辽宁省大连市中山区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

这是一份辽宁省大连市中山区2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末英语试题，共10页。试卷主要包含了01等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2024.01
注意事项:
1. 请在答题卡上作答, 在试卷上作答无效。
2. 本试卷共八道大题（包含听力和笔试）, 70道小题, 满分120分, 考试时间110分钟。
第一部分 选择题（共 66分）
一、听力（共20小题, 每小题1分; 满分20分）
A. 听句子, 选择图片。（共5小题, 每小题1分, 满分5分）
听下面5个句子, 根据句子内容选择相应的图片。每个句子读两遍。
A. B. C.
D. E.
1. _________ 2. _________ 3. _________ 4. _________ 5. _________
B. 听对话, 选择答案。（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分）
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有2个或3个小题, 根据你所听到的对话内容, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话, 回答第6和第7小题。
6. What is Lingling's favurite animals?
A. Mnkeys. B. Pandas. C. Giraffes.
7. Where d they want t g?
A. The library. B. The Schl. C. The z.
听第二段对话, 回答第8和第9小题。
8. What des Tny tell Ms Li t cnnect t the cmputer first?
A. The keybard. B. The muse. C. The screen.
9. Where are they?
A. In the classrm. B. At Tny's hme. C. In a shp.
听第三段对话, 回答第10到第12小题。
10. What festival is cming?
A. Spring Festival. B. Christmas. C. Children's Day.
11. What is David's mther ding at the mment?
A. Cking. B. Shpping. C. Putting things away.
12. What present wuld David like t get this year?
A. Sme CDs. B. A ftball. C. A new T-shirt.
听第四段对话, 回答第13到第15小题。
13. What time des Betty get up n Thursday?
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:30. C. At 7:00.
14. Hw lng des Betty have fr break?
A. An hur. B. 20 minutes. C. Half an hur.
15. What des Betty d after schl?
A. D sprts. B. Talk with her friends. C. D sme wrk at the library.
C. 听短文, 补全信息。（共5小题, 每小题1分, 满分5分）
听下面一段短文, 根据你所听到的短文内容, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案完成表格信息。本段短文读两遍。
16. A. America B. England C. Australia
17. A. dumplings B. ndles C. rice cakes
18. A. running B. playing ftball C. playing table tennis
19. A. cncert ticket B. music CD C. magazine
20. A. taking a walk B. flying planes C. making things
二、语音（本题共10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分）
A. 从 A、B、C 中选出与所给单词划线部分发音相符的选项。
21. she A. /ɪ/ B. /i: / C. /eɪ/
22. they A. /θ/ B. /ð/ C. /1/
23. usually A. /r/ B. /ʃ/ C. /ʒ/
24. father A. /ɑː/ B. /ʌ/ C. /e/
25. because A. /aʊ/ B. /æ/ C. /ɒ/
B. 从A、B、C中选出划线部分与所给音素发音相符的选项。
26. /ɔɪ/ A. ty B. play C. lie
27. /ə/ A. hear B. dangerus C. nurse
28. /j/ A. enjy B. elephant C. yung
29. /ɜː/ A. ndle B. imprtant C. thirty
30. /tʃ/ A. fish B. China C. healthy
三、阅读理解（共14小题, 每小题2分; 满分28分）
第一节阅读下面语言材料, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Here is a card f invitatin（邀请函）frm Lisa.
31. When is Lisa's birthday party?
A. On Sunday. B. On 15 July.
C. Next Saturday. D. This weekend.
32. Where is the party?
A. At Lisa's hme. B. In a htel.
C. In a park. D. At the schl.
33. Which f the things can yu d?
A. Singing and dancing. B. Watching mvies.
C. Drinking cla. D. Drawing pictures.
B
At the z
34. Which f the fllwing des a snail eat?
A. Meat. B. Flwers. C. Fish. D. Fruits.
35. __________has milk fr its babies.
A. A snail B. A rhin C. A blue whale D. A lizard
36. Which is RIGHT abut lizards?
A. Lizards eat grass. B. Lizards live in the sea.
C. Lizards are smetimes dangerus. D. There are lizards all ver the wrld.
37. The fur cards are abut__________.
A. fur animals' fd B. the z, hme f animals
C. peple's favurite animals D. infrmatin f sme animals
C
D yu knw ChatGPT? It's an artificial intelligence（AI, 人工智能）tl（工具）. It can answer questins, tell stries, and d much mre. But it's very "thirsty（渴的）", said a new study.
