93,河北省邯郸市永年区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题
展开注意事项:
1. 本试卷共8页,总分120分,考试时间90分钟。
2. 答题前,考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷相应位置上。
听力部分
I. 听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
1. A. space B. plate C. plant
2. A. think abut B. hang ut C. lk after
3. A. have a meeting B. give a reading C. plan a beginning
4. A. We wn't be t busy. B. We'll get things withut mney.
C. We'll have t make much mney.
5. A. The speaker can g t the party. B. The speaker desn't like the party.
C. The speaker wn't g t the party.
Ⅱ. 听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
6. A. It's a sunny day. B. On the weekends. C. It's Mnday the 22nd.
7. A. OK. Gd idea. B. Have fun. C. I think s.
8. A. That's t bad. B. Sure, I'd lve t. C. Yu're welcme.
9. A. I dn't mind them. B. That's n prblem. C. Hw cme?
10. A. Thanks fr helping me. B. Really? That's t bad. C. Gd. Catch yu n Sunday.
Ⅲ. 听对话和问题,选择正确答案。(共8小题,每小题1分,计8分)
11. What d yu think they will buy?
A. B. C.
12. What des the girl ask fr?
A. B. C.
13. Which theater will they g t?
A. Peple's Theater. B. Wanda Theater. C. Children's Theater
14. What are they ging t d tmrrw?
A. G climbing. B. Plant trees. C. G bike riding.
15. Where d they plan t meet?
A. In the muntains. B. At the by's hme. C. At the bus stp.
16. What des Jake invite Mary t d?
A. T g t a party. B. T g fr a camp. C. T see a film.
17. Why will Mary be a little late?
A. She has t g shpping. B. She has t ck sme fd. C. She has t d her hmewrk.
18. What will Mary bring?
A. Sandwiches and cheese. B. Sme fruit and drinks. C. A bx f chclates.
IV. 听短文和问题,选出最佳答案。(共7小题,每小题1分,计7分)
19. Hw d they feel when they hear the news?
A. Surprised. B. Glad. C. Angry.
20. What des the teacher ask them t d?
A. T get up early. B. T make a plan. C. T practice hard.
21. Which is their plan?
A. Having a gd rest. B. Taking basketball lessns. C. Practicing fr an hur every mrning.
22. What day is it tday?
A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
23. Hw ften des the speaker g t Hngshan Park?
A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Once a mnth.
24. Hw lng des it take the writer t walk t Hngshan Park?
A. 3 minutes. B. 13 minutes. C. 30 minutes.
25. Why d they like Hngshan Park better?
A. It's cleaner and quieter. B. It's nearer and cleaner. C. It's bigger and mre beautiful.
V. 听短文填空。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
笔试部分
Ⅵ. 单项选择。(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
31. —What's yur _________?
—I like taking phts in my free time.
A. jb B. hbby C. schlwrk D. advice
32. Nbdy taught me hw t use WeChat. I learnt it by _________.
A. us B. we C. me D. myself
33. They will lse the game _________ they try their best.
A. unless B. nce C. since D. after
34. Mrs. Black expects _________ with the schl headmaster abut her sn.
A. talking B. t talk C. talked D. talk
35. There _________ a parents' meeting. The teacher hpes each parent can cme here.
A. will be B. will have C. is ging t have D. are ging t be
36. Nick is ne f _________ basketball players in his schl.
A. a ppular B. mre ppular C. the mst ppular D. the mre ppular
37. —_________ butter d we need fr a sandwich?
—Tw spns shuld be enugh.
A. Hw much B. Hw lng C. Hw far D. Hw sn
38. Wh will _________ the kids when their parents are nt at hme?
A. lk at B. lk fr C. lk after D. lk up
39. If he _________ up late, he will be late fr schl.
A. get B. gets C. is getting D. will get
40. —Can yu cme t my birthday party this weekend?
—_________.
