d his hmewrk. My parents are ging t wrk. My father is ging by bike and my mther by bus. In the afternn, I’m ging t the park with my brther. We’re ging n ft. We’re cming hme at five. My parents are ging t get hme at five thirty. We must help my mther ck the dinner. After supper(晚餐), I’m ging t dance with my friends, and my brther is ging t watch TV with my parents.
( ) 46. Hw ld is the writer’s brther?
( )47. Hw des the writer’s father g t wrk? .
( ) 48. What will the writer and his brther d in the afternn?
( ) 49. When will the father and mther cme back?
( ) 50. What will the writer’s brther d in the evening?

B
It is the 22nd century (世纪)and it is very ppular t change peple’s bdies.
Mr. Smith decided t change his bdy. He changed his big nse t a small ne, and his ld and gray hair t shrt and blnd hair. He als bught new green eyes, new hands, new arms, new knees and new feet. Mrs. Smith was happy because Mr. Smith’s new feet didn’t smell as bad as his ld feet.
At first ,Mr. Smith feels great.Hwever, smething bad happened. One mrning, Mr. Smith wke up and his new nse didn’t wrk. The next mrning he culdn’t hear anything. Then his new blnd hair went gray, and his new knees didn’t mve. And finally he culd see nthing with his green eyes.
It was really terrible. Mr. Smith wanted his ld bdy back. Hwever, he had t pay100,000 eur (欧元)fr his ld bdy.
It was expensive but Mr. Smith still gt his wn bdy back. He wuld never fllw the fashin.
( )51. What was Mr. Smith’s new hair like?
( )52. Why was Mrs. Smith happy?
A. Because Mr. Smith’s new lk was cl.
B. Because Mr. Smith’s new feet were small.
C. Because Mr. Smith lked yunger than befre.
D. Because Mr. Smith’s new feet didn’t smell bad.
( )53. What did Mr. Smith think f his new bdy at the beginning?
( )54. Which part f Mr. Smith’s bdy went wrng(出毛病) first?
A. The new nse. B. The new eyes.
C. The new knees. D. The new ears.
( )55. What did Mr. Smith pay 100,000 eur fr?
A. Buying his new nse. B. Getting his ld eyes.
C. Buying anther new bdy. D. Getting his ld bdy back.
C
Hundreds f years ag, life was much harder than it is tday. Peple didn’t have mdern machines. There was n mdern medicine, either.
Life tday brught new prblems. One f the biggest is pllutin. Water pllutin has made ur rivers and lakes dirty. It kills ur fish and plluted ur drinking water. Nise pllutin makes us talk luder and becme angry mre easily. Air pllutin is the mst serius kind f pllutin. It’s bad fr all the living things in the wrld.
Cars, planes and factries all plluted air s thick(厚) that it is like a quilt ver a city. This kind f quilt is called smg（雾霾）.
Many cuntries are making rules t fight pllutin. Factries must nw clean their water befre it is thrwn（扔） away. They mustn’t blw dirty smke int the air.
We need t d many ther things. We can put waste things in the dustbin（垃圾箱） and nt thrw it n the grund. We can g t wrk by bus r with ur friends in the same car. If there are fewer peple driving, there will be less pllutin.
( ) 56. Life was much harder in the past because ____.
A. peple had n mdern machines B. there were nt many peple
C. there was n enugh fd D. peple ften gt ill
( ) 57. What’s the biggest prblem in tday’s life?
A. There’s n enugh clean water. B. The buildings are t high.
C. The rads are t busy. D. There’s great pllutin.
( ) 58. What is the mst serius kind f pllutin?
A. Nise pllutin. B. Air pllutin.
C. Water pllutin. D. Light pllutin.
( ) 59. Factries must clean their water .
A. when they get it B. when they use it
C. befre it is gt in D. befre it is thrwn away
( ) 60. Frm the passage we knw that ____.
A. a few years ag, there was n smg at all
B. tday peple dn’t have t talk t each in a lud vice
C. we can drink water frm the plluted rivers and lakes
D. peple are making rules t fight pllutin
综合知识运用（满分45分）
五．选词填空,只填序号，填单词不得分。（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
I think I’ll be a newspaper reprter 61 20 years. I’ll 62 in Shanghai, because there will be mre jbs in that city. 63 a reprter, I think I will meet lts f interesting peple, s I’ll have 64 friends. I’ll have fewer pets, thugh, because I’ll have __65__free time. And my apartment will be n gd fr pets because it’ll be t small. S I’ll prbably just 66 a bird. 67 the week, I’ll wear smart clthes. On the weekend, I’ll 68 less smart but I’ll be mre cmfrtable. In the future, peple __69_ wrk mre s they’ll prbably have fewer vacatins, but I think I’ll _70____ a hliday in Hng Kng when pssible. One day I’ll even g t Australia.
