河北省邢台市威县第三中学2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份河北省邢台市威县第三中学2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

本试卷共8页。总分120分，考试时间120分钟。
听力部分
I.听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
（ ）1. A. a bxB. a planeC. a cmputer
（ ）2. A. play gamesB. watch TVC. take phts
（ ）3. A. March 6thB. April 8thC. May 18th
（ ）4. A. I get a jacket.B. I dn’t like yellw.C. I sell a yellw jacket.
（ ）5. A. Tim desn’t like sccer.
B. Tim can play sccer well.
C. Sccer is difficult fr Tim.
II.听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
（ ）6. A. In the bkcase.B. They’re art bks.C. Yes, they are.
（ ）7. A. Sure, Jhn.B. Thank yu.C. Yu’re right.
（ ）8. A. It’s OK.B. That’s fr sure.C. Here yu are.
（ ）9. A. Let’s g!B. See yu there.C. Have a gd day.
（ ） 10. A. His name is Nick.B. He is 13 years ld.C. He is frm China.
III.听对话和问题，选择正确答案。（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
（ ）11. Wh is Lucy?
A. B. C.
（ ） 12. What des Jack like fr breakfast?
A. B. C.
（ ）13. Wh’s the by in the pht?
A. Susan’s brther.B. Susan’s cusin.C. Susan’s friend.
（ ）14. Hw ld is the by?
A. 11.B. 12.C. 13.更多优质滋源请 家 威杏 MXSJ663 （ ）15. Where is Susan’s English ntebk?
A. On the table.B. Under the chair.C. In the bkcase.
（ ）16. What des the wman need?
A. A pair f scks.B. A pair f shrts.C. A pair f shes.
（ ）17. What clr des the wman like?
A. Blue.B. Brwn.C. Black.
（ ）18. Hw much des the wman pay(支付)?
A. 10 dllars.B. 20 dllars.C. 30 dllars.
IV.听短文和问题，选择正确答案。（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
（ ）19. Why des Wang Yu play sprts every day?
A. Because he has P.E. every day.
B. Because he wants t be healthy.
C. Because his parents ask him t d that.
（ ）20. What’s Wang Yu’s favrite sprt?
A. Baseball.B. Basketball.C. Sccer.
（ ）21. Hw many (多少) gd friends des Dra have in the schl?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Fur.
（ ）22. When is Jenny’s birthday?
A. On July 16th.B. On Octber 28th.C. On December 5th.
（ ）23. What des Dra think f Alan?
A. Fun.B. Cl.C. Healthy.
（ ）24. Wh always helps Dra with her English?
A. Jenny.B. Alan.C. Mr. Smith.
（ ）25. What des Alan want t buy fr their English teacher?
A. A nice card.B. A set f CDs.C. A white cup.
V.听短文填空。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
笔试部分
VI.单项选择。（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
（ ）31. Yu can buy the jacket ______ a very gd price in this stre.
A. atB. nC. inD. with
（ ）32. Lk! Sme tmates ______ n the table and sme milk ______ in the cup.
A. are; areB. are; isC. is; isD. is; are
（ ）33. Lily and I are in the same class, s we are ______.
A. girlsB. bysC. parentsD. classmates
（ ）34. Where is my key? I can’t ______ it.
A. findB. lseC. buyD. play
（ ）35. Jack’s head is ______ but he’s in a big hat. It’s fun.
A. bigB. tidyC. smallD. lng
（ ）36. It is Tuesday. The next day is ______.
A. MndayB. WednesdayC. ThursdayD. Saturday
（ ）37.—What ______ yu r cusin ______ ding n Sundays? —He likes playing tennis.
A. d; likeB. des; likeC. is; likeD. are; like
（ ）38. This dictinary is my sister’s. The ID card is ______, t.
A. yursB. hersC. hisD. mine
（ ）39. Timmy is my aunt’s ______ sn, and he is ______ years ld nw.
A. tw; fifthB. secnd; fifthC. tw; fiveD. secnd; five
（ ）40.—Let me find a skirt fr yu. Hw abut this ne? —______.
