马头中学2022-2023学年度第一学期期末七年级英语试卷

这是一份马头中学2022-2023学年度第一学期期末七年级英语试卷，共16页。试卷主要包含了Wh are they ?， C等内容，欢迎下载使用。

本试题分第I卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分，共10页，满分120分。考试时间为120分钟。
答卷前，请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上，并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
选择题部分 共80分
注意事项∶
每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
I.听力测试（25分）
A）听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（5分）
is my sister. B. His name is Bb. C. Helen has a ruler.
keys are n the desk. B. We g t the same schl. C .Have a gd day!
thse yur keys? B. Are they in the bx? C. Des she like black?
4.A.I dn't have a baseball. B. He desn't like apples. C. She desn't like bananas.
ld is yur sn? B. Wh is the little by? C. When is the bk sale?
B）在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（5分）
6.What's that n the desk?
A. It's a bk. B. It's a map. C. It's a cup.
7.Wh are they ?
A. They are fine. B. They are 12. C. They are Jim's uncle and aunt.
8.Why des the girl like P.E.?
A .Because it's fun. B. Because it's small. C. Yes ,I like it.
9. When is Sam's birthday?
A. June 2nd. B. At 12:00. C. Octber 15th.
10.What des Linda d after class?
A. She runs. B. She has dance lessns. C. She watches TV.
C）在录音中，你将听到一段对话及五个问题。请根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。对话听两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间）（7.5分）
11.What des the by want?
A.A shirt. B.A sweater. C.A hat.
12.Why des the by buy it?
A. Fr schl. B. Fr fun. C. Fr sprts
13.What clr des he want?
A. White. B. Blue. C. Yellw.
14.Hw much is it?
A.20 dllars. B.8 dllars. C.9 dllars.
Where are the wman and the by?
A. At hme. B. In a stre. C. At schl.
D）在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒钟读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟答题时间）（7.5分）
16. Hw ld is Linda?
A.12. B.13. C.14.
17. What des Linda have fr lunch ?
A. Ndles. B. Rice. C. Meat.
18.When d classes begin in the afternn?
A. At 1:00. B. At 1:30. C. At 2:00.
19.What's Linda's favrite subject?
A. English. B. Science C. Math.
20. What des Linda think f vlleyball?
A. Easy. B. Relaxing C. Fun.
II.选择填空从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。（15分）
21. —What's that?
—It's ID card.
A. a B. an C. the D./
22. —Is this Mr. White's map?
—N, it's nt. It's Helen's.
A. His B. mine C. hers D. yurs
23. —I like basketball. It's very easy me.
—Oh, I like basketball, t.
A. f B. fr C .t D. at
24. —D yu like.
— Yes, I d. I really like bananas.
A. fruit B. bread C. chicken D. vegetables
25. Kate's rm is always tidy _ Gina's rm is nt.
A. s B. but C. and D. because
26. —she have a tennis ball?
—N, she has a basketball.
A. Is B. D C .Are D .Des
27. ——Can yu cme t my birthday party next week?
——Srry. I'm very next week.
A. busy B. free C. tidy D. happy
28. —Yur T-shirt_ __very nice.
—Thank yu.
A. sunds B. sees C. lks D. watches
29. 一 is yur Chinese teacher?
—Mr. Wang.
A. Why B. What C. Wh D. Hw
30. —D yu have English n Mnday?
—N, it's the next day. It's n.
A. Thursday B. Tuesday C. Friday D. Sunday
31. —We'll have a art festival next mnth.
— !
A. Thanks B. Yu're welcme C. That's OK D. Have a gd time.
32.—Tm, let's watch TV.
—N, that sunds _.
A. interesting B. relaxing C. useful D. bring
33.—Mm,I lve that T-shirt. Can yuit fr me.
—OK. Hw much is it?
A. sell B .ask C. buy D. want
34.—— Mm ,I'm hungry. Let'sthe fd fr dinner.
—— Hw abut fish and vegetable salad?
A. ask fr B .think abut C. thank fr D. talk t
35. —I like Friday, because the next day is Saturday.
— Haha! I like Friday, t.