61. __________ 62. __________63. __________64. __________ 65. __________
66. __________ 67. __________68. __________69. __________ 70. __________
六．完成对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，在每个空缺处填入一个适当的词，使整段对话意思完整 (每空限填一词)，并把答案填写在题后的横线上。
A: Hey, Paul. Yu lk s happy. What did yu d in class tday?
B: We had a discussin abut future, and I was the first ne t give a reprt.
A: What d yu want t be when yu 71 up?
B: I want t be a reprter.
A: 72 are yu ging t d that?
B: I’m ging t write articles and send them t newspapers. And what d yu want t be?
A: Well, I’m nt 73 . Maybe I want t be a singer. By the way, next Sunday is my
birthday. Can yu cme t my birthday party?
B: Yes, I’d lve t.74 is it?
A: It will start at arund 6:00pm next Sunday.
B: Where can we meet?
A: We can meet in Sunshine Restaurant next t ur schl.
B: Great. I really expect next Sunday!
A: I think if yu g, yu will 75 a gd time then.
B: OK. I must g hme nw. Gdbye.
A: Bye.
71. __________ 72. __________73. __________ 74. __________ 75. __________
七．任务型阅读，根据材料回答下列问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
Jane Gdall was brn in Lndn. When she was ne year ld, her mther tk her t the z t see chimps(猩猩). Jane began t lve the chimps.
When she was seven years ld, she read a bk abut a dctr wh culd talk t animals. Then she wanted t be able t talk t animals, t. Her favrite animal was chimps.
When she was twenty-six years ld, she went t Africa with all her mney. She began t study chimps there instead f(而不是) ging t university. In Gmbe Natinal Park f Africa, she watched them carefully day after day.
At first, the chimps were afraid f her, s she had t watch them far away. After three r fur mnths, the animals accepted her. And then, she went t live in the frests. At last they became her friends. She fund the chimps acted s much like peple. They culd think and make plans. They used tls（工具）. They culd shw their feelings when they were happy, sad r mad. She learned their language.
Jane Gdall studied chimps fr mre than frty years. She is a very famus scientist in the wrld.
76. Where was Jane Gdall brn?
_______________________________
77. What was Jane Gdall’s favrite animal?
_______________________________
78. When did Jane Gdall g t Africa?
_______________________________
79. Did the chimps have feelings?
_______________________________
80. Hw lng did Jane Gdall study chimps?
_______________________________
八．书面表达（满分20分）
根据提示介绍一下你最好的朋友Jeff，可适当发挥。（90词左右）
2021年秋期八年级英语学科合江县第五片区第二次月考参考评分意见
听力材料
第一节：听句子，选择最佳应答语，每个句子读两遍。（5分）
1. Where will yu g n vacatin?
2. Hw ften d yu eat junk fd?
3. D yu want t see an actin mvie?
4. Will there be fewer cars in the future?
5. What des he want t be when he grws up?
第二节：听对话，选择正确的答案，每个对话读两遍。（5分）
6. M: I never g t the beach. I ften g t climb muntains. What abut yu, Maria?
W: I like t g camping. I d it nce a year.
7. M: Yur skirt lks the same as Eva’s
W: N, Eva’s has little flwers n it.
8. M: My dear, are yu busy nw?
W: Yes. I'm cking turkey sandwiches.
9. W: Tim plays the guitar s well. He must want t be a musician when he grws up.
M: N. he wants t be a writer.
10. W: Hw abut putting sme ygurt in the salad.
M: Great. Tw spns, please.
第三节:根据对话内容回答问题（5分）
听第1段材料，回答第11-12题，对话读两遍。（2分）
M: Jenny, yu lk tired. What happened?
W: I had a party yesterday evening. We watched a sccer game tgether. And I made dinner fr
all the guests.
M: Ww, there were lts f peple, right?
W: Yes, yu’ re right. Finally there were 30 peple.
听第二段对话，回答第13-15小题。对话读两遍（3分）
M: Hi, Ann. What's that in yur hand?
W: It's a pht f my cusin.
M: Yur cusin? Where is she frm?
W: She’s frm the UK.
M: Is she as quiet as yu?
W : N, she is mre utging than me. And she has lts f gd friends
M: Hw ften des she cme t visit yu?
W: Twice a year.