A. It lks niceB. It’s freeC. It’s 12 dllarsD. It’s 5 years ld
VII.完形填空。（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）阅读下面短文，从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
My name is David. I am a 41 in N. 8 Middle Schl. I am very busy this 42 . On June 3rd, we have a schl trip. I need t buy sme fd 43 the trip. On June 6th, we have a P.E. test. I am a fat by, s it is really 44 fr me. June 26th is my friend Alan’s 45 . He 46 us t cme t his party. I knw he likes ping-png, 47 I’ll buy a ping-png bat fr 48 . On the 49 day f June, June 30th, my schl has a bk sale. I can 50 my ld bks there. I hp (希望) I can have a gd time this mnth.
（ ）41. A. teacherB. studentC. wmanD. girl
（ ）42. A. dayB. timeC. weekD. mnth
（ ）43. A. frB. tC. inD. at
（ ）44. A. funB. relaxingC. difficultD. interesting
（ ）45. A. thingB. birthdayC. termD. festival
（ ）46. A. helpsB. takesC. wantsD. watches
（ ）47. A. frB. butC. sD. r
（ ）48. A. meB. usC. themD. him
（ ）49. A. firstB. middleC. lastD. next
（ ）50. A. buyB. haveC. thinkD. sell
VIII.阅读理解。（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读A、B、C、D四篇材料，然后从各小题所给的四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Jenny is a nice wman. She has a clthes stre. Its name is Jenny’s Clthes Stre. The stre is fr yung bys and girls. It has clthes in many clrs. Yu can try n (试穿) any clthes at the stre.
（ ）51. What can’t yu buy in Jenny’s Clthes Stre?
A. A blue jacket.B. A pair f purple trusers.
C. A T-shirt f size “S”.D. A skirt f size “L”.
（ ）52. Hw much are a T-shirt and a pair f trusers?
A. Twenty-five dllars.B. Twenty-six dllars.
C. Twenty-seven dllars.D. Twenty-nine dllars.
（ ）53. Luna is the mther f a middle schl girl. She can buy clthes fr her ______ at the stre.
A. daughterB. mtherC. fatherD. big sister
B
It is a nice day. Lucy is in the library. Her gd friend Judy calls her, “Cme t Rm 203, Lucy.”
Lucy ges t Rm 203. She sees a red card in frnt f the dr (在门前). It says, “Cme in, Lucy. And g t the sfa.” On the sfa, Lucy finds a bk. On the bk is a green card. It says, “G t the table.”
On the table, Lucy finds a cake. Next t it is a yellw card. It says, “G t Rm 204.”
Lucy ges t Rm 204. What des she see? Judy, Alice and Gina are there.
“Happy birthday, Lucy,” they say.
（ ）54. Where is the bk?
A. On the sfa.B. On the table.C. Under the sfa.D. Under the table.
（ ）55. What’s the clr f the card next t the cake?
A. Red.B. Yellw.C. Green.D. Black.
（ ）56. Lucy ges t ______ in rder (按顺序地).
A.
B.
C.
D.
（ ）57. What can we knw frm the text (文章)?
A. Lucy finds tw cards.B. Lucy is happy at last.
C. Tday (今天) is Judy’s birthday.D. Alice and Gina are in Rm 203.
C
（ ）58. Wh can g t the sccer camp?
A. Jack, 6.B. Eric, 13.C. Tim, 16.D. Jhn, 17.
（ ）59. Hw lng (多长时间) is the sccer camp?
A. Tw days.B. Three days.C. Fur days.D. Five days.
（ ）60. What des Mark need t d if he wants t g t the sccer camp?
A. Play sccer well.B. Take a sccer ball with him.
C. Pay Mr. Rbin 100 dllars.D. E-mail Mr. Rbin befre Nvember 30th, 2022.
（ ）61. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the text (根据文章,下列哪项是对的)?
A. Park Middle Schl is in Beijing.
B. The sccer camp is nly fr bys.
C. Students can get sprts shes frm the camp.
D. Students play sprts fr 5 hurs every day at the camp.
D
Tday is Children’s Day. Belinda’s family and friends buy many gifts (礼物) fr her. Her favrite thing is a bk. She receives it frm her grandmther. The bk is Silly Milly. D yu knw why?
Well, that’s because the girl in the bk is like (像) Belinda. In the bk, Milly likes green but nt red. She likes butter but nt bread.