Here yu are. B. See yu. C. That's fr sure. D. Sunds gd
III.完形填空阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。（10分）
It’s Saturday mrning. I get up 36 eight. I find My parents are nt at hme. I am nt 37 . Tday is my birthday. I want t be with them. Then I 38 a phne call frm my father. “Gd mrning, my dear,” Dad says. “Nw g t 39 rm. There is a gift fr yu. 40 it and cme ut.”
I 41 a red bx in my rm. A red and white 42 is in it. I lve it very much. I putit n（穿上）and g ut. I see my parents. “Happy 43 !” they say.
“It’s a big day tday.” Mm says. “Let’s take a ne-day 44 . Hw abut ging t the amusement park(游乐场), dear?”
“Great! I lve it.” I say. Then the 45 g t the amusement park.
A. frB. nC. in D. at
A. happyB. busyC. tidyD. fat
A. knwB. getC. seeD. ask
A. urB. theirC. yurD. my
A. OpenB. SellC. BuyD. Lk
A. wantB. lseC. findD. have
A. mapB. libraryC. jacketD. table
A. New YearB. BirthdayC. Children’s DayD. Natinal Day
A. thingB. tripC. testD. term
A. byB. studentC. girlD. family
IV. 阅读理解阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题。
完成所给句子的最佳答案。（30分）
A
Bb is a nice by. He lives in Beijing. He studies（学习）in a middle schl. He gets up at six every day. He likes learning Chinese. He is a bright（聪明的）by. He draws well. After schl， He ften reads bks with his grandmther. At six 'clck in the evening， Bb has dinner at hme. Every evening at seven He des his hmewrk and he ges t bed at nine.
46. Bb lives in_ _
A. China B. New Yrk C .Canada D. Lndn
47. What des Bb like ding?
A. He likes reading strybks. B.H e likes singing.
C. He likes reading Chinese. D. He likes learning Chinese.
48.Bb is a ________by.
A. shrt B. tall C. lazy D. bright
49.What des Bb ften d after schl?
A. He draws pictures. B. He watches TV.
C. He reads bks with her grandmther. D. He des her hmewrk.
50.What time des he g t bed?
A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 6:00. D. At 7:00.
B
_________and _________are thirteen years ld.
A. Helen; GinaB. David; BillC. Bill; GinaD. Alice; David
52._________has an English test n Octber 16th.
A. HelenB. BillC. DavidD. Alice
53. David is in_________.
A. N.3 Middle SchlB.N.4 Middle Schl
C.N.2 Middle SchlD. N.5 Middle Schl
54.What activity des Gina have?
A. A sprt Day.B. A Schl Day.
C. An English test.D. A vlleyball game.
55. When is Tm’s birthday party?
A. On August 20th.B. On December 19th.
C. On Nvember 22nd.D. On December 20th.
C
Dear Jane,
I am very busy n Friday. At 8:00 I have Chinese. It is nt fun. Our teacher says it is useful, but I think it is difficult. Then at 9:00 I have math. It is difficult but interesting. At 10:00 I have histry. After that, I have 11:00.It's easy and fun. Lunch is frm 11:50 t 1:00, and after that we have English. It is my favrite subject. Our English teacher, Mr. Wang, is great fun. My classes finish at 1:45, but after that I have an art lessn fr tw hurs. It is really relaxing!
Hw abut yu? When are yur classes? What is yur favrite subject?
Yur friend,
Yang Mei
56. Yang Mei is very busy n
A. Friday B. Mnday C. Tuesday D. Wednesday
57. When des Yng Mei have histry?
A. at 8:00 B .At 10:00 C. at 9:00 D .at 11:00
58. What des Yang Mei think f math.
A. useful B. nt fun C. difficult but interesting D. easy and fun
59. Yang Mei desn't have ___________n Friday.
A. math B. gegraphy C. P.E. D. Chinese
60. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut Yang Mei?
A. She has lunch frm 11:30 t 1:00. B. She likes science best.
C. Her English teacher is great fun. D. She ges hme at 1:50 every day.
非选择题部分共40分
V.选词填空（10分）.
A. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的单词填空（每词限用一次）。
Jenny has a daughter. And (61) name is Lily. Tmrrw is Lily's birthday. Jenny wants t have a party fr her, (62)__she ges t the stre. Lily's(63)_clr is red. She buys tw red skirts and a red(64)__. They lk very nice. She thinks Lily will lve (65) very much.
B．阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的动词，并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号（每词限用一次）。
Hell! My name is Cindy. I have a gd friend. D yu want(66)_him? Let me tell yu. His last name is Miller. And his first name is Frank. He(67)__an American by. He can(68)_ftball very well. And he(69)_eating healthy fd. This Mrning, he is busy ding his hmewrk. After finishing his hmewrk, he will help his mther. She is in her clthes stre. Well, sme clthes are beautiful and cheap. Lk! This red skirt is nly 30 dllars. Cme and (70)yur clthes nw!
VI. 阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容， 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。（5分）
Mr. Cl's Clthes Stre
Welcme t ur clthes stre at ur great sale!(71)_
D yu like sweaters? We have green sweaters fr nly $15! (72)_Yellw sweaters are nly $12!(73)__Fr bys, we have black trusers fr nly $22.And shrts are nly$16!Fr girls, we have skirts in purple fr nly $20.(74). _ Only $30! And we have black shes fr nly $28. Scks are nly $2 fr three pairs!
(75)_
A. Blue sweaters are $14!
B. D yu need trusers
C. Cme t Mr. Cl's Clthes Stre nw!
D. D yu like hats E. They are $25.
F. Hw much are ur jackets?
G. We sell all ur clthes at very gd prices.
VII．书面表达（25分）
A. 根据汉语意思，写出英语句子。(10分)
76. 我有一个足球。
_________________________________________________________________
77. 你喜欢苹果吗？
_________________________________________________________________
78. 这些袜子多少钱？
_________________________________________________________________
79. 你的父母可以来我们学校。
_________________________________________________________________
80. 我喜欢周一因为我有体育和历史。
_________________________________________________________________
B. 英语写作（15分）
亲爱的同学们，一学期就要结束了，相信经过这个学期的学习，你的英语水平肯定有了很大的提高。假如你是李华，请根据表格提示来用英语介绍一下自己吧。
要求：
不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名等相关信息。
可适当增加细节使行文更加连贯。
约70个词汇。
答案
Ⅰ.听力测试（25分， 1-10题每题1分，11-20分1.5分）
-5 BCABC 6--10 BCACB 11--15 BABCB 16--20 BACCA
解析：
略
II．选择填空（15分）
21-25 BABAB26-30 DACCB31-35 DDCBC 解析：
21.ID card 第一个音素为元音，故选B, an.
22. Mr. White’map, 故选his。
23．fr me, 对我而言。
24．下文喜欢香蕉， 故问的是你喜欢水果吗。
25. 前后句相反，用but表转折对比的意思。
26. 含有实义动词have的一般疑问句， 助动词用d或des。主语是she为单数第三人称，故选Des。
27. 答语srry说明不能去， 下周比较忙碌， 故选busy。
28. lks 看起来。
29. 答语是Mr.Wang， 问的是什么人。 故选wh。
30. Mnday的第二天故选Tuesday。
31. 下月有艺术节， 祝你节日玩得愉快， 故选Have a gd time.
32. 对方的提议否定了，故答语为听起来无聊。 故选bring。
33. 我喜欢那件T恤衫， 以及妈妈问价格， 故选buy买。
34. think abut 考虑符合题意。
35. 考查的课本原文， 喜欢周五因为第二天是周六。 这是肯定的。
III．完形填空 (10分)
36-40 DABCA41-45 CCBBD
解析：
36. at+时间点
37. 父母亲不在家所以我不高兴， nt 后填happy。
38.接到一个电话， get a phne call.