A. I'm srry t hear that B. Sure, I'd lve t
C. That's nt gd D. I dn't care
Ⅶ. 完形填空。(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
D yu have a beautiful dream? I knw almst everyne 41 their wn dreams. The dreams are very imprtant 42 them. The dreams can make them 43 harder.
I am studying in a schl nw. My dream is 44 a teacher in West China. Many children there want t g t schl 45 they can't. Their families are very 46 and the parents dn't have enugh mney t send their children t schl. But studying is the nly 47 t change(改变) their life. Teachers are needed there, s I want t be a teacher t help them. I 48 kind t my students and make friends with them. I will give them lve and teach 49 hw t be a useful persn. I think it is a great 50 in the wrld.
41. A. has B. have C. is D. are
42. A. at B. t C. in D. with
43. A. t wrk B. wrks C. wrk D. wrking
44. A. be B. t make C. t d D. t be
45. A. and B. but C. r D. s
46. A. rich B. pr C. funny D. interesting
47. A. way B. mean C. success D. mment
48. A. am B. will be C. was D. am ging t
49. A. they B. their C. them D. theirs
50. A. rm B. bk C. schl D. jb
Ⅷ. 阅读理解。(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料,然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
There is an ld English saying. It tells us that we must g t bed early and get up early in the mrning. Then we shall be healthy. We shall als be rich and clever. This is true. The bdy must have enugh sleep t be healthy. Children f yung age shuld have ten hurs' sleep every night. Children wh d nt have enugh sleep can nt d their wrk well and they may nt be healthy.
The bdy als needs exercise. Walking, running jumping and playing games are all exercise. Exercise keeps the bdy strng.
Exercise als helps the bld t mve arund inside the bdy. It is very imprtant. Our bld mves t all parts f ur bdy. The head als needs bld. Exercise helps us t think better.
51. If we want t be healthy, we must _________.
A. eat mre B. sleep mre C. play mre D. g t bed early and get up early
52. Children f yung age shuld have _________ hurs' sleep every day.
A. ten B. nine C. eleven D. twelve
53. Des exercise help us t think better?
A. Yes, it des. B. N, it desn't. C. Hardly. D. We dn't knw.
B
What will yu d if yu get lst? Here is sme advice that may help yu.
Stand tall if it is safe t stay where yu are. Or, g t the nearest place that is safe. Fr example, if yu are in the middle f the street, g t the sidewalk and stand tall there. T help yunger children keep calm, we tell them t stand straight and make their bdies lk like “the trunk”.
Lk arund fr yur adults(成年人) first. Sme children think they are lst, but their adults actually stand clse by. Just take a minute t stp and lk arund t find them again.
If yu cannt see the adults yu came with, yell(叫, 喊) ut their names. Yu can yell anywhere, even in a library, a mvie theatre, r a restaurant.
If yu dn't knw what else t d, ask a wman with children fr help. Ask fr help and remember t stay where yu are.
54. What shuld a child d first when he thinks he's lst?
A. Cry in the middle f the street. B. Stp and lk arund fr his adults.
C. Ask a pliceman fr help. D. Lk fr a telephne and call his adults.
55. If a child gets lst in the library and can't find his parents, what can he d?
A. Leave the library t lk fr them. B. Walk arund until he finds them.
C. Ask a stranger fr help. D. Yell ut his parents' names.
56. Which f the fllwing advice is NOT mentined(提到)?
A. Children shuld stay in the place that is safe.
B. Children shuld find their way hme.
C. Children shuld keep calm when they're lst.
D. Children shuld ask a wman with children fr help.
C
Many peple like t travel by plane. Planes are fast but I dn't like it because an airprt is usually far frm the city. Yu have t get there early and wait fr hurs fr the plane t take ff and it is ften late. Yu can't pen the windw. Yu can't chse the fd. Planes are fast, but they still take hurs t get ut f the airprt and int the city.