What abut Belinda? She likes yellw and green. But she desn’t like red, brwn, blue, black r purple. She likes three but nt zer, ne, tw, fur, five, six, seven, eight r nine. She likes apples and strawberries but nt pears, ranges r bananas.
Nw, d yu knw why Miss Milly is like Belinda? Can yu see that Milly and Belinda like wrds (单词) with duble letters (双写的字母)? And Belinda desn’t like her name.
（ ）62. What des the underlined wrd “receives” prbably mean (画线单词可能是什么意思)?
A. Gets.B. Knws.C. Finds.D. Lses.
（ ）63. What number des Belinda like?
A. Zer.B. Three.C. Six.D. Seven.
（ ）64. Which name des Belinda prbably like?
A. Diana.B. Cindy.C. Betty.D. Tina.
（ ）65. What is the best title (最好的标题) fr the text?
A. A Fun PartyB. A Useful Bk
C. A Healthy GrandmtherD. An Interesting Girl
IX.任务型阅读。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，按要求完成66~70题。
Dear Peter,
Thank yu fr yur e-mail, and I am happy t be yur pen friend.
I am a girl frm Yucai Middle Schl. I always get t schl at 7:45 in the mrning and I’m never late fr schl. Frm this year, I begin t study (开始学习) sme new subjects. They are gegraphy and histry. I always listen t English music in my free time. I think English music is gd fr my English study. I like all the lessns at schl. After class I d sprts. My favrite sprt is basketball. I think it’s interesting. I ften play basketball with my friends, Bb and Victr. What abut yu? Please write t me sn.
Yurs,
Wang Lin
66、67题完成句子；68、69题简略回答问题；70题将文中画线句子译成汉语。
66. Wang Lin always ______ at7:45 in the mrning.
67. Wang Lin thinks ______ is gd fr her English study.
68. What subject des Wang Lin begin t study frm this year?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
69. Why des Wang Lin like basketball?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
70. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
X.词语运用。（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词（有提示词的，填入所给单词的正确形式）。
Gd mrning, everyne. Welcme t 71. ______ (I) schl. I g t schl 72. ______ Mnday t Friday. I have 8 subjects at schl, and I like 73. ______ (this) subjects. I have fur 74. ______ (class) in the mrning and I have the 75. ______ (ne) lessn at 8:00. At nn, I have lunch in the schl cafeteria (餐厅). The fd there 76. ______ (be) very gd. I like chicken, bread 77. ______ vegetables. D yu knw 78. ______ I finish schl? It’s at 4:20 p.m. After schl, I always play sprts. I like vlleyball and I’m 79. ______ gd vlleyball player. My friend David 80. ______ (like) vlleyball, t. S we always play vlleyball tgether.
XI.基础写作。（包括A、B两部分；A部分5分，B部分15分，共20分）
A）连词成句。（共5小题；每小题 1分，满分5分）
将所给词语连成句子，要求符合语法，语句通顺，大小写正确，词语不得重复使用。句末标点已给出。
81. eraser, needs, an, he
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
82. party, him, let’s, a, have, fr
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
83. my schl, that, map, a, is, f
______________________________________________________________________________________________.
84. fr, yu, lunch, eat, d, salad
______________________________________________________________________________________________?
85. yur, favrite, is, music star, wh
______________________________________________________________________________________________?
B）书面表达。（满分15分）
86.假如你是李华，请你根据以下问题，写一篇短文，向大家介绍一下自己。
提示：（1）Hw ld are yu?
（2）Wh are yur family members (成员)?
（3）What’s yur favrite
要求：（1）短文须包含上述所有信息，可适当发挥；
（2）文中不得出现真实的地名、校名和人名；
（3）词数50个左右。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023学年七年级第一学期期末考试
英语（人教版）听力部分
第一题：听句子，选出句子中所包含的信息。下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出包含所听信息的选项。
N. 1. I have a nice cmputer. N. 2. I always play games with my friends. N. 3. Our English Day is n April 8th.
N. 4. I buy a yellw jacket. N. 5. Tim’s favrite sprt is sccer and he can play it well.
第二题：听句子，选出该句的最佳答语。下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从各小题所
给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出该句的最佳答语。
N. 6. Are thse yur bks? N. 7. Can I ask yu sme questins, Sally? N. 8. Yu really lve gegraphy!
N. 9. We have a schl trip n Sunday. N. 10. What’s yur brther’s name?
第三题：听对话和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到四组对话和八个问题，每组对话和问题读两遍。请你听完对话和问题的第二遍朗读后，从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出正确答案。
请听第一组对话，回答第11题。
M: Hi, Lucy! Yu lk nice in this sweater!
