2022-2023学年湖北省武汉市硚口区八年级上学期期中英语试题及答案

这是一份2022-2023学年湖北省武汉市硚口区八年级上学期期中英语试题及答案，共11页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，完形填空，阅读理解，同义句表达，教材原文填空，阅读理解填词，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。

一、听力测试 (本题共25分，每小题1分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题，每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. With friends. B. Histry museum. C. By car.
2. A. I like cartns. B. Once a mnth. C. Three times.
3. A. My sister. B. She’s funny. C. It’s delicius.
4. A. It’s red. B. COOL BABY. C. $145.
5. A. The hst. B. On Channel 10. C. 8: 30pm.
第二节 (共7题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. Hw did the girl g t Beijing this time?
A. By car. B. By plane. C. By train.
7. Hw ften des the man eat hamburgers?
A. Once a week. B. Once a mnth. C. Twice a mnth.
8. What des the girl think f herself?
A. Very busy. B. Quite cl. C. Rather shy.
9. What is Sue gd at?
A. Music. B. Art. C. Sprts.
10. Why des the wman think Steve shuld get the jb?
A. He is mre hard-wrking. B. He is mre serius. C. He is smarter.
11. What des the wman think f Mvie Palace?
A. It’s the clsest. B. It’s the cheapest. C. It’s the nicest.
12. What des the by plan t d n Sunday?
A. G swimming. B. Play ftball. C. Fly a kite.
第三节 (共13小题，每小题1分，满分13分)
听下面4段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，根据所听材料内容，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段材料，回答13-15题。
13. What activity des the by d twice a week?
A. Watching TV. B. Reading. C. Ging shpping.
14. Hw ften des the by g t the cinema?
A. Twice a week. B. Once a mnth. C. Twice a mnth.
15. What can we knw abut the by?
A. He has a big family. B. He desn’t like studying. C. He has a healthy life style.
听下面一段材料，回答16-18题。
16. What des the by think f talk shws?
A. He likes them. B. He can’t stand them. C. He desn’t mind them.
17. What d the speakers want t watch at 5: 00pm?
A. Sccer game. B. Talent shw. C. Talk shw.
18. Hw des the by feel like the new talent shw?
A. Relaxing. B. Quite funny. C. A little bring.
听下面一段材料，回答19-22题。
19. Wh is the wman?
A. A ck. B. A driver. C. A clerk.
20. What time will the man get up the next mrning?
A. 6: 30. B. 7: 00. C. 7: 30.
21. Where will the man have his breakfast?
A. At his rm. B. At the dining hall. C. In a restaurant.
22. What will the man d prbably after the breakfast?
A. Have a meeting. B. G t the airprt. C. Visit his partners.
听下面一段材料，回答23-25题。
23. What did the cuple d in the afternn?
A. They went hiking. B. They went hang-gliding. C. They went sailing.
24. What happened t Dave?
A. He brke his leg. B. He lst his wife. C. He lst his way back.
25. Wh helped the cuple t a hspital at last?
A. The grup leader. B. Their parents. C. Plicemen.
二、选择填空 (本题共10分，每小题1分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
26. —Did yu g anywhere interesting last weekend?
— __________. I just stayed at hme and relaxed.
A. Of curse B. N prblem C. Nt really D. Sunds great
27. —Why didn’t yu cme fr dinner yesterday?
—I’m srry, but I __________.
A. frget B. will frget C. am frgetting D. frgt
28. —Wh’s __________ all f yu?
—I’m __________ than my brther and sister. They never stp talking.
A. the quietest; the quietest B. quieter; quieter
C. the quietest; quieter D. quieter; the quietest
29. —Mm, can I g t the party tnight?
—__________ yu cme back befre 10 ’clck tnight, dear.
A. As lng as B. Because C. When D. Althugh
30. —D yu __________ play basketball after schl?
—Yes. I play it every day.
A. always B. never C. hardly ever D. smetimes
31. —Yu knw Mary has t __________ between her jb and family.
—N wnder she lks wrried these days.
A. decide B. chse C. break D. care
32. —D yu think Liu Xialintng is a great __________ f Sun Wukng?
—I can’t agree mre. I really lve t watch his Jurney t the West.