39. 爸爸对我说的话， 走出你的房间，用yur。
40.pen 打开
41. find发现。
42. 后文穿上，故选衣物类的jacket。
43. 前文可知祝福生日快乐。Happy Birthday！
44. 一天的路程用trip。
45. the family 一家人
IV. 阅读理解 （30分）
46-50 ADDCB 51-55CBADB 56-60 ABCBC
46. Bingjing 是中国（China）的首都，故选China。
47. 原文第二行， He likes learning Chinese。 故选D
48.原文 He is a bright（聪明的）by. 故选D bright。
49.原文He ften reads bks with his grandmther. 故选C。
50.原文he ges t bed at nine可知睡觉时间是9：00， 故选B。
51. 图表Age栏， 13岁对应的是Bill和Gina， 故选C。
52.Bill信息里可以看到英语测试及时间，故选B。
53.David信息找到N.3 Middle Schl， 故选A。
信息里可以找到A vlleyball game. 故选D。
55.Alice信息里可以找到On December 19th.故选 B。
56.原文I am very busy n Friday. 可知选A。
57.原文At 10:00 I have histry.故选 A， histry。
58.原文Then at 9:00 I have math. It is difficult but interesting. 故选C。
59.通读全文gegraphy地理科目没有出现， 故选B。
60.原文Our English teacher, Mr. Wang, is great fun. 故选C。
V. 选词填空（10分）
61.her 62. s 63. favrite 64. jacket 65. them
66.t knw 67.is 68.play 69. Likes 70.buy
解析：
61.Jane是女孩， 她的要用her。
62.前后表因果， 故选s， 所以
63.她最喜欢的颜色，故选favrite。
64.前面买两个红色短裙，and 并列的应该还是衣服， 故选jacket。
65.前文they看起来很好看， 故选喜欢它们的宾格them。
66.want t d sth. 想要认识他， 故选t knw。
67.主语是He单数第三人称， 故选be动词的单数第三人称形式is。
68.play ftball 固定搭配， 前有情态动词can 所以用play原型。
69.like+ding， 主语为单数第三人称，故用likes。
70.原文想要表达现在来买你的衣服吧， 故用买buy。
VI．阅读理解七选五(5分)
71-75 GABFC
解析：
考查课文原文的背诵及掌握情况。
书面表达（25分）
根据汉语意思，写出句子。(10分)
I have a sccer ball/ftball.
D yu like apples?
Hw much are these/the scks?
Yur parents can cme t ur schl.
I like Mnday because I have P.E. and histry.
解析：
76. 动词have的考查。
77. D yu like…?句型的考查。
78.Hw much is/are…？句型的考查。
79.情态动词can的考查。
80.I like…because….句型的考查。
B. 英语写作（15分）
评分标准：
1）本大题共15分。
2）卷面书写潦草不工整，以至影响交际，可酌情扣1－2分。
3）拼写错误每两个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。
4) 书面表达可分为五个档次:
(1)优 14－15分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句通顺，语言丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2处），字数符合要求。严控满分20分。
(2)良 12－13分：短文内容符合所给提示。语句较通顺，语言较丰富，书写较工整，3－4处语法错误，字数比较符合要求。
(3)中 9－11分：短文内容基本符合所给提示。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多，字数在80词左右。
(4)差 5－8分：短文内容不太符合所给提示。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写较差，字数不足60词。
(5)劣 4分以下：内容与所给要求少有联系，语法、词汇乃至拼写比比皆是，碎言片语，少有可读正确句子；书写潦草难认。
(6)0分卷。作文空白卷，通篇抄写阅读文章；用汉语拼音书写者。
阅作文正确模式：
首先，通览整篇作文，关注所呈现的内容（完整层次性），语言（流畅多样性）、
语法（正确无误性）、词汇（丰富准确性）、书写（规范优美性）等方面。
然后，依据上述几方面的整体感知印象，给作文准确定档。定准档，不跨档，是阅作文的核心技术，只要双评老师都不跨档，就不会出现无效卷。
最后，再览全文，确认感知，权衡长短，在欲给的档次内，给出确切的分数。
Name
Age
Schl
Date
Activity
Bill
13
N.1 Middle Schl
Octber 16th
English test
David
15
N.3 Middle Schl
August 20th
Sprts Day
Gina
13
N.5 Middle Schl
Nvember 22nd
Vlleyball game
Alice
12
N.4 Middle Schl
December 19th
Tm’s birthday party
Helen
14
N.2 Middle Schl
December 20th
Schl Day
Her s favrite them jacket
knw like buy be play
姓名
Li Hua
年龄
12
生日
饮食习惯
体育运动
喜爱科目及原因