W: Thank yu very much!
Questin N. 11. Wh is Lucy?
请听第二组对话，回答第12题。
W: What d yu like fr breakfast, Jack?
M: A chicken hamburger, please.
Questin N. 12. What des Jack like fr breakfast?
请听第三组对话，回答第13至15题。
M: Hell, Susan. What’s this in English?
W: It’s a pht.
M: Wh’s the by in the pht? Is he yur brther?
W: N, he is my cusin.
M: What’s his name?
W: His name is Tny. He’s thirteen years ld.
M: Oh, I see. Is this yur English ntebk n the table?
W: N, it’s my sister’s. Mine is in the bkcase.
Questin N. 13. Wh’s the by in the pht? Questin N. 14. Hw ld is the by?
Questin N. 15. Where is Susan’s English ntebk?
请听第四组对话，回答第16至18题。
M: Can I help yu?
W: Yes, please. I want t buy a pair f sprts shes.
M: OK. What abut these blue and black shes?
W: I dn’t like the tw clrs.
M: Then, hw abut thse brwn shes?
W: They lk nice and brwn is my favrite clr. Hw much are they?
M: They’re at ur great sale, nly 30 dllars fr ne pair!
W: Great! I’ll take ne pair.
Questin N. 16. What des the wman need? Questin N. 17. What clr des the wman like?
Questin N. 18. Hw much des the wman pay?
第四题：听短文和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到两篇短文和七个问题，短文和问题读两遍。请你听完短文和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容，从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中，选出正确答案。
请听第一篇短文，回答第19、20题。
Hell, everyne, my name is Wang Yu. I play sprts every day because I want t be healthy. My favrite sprt is baseball. I always play baseball with my friends after schl.
Questin N. 19. Why des Wang Yu play sprts every day?
Questin N. 20. What’s Wang Yu’s favrite sprt?
请听第二篇短文，回答第21至25题。
Gd mrning, I’m Dra. I g t a new schl this term. I’m in N. 3 Middle Schl nw. I have three gd friends here. The first ne is a nice girl. Her name is Jenny. Her birthday is n Octber 28th. The secnd ne is Alan. He is a fat by, but I think he is fun. His birthday is n July 16th. The last ne is ur English teacher Mr. Smith. He always helps me with my English. His birthday is n December 5th. Next mnth is Teachers’ Day. Jenny wants t make a nice card fr Mr. Smith. Mr. Smith likes music, s Alan wants t buy a set f music CDs fr him. Hw abut me? Mr. Smith likes white. I want t buy a white cup fr him.
Questin N. 21. Hw many gd friends des Dra have in the schl?
Questin N. 22. When is Jenny’s birthday?
Questin N. 23. What des Dra think f Alan?
Questin N. 24. Wh always helps Dra with her English?
Questin N. 25. What des Alan want t buy fr their English teacher?
第五题：听短文填空。下面你将听到一篇短文，短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，根据短文的内容和提示，在信息表中相应的横线上填入所缺信息。
I’m Jennifer. Tday is Mnday. I am very busy but happy. I have three classes in the mrning. They’re Chinese, English and science. At nn, I have sme rice with carrts and eggs fr lunch at schl. In the afternn, I have histry, music and P.E. P.E is my favrite subject. I play vlleyball in class. After schl, we have an English festival. It’s interesting. In the evening, I g t see my aunt and have dinner with her.
参考答案与评分标准
Ⅰ. 1—5 CABAB Ⅱ. 6—10 CABCA Ⅲ. 11—15 ACBCC 16—18 CBC Ⅳ. 19—20 BA 21—25 BBACB
评分标准：1. 1—25小题，每小题1分，满分25分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
Ⅴ. 26. Chinese 27. eggs 28. vlleyball 29. festival 30. aunt
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，满分5分。2. 凡与答案不符，但所填信息与答案意思相同且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
Ⅵ. 31—35 ABDAC 36—40 BBBDA Ⅶ. 41—45 BDACB 46—50 CCDCD
Ⅷ. 51—53 DCA 54—57 ABBB 58—61 BBDD 62—65 ABCD
评分标准：1. 31—50小题，每小题1分，满分20分；51—65小题，每小题2分，满分30分。2. 凡与答案不符者不得分。
= 9 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT IX. 66. gets t schl 67. English music 68. Gegraphy and histry.