ChatGPT has "hmes" arund the wrld in data centers（数据中心）. When it wrks, the cmputers at the data centers get very ht. Wrkers then have t use water t cl them dwn.
Cld water ges int pipes（管道）near the cmputers. The water needs t be very clean. They can't use seawater because it can eat away at the pipes.
When yu ask ChatGPT 20 t 50 questins, it "drinks" 500 milliliters f water. Scientists used 700, 000 liters f water t build ChatGPT. The water use is very big. Peple can make 370 cars with it.
ChatGPT is just ne AI tl. Yu need data centers t d everything n the Internet. There are mre than 8,000 data centers arund the wrld. The number is still grwing. We may have t “fight（斗争）” with AI fr water in the future（未来）.
38. What d we knw abut the data centers in Paragraph 2?
a. They are AIs just like ChatGPT.
b. They are in different places in the wrld.
c. They are ChatGPT's hmes t keep it cl.
d. The cmputers there get ht when ChatGPT wrks.
A. ab B. bc C. ac D. bd
39. The underlined（画线的）wrds means "______________” in Chinese.
A. 保养 B. 侵蚀 C. 淹没 D. 清洁
40. There are abut__________ data centres in the wrld.
A. 8000 B. 500 C. 370 D. 700,000
41. Which can be the best title（标题）fr the passage?
A. Everyne must save water! B. Des the Internet wrk well?
C. Give the AI a drink D. ChatGPT's future
第二节阅读短文, 从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有一个多余的选项。
It's seven 'clck n Friday evening. Ann's friends are having a small party at her hme. 42
Emmy is making a big and nice card fr Ann. She is writing sme wrds n it. Nancy is decrating（装饰）the rm with sme stickers（贴纸）. Lk! A few girls are dancing t the music ver there. 43 There is a lt f delicius fd n the table. The fd isn't frm a restaurant. Ann's mther cks it.
Oh, Ann's cat is lying n the sfa near the windw and playing with a little by. 44 She is calling Jenny. Jenny's father is driving her t the party.
四、完形填空（共8小题, 每小题1分; 满分8分）
阅读短文, 理解其大意, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Sharing ur schl lives
Students frm different 45 share what their schl day is like.
"Every mrning I 46 early t catch the bus. I get t schl at abut 7:15 am. The first class starts at 7:45. All my classes are 1 hur and 15 minutes lng. After the first class, I g t hmerm（年级大教室）fr 30 minutes. Then, it's time fr a 47 ! I eat a snack（零食） and talk with friends. After lunch, I have the last class, then I take the bus hme."
—Amelia Gnzalez, 12, Mexic
My day starts with my debate practice（辩论练习）at hme 48 I am n my schl debate team（队）. The first class starts at 9:45 am. Every kid can 49 fur t six subjects, like math and music. The children g t different classrms fr the different subjects. In different classes, we can meet different friends. It is 50 !
—Chelsea Wang, 13, Australia
"My classes start at 8:30 am. Mnday thrugh Wednesday, we have fur classes in the mrning. And tw in the afternn. At 3 pm, classes end and tutrial（辅导课）will start. Yu can g t any 51 if yu have questins. We nly have three classes n Thursdays and Fridays, s we have mre 52 fr clubs and sprts. We have Friday afternns ff."
—Niu Hanliang, 15, US
45. A. schls B. cities C. classes D. cuntries
46. A. get up B. have dinner C. stand up D. g t schl
47. A. lessn B. break C. sprt D. meeting
48. A. but B. r C. because D. s
49. A. share B. chse C. remember D. clse
50. A. bad B. funny C. hard D. great
51. A. friend B. custmer C. teacher D. wrker
52. A. time B. mney C. exercise D. luck
第二部分 非选择题（共54分）
五、按要求完成下列各题（满分10分）
A. 将所给句子抄写在四线格内。（满分2分）
53. Spring Festival usually cmes in February.
B. 按要求完成句子。（共4小题,每小题2分;满分8分）
54. Daming ften runs in the park in the mrning.（用 nw改写为现在进行时）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
55. Students always clean the classrm n Friday afternn.（对划线部分提问）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
56. The panda likes t eat bamb. It eats ther plants t.（用 and 将两个句子改写为一句话）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
57. Lingling's mther/ ck dinner every day?（写出一个一般疑问句, 并给出简短否定回答）
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
六、语篇填空（共8小题, 每小题2分; 满分16分）
阅读短文, 在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空, 使短文通顺、连贯。
Hell, everyne! I'm Betty King and I cme 58 America. Tday I wuld like t say smething abut Hallween（万圣节）. It is 59 imprtant festival in the USA. It 60 （have）a histry f abut 2, 000 years.