I like travelling by train. I think trains are safe. Railway statins are usually in cities. When yu are late fr a train, yu can catch anther ne. Yu can walk arund in the train and pen the windws. Yu can see many interesting things n yur way. I knw it takes a little mre time.
I als like cars. Yu can start yur jurney (旅途) when yu want t, and yu dn't need t get t a railway statin r a bus stp early. Als yu can carry many things with yu in a car. But smetimes there are t many cars n the rad.
57. Why d many peple like t travel by plane?
A. Because it is fast. B. Because it is safe.
C. Because yu can walk arund in the plane. D. Because yu can start yur jurney when yu want t.
58. Which is NOT the gd thing abut the train?
A. It is safe. B. It takes a little mre time.
C. Yu can pen the windws. D. Yu can walk arund in the train.
59. What is the bad thing abut the car?
A. Yu needn't g t a statin. B. Yu can start yur jurney when yu want t.
C. Smetimes there are t many cars n the rad. D. Yu need g t a bus stp early.
60. What des the writer think f the plane, train and car?
A. He thinks it takes a lt f time t g t and get ut f the airprt.
B. He likes t take a train because it takes a little mre time.
C. He likes t take a car because he has a car.
D. He likes t take a car because there are nt t many cars n the rad.
D
Welcme t Manr Fam U-pick Activities. We are famus fr ur delicius strawberries. We'd like t invite yu t visit the farm and enjy ur fresh strawberries and great farming experiences. We'll try ur best t make a safe(安全的) pen-air envirnment fr yu.
T pick the strawberries, yu need t make a reservatin (预约) n the Internet. Reservatins are pen frm 13: 00 t 20: 00 the day befre the picking day.
First f all, fr thers' health, please dn't cme t the farm if yu have the flu r ther infectius diseases.
Next, n the farm, yu need t stay at least tw meters away frm anyne else. Yu must use ur new baskets nly, because they are sft and safe. Yu can spend 5 yuan n a basket. It hlds(容纳) abut 2kg f strawberries and a basket f strawberries is at 50 yuan in all.
Third, children MUST stay clse t their parents. They shuldn't run up and dwn. Our wrkers will tell them where t start picking and the children shuld listen carefully.
At last, n pets shuld be n the farm. If yu have any questins, please call us at 906-256-523.
61. If yu g t the farm n August 8th, yu can make a reservatin at _________.
A. 10: 00 n August 6th B. 10: 00 n August 7th
C. 14: 00 n August 6th D. 14: 00 n August 7th
62. Which may be the main reasn fr using the farm's new baskets?
A. T pick strawberries quickly. B. T save the envirnment.
C. T pick mre strawberries. D. T keep peple n the farm safe.
63. What can children d n the farm?
A. Run up and dwn. B. Lk after their pets.
C. Stay clse t their parents. D. Pick strawberries anywhere.
64. What d the underlined wrds “infectius diseases” mean in the article?
A. Bad hbbies. B. Health prblems. C. Similar activities. D. Creative advice.
65. Wh is the article mst pssibly frm?
A. A farm wner. B. A teacher. C. A cleaner. D. A parent.
IX. 任务型阅读。(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,按要求完成66-70题。
Reading is very imprtant t us. It can pen many drs and lead yu int a rad t success. Everyne shuld have a gd reading habit. This is because it is an imprtant way t get infrmatin.
Hw can yu imprve yur reading? There is a gd way. Fr example, when yu learn hw t ride a bike, yu have t get n the bike as many times as pssible. It is the same as reading. If yu g ut, take a magazine, a bk r smething else t read. When yu are reading, try t understand: what message the writer is giving t yu.
Gd bks are friends. They can bring us much happiness.