第四节:听短文，选择正确答案。短文读两遍（5分）
Dear Mr. Li,
I am Catherina. My family just mved here tw mnths ag. I’m s happy t live here. I
am glad t knw yu and yur family members. I am ging t have a husewarming party next Sunday. I wuld like t invite yur family t the party. My daughter is 15 years ld, and she is ging t be a high schl student next year. S she needs a quiet envirnment t study at night. But yur sn plays the drum s ludly and we can hear the sund clearly. It is s kind f yu if yu culd tell yur sn nt t play the drum s lud at night. Maybe he can play it at the party. I’m lking frward t yur reply. Thank yu
Yurs,
Catherina
参考答案
听力. 1-5 CABAC 6-10 CBBAB
11-15 BACBB. 16-20 ABCAB
单选.21-25CAAAC 26-30 DBCAB
完型填空. 31-35 BCDAA 36-40 ABDAD 41-45 DACBC
阅读理解 46-50 BACDB 51-55 CDBAD 56-60 ADBDD
选词填空
61. ____B______ 62. _____C_____63. _____I_____64. _____G_____ 65. _____H____
66. ____E_____67. ______F____ 68. _____D_____69. _____A_____70. _____J_____
完成对话
71. ___grw___ 72. Hw 73. _____sure____ 74. ____When____ 75. ____have____
任务型阅读
76. She was brn in Lndn.
77. Her favrite animal was chimps.
78.When she was twenty-six years ld.
79. Yes,they did.
80. Mre than frty years.
书面表达（略）
作文评分标准：
第一档17-20分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—所有内容与提示吻合。
—应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构与词汇应用准确,虽有个别错误,但不影响意义的表达；具备较强的语言运用能力。
—恰当使用了语句间的连接成分,全文结构紧凑。
第二档13-16分 完成了试题规定的任务。
—主要内容与提示吻合。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构与词汇应用基本准确,个别错误对意义的表达有一定影响。
—较恰当地使用了语句间的连接成分,全文结构较紧凑。
第三档9-12分基本完成试题规定的部分任务。
—主要内容与提示基本吻合。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构与词汇的错误,对意义的表达有较大影响。
—基本能使用语句间的连接成分,全文结构比较松散。
第四档5-8分 仅完成试题规定的部分任务。
—主要内容与提示基本的部分任务。
—语法结构单调,应用词汇有限。
—有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
—语句间的连接成分运用不当,缺少连贯性。
第五档0-4分 未完成试题规定的任务。
—主要内容与提示不太吻合。
—语法结构单一,应用词汇十分有限。
—有较多语法结构或词汇方面的严重错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
( )1.
A. Abut pllutin.
B. In the mrning.
C. T Japan.
( )2.
A. Never.
B. It's nt healthy.
C. My mther made it.
( )3.
A. At night .
B. N, I dn’t .
C. It's very interesting.
( )4.
A. Yes, there will.
B. N, it isn’t.
C. Yes, I can.
( )5.
A. Less than tw hundred.
B. Study at hme.
C. A ck.
A.T climb muntains.
B. T g t the beach.
C. T g camping.
A. Dumplings.
B. Turkey sandwiches.
C. Cakes.
A writer.
B. A musician.
C. A teacher.
A. One spn.
B. Tw spns.
C. three spns.
（ ）
31.A. smething
B. anything
C. nthing
D.everything
（ ）
32 A. a little
B. much
C. n
D. lts f
（ ）
33.A.a
B.不填
C. an
D. the
（ ）
34.A. yesterday
B. tmrrw
C.tmrrw mrning
D. next week
（ ）

B.interested
C. excited
D. angry
( )
36. A. dctr
B. teacher
C. reprter
D. singer
( )
37. A. hpe
B. time
C. wrk
D. fun
( )
38. A. better
B. wrse
C. gd
D. bad
( )
39. A. healthy
B. rich
C. sad
D. warm
( )
40. A. happy
B. excited
C. surprised
D. easy
( )
41. A. use
B. find
C. check
D. imprve
( )
42. A. help
B. leave
C. pass
D. like
( )
43. A. fd
B. medicine
C. mney
D. rest
( )
44. A. yu
B. me
C. him
D. her
( )
45. A. r
B. s
C. but
D. and
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 22
A. By bike
B. By train.
C. By bus.
D. On ft.
A. Swimming.
B. Seeing a film.
C. Ging t the park.
D. Ding sme running.
A. At 7:30.
B. At 4:30.
C. At 6:30.
D. At 5:30.
A.Dancing.
B. Watching TV.
C. Seeing a friend.
D. Sleeping.
A. Shrt and gray.
B. Lng and gray.
C. Shrt and blnd.
D. Lng and blnd.
A. Strange.
B. Fantastic.
C. Terrible.
D. Clean.
A. will B. in C. live D. lk E. keep
F. During G. mre H. less I. As J. take
My Best Friend Jeff
Name
Jeff
Age
furteen
Persnal Traits
utging
Like
sitcms
interesting
sandwich
with beef
exercise
twice a week
Free Time Activities
have pian lessns
nce a week
read bks
every day
Life In The Future
wrk
Beijing
vacatins
SanYa
be
dctr