A. shw B. cmpetitr C. perfrmer D. reprter
33. —Mm, my best friend bught a new smart phne last week.
—Dear, yur phne wrks well. It’s nt __________ fr yu t buy a new ne.
A. difficult B. imprtant C. natural D. necessary
34. —My car brke after the accident last night.
—Never __________ abut the car. Yu’re safe, and that’s the main thing.
A. talk B. mind C. try D. tuch
35. —Winning this game is a big deal fr me.
—Take it easy! Yu knw the ld saying “Friendship cmes first, __________ secnd”.
A. cmpetitin B. activity C. pint D. result
三、完形填空 (本题共15分，每小题1分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
Hi, my friends. My name is Jack. When I was a kid, I lived in an rphanage (孤儿院) in Taiwan. I felt lst and was uncertain (不确定的) abut my 36 . But I gt lucky. A cycling team called “Bike Angel” came int my 37 and changed it frever.
This team was set up by a scial (社会) wrker, Mr. Yang Minzhng. In 2011, he 38 my rphanage. He learned that many f us liked t 39 bikes. But we didn’t have 40 mney t buy ur wn bikes. Mr. Yang decided t help us 41 ur dream f traveling by bicycle.
The fllwing summer, Mr. Yang rganized (组织) a cycling team f 75 peple. Amng them were 35 yung peple, including 42 After biking arund the island f Taiwan, we 43 frm Beijing t Xiamen. During this 40 -day trip, we traveled abut 3, 200 kilmeters. We 44 the beautiful scenery (风景) f different cities. In Beijing, fr example, we std at the 45 f the Great Wall and visited the Bird’s Nest Stadium. We als develped deep friendships with mainland vlunteers (大陆的志愿者).
46 this trip, I became a vlunteer fr the Bike Angel team. Over the past ten years, mre than 900 children and yung peple frm Taiwan have taken part in ur cycling turs. Thanks t these trips, many f them fund 47 and started wrking hard t 48 a better life fr themselves.
In the future, we will 49 mre cycling trips. Our final gal is nt just t g sightseeing, but t help yung peple see the wider 50 and challenge (挑战) themselves!
36. A. familyB. parents C. future D. friends
37. A. hme B. life C. schl D. rphanage
38. A. visited B. bught C. cared D. reached
39. A. use B. clean C. wash D. ride
40. A. full B. fresh C. enugh D. such
41. A. make B. tuch C. break D. realize
42. A. I B. myself C. me D. mine
43. A. cycled B. ran C. flew D. swam
44. A. shared B. chse C. enjyed D. expected
45. A. ft B. head C. arm D. leg
46. A. Befre B. After C. During D. With
47. A. dream B. prize C. reasn D. hpe
48. A. create B. becme C. appear D. win
49. A. take B. plan C. push D. bring
50. A. cities B. twns C. wrld D. cities
四、阅读理解 (本题共30分，每小题2分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
A
51. Where can yu see the reading material?
A. In the ntice. B. In the newspaper. C. On the Internet. D. On TV.
52. If yu want t knw mre infrmatin abut thers, yu can click __________.
A. “here” B. “Cntact him” C. “Cntact her” D. “View mre”
53. Wh is the ldest?
A. Carry. B. Dean. C. Shirley. D. Stacey’s friend.
54. When did Carry take up knitting as her hbby?
A. When she was a kid. B. In the lckdwn. C. While walking dgs. D. 34 years ag.
55. It’s clear that __________.
A. Shirley needs a pen pal yunger than her
B. peple in the pictures all can speak English
C. Carry wuld like t send e-mails t her pen pal
D. Dean Gill wants a pen pal wh likes writing and dancing
B
D yu like summer hliday? In Australia, summer hliday is frm late December t early February. Students have t finish their hmewrk. They shuld read sme English bks and write reprts. They als need t d science prjects with their classmates. They ften g t special classes t learn swimming, singing and cking. And they really like t g t the beach t camp with their parents.
Summer hliday in the US is very lng, frm early June t arund late August. Teachers will give summer hmewrk. But if students dn’t d it, it’s OK. There are many classes and camps. They can be abut sprts, cking, r utdr survival skills (户外生存技巧) . Sme students als g camping with friends r family. Sme students will try t make mney by ding the husewrk. Sme will d vluntary wrk like helping the elderly r the pr fr free.