66、67题完成句子;68题简略回答问题;69题找出并写下全文的主题句:70题将文中划线句子译成汉语。
66. Reading can lead yu int ___________________________.
67. Learning hw t ride a bike is ___________________________ reading.
68. What can gd bks bring us?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
69. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
70. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
X. 词语运用。(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的单词(有提示词的,填入所给单词的正确形式)。
Jhn and I are in the same schl. He is my best friend. He is tw years 71. _______(yung) than I am. He is never late fr schl and he des his hmewrk 72. _______(careful). He is always helpful. and he ften helps me 73. _______ my English after class.
His parents are 74. _______ (vilin) and they are really busy, but they lve their jb. Jhn's grandparents live in the cuntryside. Last Sunday, he 75. _______ (invite)me t his grandparents' farm. Everything was great there. We fed sme hens and saw sme baby pigs, they were s cute. We really enjyed 76. _______(we).
He likes playing sprts. He plays ftball 77. _______(tw)a week. We ften play ftball tgether and he 78. _______(play)it well. Everyne in his class likes him. But I am mre 79. _______ (interest) in art. I want t be 80. _______ artist when I grw up.
But nw it's time t graduate and we are ging t leave schl. We believe ur friendship will be frever.
XI. 基础写作。(包括A、B两部分,A部分5分,B部分15分,共20分)
A)连词成句(共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
根据所给单词连成句子。要求符合语法,语句通顺,大小写正确,词语不得重复使用,句末标点已给出。
81. idea, what, great, a
________________________________________________________________________________!
82. can't, I, game shws, stand,
________________________________________________________________________________.
83. interesting, did, anything, yu, d
________________________________________________________________________________?
84. utging, me, mre, is, she, than
________________________________________________________________________________.
85. play, hw, des, sprts, he, ften
________________________________________________________________________________?
B)书面表达。(满分15分)
86. 人们都在谈论“中国梦”。作为中学生,我们更应该规划好现在,成就未来。在接下来的寒假生活中,你将如何安排时间,过一个有意义的假期呢?请以“My Winter Hliday”为题写一篇短文。
提示:简单描述去年的假期生活:重点规划今年的假期生活。
要求:1. 短文须包含所有信息,可适当拓展;
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名;
3. 70词左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数)。
My Winter Hliday
The winter hliday is cming __________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2023-2024学年第一学期期末教学质量检测
八年级英语试卷参考答案
1-5 BCABC 6-10 CABAC 11-15 AACBC 16-18 BCC 19-21 BCC 22-25 ABBA
26. hme 27. 6: 00/six 28. gifts 29. play games 30. vide
31-35 BDABA 36-40 CACBB 41-45 ABCDB 46-50 BABCD
51-53 DAA 54-56 BDB 57-60 ABCA 61-65 DDCBA
66. a rad t success 67. the same as
68. They can bring us much happiness.
69. Reading is very imprtant t us.
70. 如果你出去,带一本杂志、一本书或其他什么东西去读。
71. yunger 72. carefully 73. with 74. vilinists 75. invited
76. urselves 77. twice 78. plays 79. interested 80. an
81. What a great ideal
82. I can't stand game shws.
83. Did yu d anything interesting?
84. She is mre utging than me.
85. Hw ften des he play sprts?
86. 例文
My Winter Hliday
The winter hliday is cming. In the last winter hliday, I usually watched TV and hung ut with my friends. It was bring.
In this year's winter hliday. I am ging t d a lt f interesting and meaningful things. First, I am ging t finish my hmewrk carefully as sn as pssible. Secnd, I am ging t learn English by watching English mvies. Finally, I want t keep healthy, s I will exercise every day.
Let's have a healthy and happy winter hliday. An Birthday Invitatin
Fr what
Inviting Tm t Mike's birthday party
Places
Having a party at his 26. _________.
Time
At 27. _________ p. m. n Dec. 20th
Preparatins
Cking a wnderful meal; Preparing small 28. _________ fr each.
Activities
They can sing, dance and 29. _________.
Mike will make a 30. _________ fr the party.
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