69. Because she thinks basketball is interesting./ Because basketball is interesting fr her.
70. 我喜欢学校里的所有课程。
评分标准：1. 每小题2分，满分10分。
2. 凡与答案不符，但所填内容与答案意思相近且与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。有关语法及拼写（包括大小写）等错误酌情减分。
= 10 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT X. 71. my 72. frm 73. these 74. classes 75. first 76. is 77. and 78. when 79. a 80. likes
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，满分10分。2. 凡与答案不符，但所填词语与题目要求相符者，可酌情给分。
= 11 \* ROMAN \* MERGEFORMAT XI. A) 81. He needs an eraser. 82. Let’s have a party fr him. 83. That is a map f my schl.
84. D yu eat salad fr lunch? 85. Wh is yur favrite music star?
评分标准：1. 每小题1分，满分5分。2. 凡语序与答案相符，但出现句子首字母不大写等错误，酌情给分。
B) 86. One pssible versin:
Hell, everyne. My name is Li Hua. I’m 12 years ld. I’m frm Shanghai, China. There are fur peple in my family. They’re my father, my mther, my brther and me. My father is a math teacher. My mther is a music teacher. My brther and I are students. I like playing sprts. My favrite sprt is sccer. English is my favrite subject. My favrite fd is bread.
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据短文的内容要点初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的语言要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 短文中若出现真实的人名、校名或地名，酌情减分。
二、评分标准
三、说明
1. 内容要点可以用不同方式表达。2. 相同的错误不重复计算。Jennifer’s Mnday
In the mrning
Have 26. ______, English and science.
At nn(在中午)
Have sme rice with carrts and 27. ______ fr lunch.
In the afternn
Have three classes. Play 28. ______ in the P.E. class.
After schl
Have an English 29. ______.
In the evening
Have dinner with her 30. ______.
Clthes
Clrs
black, white, green, blue
range, red, black
blue, purple
white, green, blue
Sizes (尺码)
S/L
S/M
M/L
S/M/L/XL
Prices
$15
$14
$12
$13
Sccer camp (训练营)
Cme t ur camp if (如果) yu are 7~15 and lve sccer. At the camp we can teach yu hw t play sccer and hw t play it well. Yu can have a great time with ther sccer lvers.
When and where
8:30 a.m. ~11:00 a.m. 2:30 p.m. ~5:00 p.m.
January 13 ~15, 2023
Park Middle Schl, Shijiazhuang, Hebei
Things yu need t bring (带来)
T-shirt; shrts; sprts shes
Attentin (注意)!
This is a free camp! S yu dn’t need t pay any mney (付钱).
We nly want 100 students! If yu want t cme, yu need t e-mail Mr. Rbin at sccer camp 2023@ (在……之前) Nvember 30th, 2022.
We are happy abut having yu at ur camp.
档 次
分 值
语 言 要 求
一档
13～15分
包含了所有要点，能围绕内容要点适当发挥，内容具体、丰富；应用了较丰富的语言结构和词汇，用词准确，句子通顺，行文连贯，表达清楚；没有或几乎没有语言错误，具备较强的语言运用能力，达到了预期的写作目的。
二档
10～12分
基本包含了所有要点，并有一定的发挥，内容比较丰富；应用的语言结构和词汇能满足任务要求，句子较通顺，表达较清楚；有少量语言错误，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
三档
7～9分
包含了多数要点，并有所发挥，内容不够丰富、具体，词数较少；句子不够通顺，语言表达过于简单，行文不够连贯；有部分语言错误。
四档
4～6分
只包含了少数要点，内容过少；句子无条理，语言不规范，行文不连贯；语言错误较多。
五档
0～3分
只包含一个要点或所写内容与要求几乎无关，内容杂乱，不知所云；语言很不通顺，用词很不准确；错误过多，几乎难以读懂。