In France, summer hliday usually ges frm mid-June t the end f August. But the first day is different fr everyne because f the day f the last exam. French students dn’t have any hmewrk r classes. They spend the hliday having fun. Sme students like traveling arund the wrld. They see nature in Africa. They visit America t learn English. They g t China. Other students enjy themselves in France. They camp n the beach, see friends, watch mvies, g swimming and have barbeque (烧烤) parties.
56. What is the theme f the passage?
A. Man and self. B. Man and sciety.
C. Man and nature. D. Man and wrld.
57. The students in __________ have n hmewrk during summer hliday.
A. Australia B. the US C. France D. China
58. __________ is ppular with students in the three cuntries.
A. Learning skills B. Having classes C. Ging camping D. Seeing friends
59. Which f the fllwing is true accrding t the passage?
A. French students nly meet their friends at schl.
B. Students in the US have summer hliday fr abut fur mnths.
C. Mst students take math r English classes during summer hliday.
D. It’s winter in China when Australian students enjy their summer hliday.
60. The passage is mainly abut __________.
A. students’ summer hmewrk B. students’ activities after schl
C. different places fr students t travel D. summer hliday in different cuntries
C
When Jsh Sundquist was nine years ld, he lst his left leg t cancer (癌症) ，but that has never stpped him frm living life t the fullest. In later life, Jsh became a skier and a writer. He even wrks as a cmedian (喜剧演员) and is famus fr his funny Hallween cstumes!
Mre than ten years ag, Jsh began t make gd use f his missing leg in his Hallween cstume designs (设计). In2O20, he csplayed (扮演) Grt, the tree frm the Guardians f the Galaxy mvie series (《银河护卫队》系列). “Grt and his friends have met many difficulties, “said Jsh. “But he’s always smiling, dancing and having a gd time. “He hped t encurage peple t stay happy like Grt during COVID-19.
In 2021, what cstume did Jsh wear t win ver his wn Grt ne? Well, he spent mnths practicing in the gym. He wrked n psing his bdy int a very “inhuman” shape. Finally, Jsh shwed up in his2021 cstume. -a micrscpe (显微镜)!
Check ut the picture n the right. Can this pse? Jsh cntinues t bring peple laughter with his Hallween cstumes. We can’t wait t see what he’ll be wearing fr this year’s Hallween!
61. What happened t Jsh when he was nine?
A. He lst his left arm. B. He began learning t ski.
C. He had a bad cancer. D. He wrked as a cmedian.
62. What is Jsh famus fr?
A. His sprts talent. B. His bks. C. His shws. D. His cstumes.
63. What can yu knw abut Grt?
A. He will shw up in 2022 cstume.
B. He was always having a gd time.
C. He likes t watch the Galaxy mvie series.
D. He brught peple laughter with his cstumes.
64. When did Jsh cstume as a micrscpe?
A. In2019. B. In2020. C. In2021. D. In2022.
65. What can yu learn frm the passage?
A. Csplay is mre and mre ppular in China.
B. Grt is a pretty character in the Star Wars series.
C. There are many prblems waiting fr us in ur life.
D. We shuld try t live a happy life in the face f challenges.
第Ⅱ部分非选择题 (40分)
五、同义句表达 (共5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
66. What d yu think f this place?
__________ d yu __________ this place?
67. The ld man is healthy.
The ld man is __________ gd__________.
68. Li Ping desn’t run as fast as Wang Lin.
Wang Lin runs __________ __________ Li Ping.
69. I’ve gt sme imprtant things t tell yu.
I’ve gt __________ __________ t tell yu.
70. He is mre serius than any ther by in ur class.
He is the __________ __________ by in ur class.
六、教材原文填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
Greenwd Park is the best place t g t n weekends. I always finish my breakfast __________ (71) n Saturdays because I want t get t Greenwd Park befre 10: 00 a. m. t meet my friends. The park is the mst __________ (72) place n weekends because almst everyne ges there t see the street perfrmers. Sme peple think they are __________ (73), but I think they are the mst creative peple. __________ (74), the place where yu can enjy yur time mst quietly is at ne f the small cffee shps near the park. Yu can read r relax there. There is smething fr __________ (75) at Greenwd Park.
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题1分，共10分)
先阅读短文，然后在短文后空白处写出各单词的正确形式，单词的第一个字母已给出。
The wrld we live in is becming a “village” Every day, t__________ (76) f peple travel t different cuntries. They are sightseeing, s__________ (77) wrking r vlunteering. Perhaps in the near f__________ (78), yu will als be ne f these peple.
Living in a f__________ (79) cuntry is exciting and als life-changing. Yu can see beautiful scenery, t__________ (80) many kinds f fd and meet peple frm different backgrunds. Mst imprtantly f all, yu can try living a new lifestyle and maybe even becme a part f the lcal c__________ (81).
Yur steretypes (成见) break d__________ (82) Yu might find French peple are nt always “rmantic” Americans dn’t eat McDnald’s all the time. And yu wn’t get malaria (疟疾) frm a msquit (蚊子) bite in A__________ (83).
In fact, that’s prbably the mst interesting part f t__________ (84) abrad. If yu dn’t have a try t change yur way f thinking, there’s n pint in leaving hme at all. It’s better t be __________ (85) t new experiences (经历).
八、书面表达 (15分)
假设你是李芳，Alice是你最好的朋友。你想向大家介绍一下她。请你根据下面的提示内容写一篇英语短文，内容包括：
1. 比你小一岁，比你高；
2. 擅长写作，想当一个名记者；
3. 注重健康饮食，每周锻炼三次；
4. 性格外向，学习努力，喜欢电影；
5. 请补充一至两点相关内容。
写作要求：书写整洁、整齐、清晰；表达通顺流畅，不得逐字翻译；篇幅80词左右。
提示词汇：exercise v. 锻炼；reprter n. 记者；utging adj. 外向的
My name is Li Fang. Nw let me intrduce my best friend t yu. __________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
I like t be friends with her.
参考答案
一、听力测试 (本题共25分，每小题1分)
1-5 BBABC 6-10 CCABA 11-15 BCABC 16-20 CABCA21-25 ABBAC
二、选择填空 (本题共10分，每小题1分)
26-30 CDCAA 31-35 BCDBA
三、完形填空 (本题共15分，每小题1分)
36-40 CBADC 41-45 DBACA 46-50 BDABC
四、阅读理解 (本题共30分，每小题2分)
51-55 CDABB 56-60 BCCDD 61-65 CDBCD
五、同义句表达 (共5小题，每小题2分，共10分)
66. Hw, like 67. in, health 68. faster, than 69. smething, imprtant70. mst serius
六、教材原文填空 (共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
71. fastest 72. crwded 73. bring 74. Hwever 75. Everyne
七、阅读理解填词 (每小题1分，共10分)
76. thusands 77. studying 78. future 79. freign 80. taste
81. culture 82. dwn 83. Africa 84. travelling 85. Open
八、书面表达 (15分)
略
Cme and Find a Pen Pal Here!
Welcme t Glbal Friends! Sign up here and find pen pals frm all ver the wrld!
Carry NewmanCntact her
Age: 34 Language: English
I am an pen-minded 34-year-ld living in Sctland. I lve t travel but haven’t been able t d much f that these last few years. I used the lckdwn (封锁) t teach myself hw t knit (编织) . It is nw ne f my favrite hbbies. I lve spending time with friends, either ver a gd meal r alng dg walk. I wuld lve t have a snail (蜗牛) mail pen pal. I like pretty statinery (信纸), but the letter is always mre imprtant than the paper!
Dean Gill Cntact him
Age: 26 Language: English
I’m a shy persn. Althugh I have been trying t escape (逃避) my little shell, I still lve lsing myself in ther wrlds, whether it’s a nice nvel r a great mvie. I als lve t write and draw. I enjy being arund peple with similar interests. I’m nw lking fr smene wh truly enjys writing and drawing. I prefer deep cnversatins. We can share ur gals, dreams, thughts and s n.
Shirley Stacey Cntact her
Age: 15 Language: English
Hi there! I am frm Nrthern Califrnia in the U. S. I lve hanging ut with my family and listening t a large variety f music. I als lve reading and ften spend my free time trying t find new bks t read. I am a bit shy with new friends, but I quickly pen up nce I have gtten t knw them. I am lking fr a pen pal f my age. I dn’t mind where he r she may live.
View mre