Hallween is n 31 Octber. It isn't a hliday in the USA. Students have lessns as usual（像往常一样）. But they have 61 （party）in the evening. They have many ways（方法）t have fun. Mst f them like t wear special clthes fr the festival. There are always many games n Hallween. 62 （child）like t play "trick r treat" best, and then they can get candies frm 63 （they）neighburs（邻居）. And anther game is biting（咬）apples. D yu knw hw t play it? Kids put sme apples in a bx full f water. One f them tries t get an apple with the muth, nt with a hand. It is a very easy game, but everyne 64 （enjy）it.
Of curse, there 65 （be）many jack-'-lanterns. I am gd at making ne ut f a pumpkin（南瓜）. There is always lts f fun n Hallween.
七、阅读与表达（共4小题, 每小题2分; 满分8分）
阅读短文, 然后根据内容回答问题。
A heavy weight but a light heart
A by is taking a big basket f fruits t his grandmther. The basket is full（满的）and it is very heavy（重的）. S his little brther Tm ges with him t help take the basket. They use a ple（杆）t carry the basket, and each then takes hld f（握住）an end f the ple. In this way, they can carry the basket very nicely.
Nw the lder by starts t think, "My brther des nt knw abut the use f this ple. If the basket is in the middle f the ple, it will be as heavy fr me as it is fr him. But if I slide（滑）the basket near him, his side will be heavy, and mine will be light（轻的）.” Thinking f this, he smiles.
"But I will nt d it. It wuld be wrng, and I will nt d what is wrng." Then he slides the basket quite near his wn end f the ple. He feels his end f the ple is much heavier than befre. He is very happy because he knws he is ding the right thing.
66. Why des Tm g with his lder brther?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
67. Hw d the bys carry the heavy basket?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
68. What des "this" refer t（指的是）?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
69. What d yu learn frm the stry?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
八、书面表达（满分 20分）
70. 从小到大, 父母为我们过了十几个生日, 那么, 你为父母的生日做过什么事情呢? 这周班级英语报的主题是“我为父母过生日”, 请你用英语写一篇短文参加分享吧。
内容提示: What d yu usually d t celebrate yur parents' birthday?
要求:（1）中心突出, 语义连贯, 层次清晰, 书写规范;
（2）文中不得出现真实的人名、地名和校名;
（3）不少于60词。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
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七年级听力原文:
2024.01
A. 听句子, 选择图片。
听下面5个句子, 根据句子内容选择相应的图片。每个句子读两遍。
1. Daming's grandparents smetimes wear T-shirts.
2. Lk! They're learning a dragn dance because Spring Festival is cming.
3. It's five 'clck in the afternn and Linda is having afternn tea at hme.
4. There are fur peple in Lily's family.
5. Carrts and sweet ptates are gd fr yur eyes.
B. 听对话, 选择答案。（共10小题, 每小题1分, 满分10分）
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有2个或3个小题,根据你所听到的对话内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第一段对话,回答第6和第7小题。
W: D yu like pandas, Lingling?
M: I lve pandas. They're my favurite animals. What abut yu? Which animals d yu like?
W: My favurite animals are mnkeys and giraffes.
M: OK. Let's g t the z and see them.
W: Sure. Let's g.
听第二段对话, 回答第8和第9小题。
W: This is ur cmputer. Tny, can yu help me, please?
M: Yes, Ms Li.
W: What's this in English?
M: That's the screen.
W: OK, and this?
M: That's the keybard.
W: That's right. And what's this?
M: The muse.
W: Gd. And hw des it wrk?
M: First, cnnect the screen t the cmputer.
W: OK, gd. What's next?
M: Cnnect the keybard and the muse t the cmputer.
W: Gd. And finally…?
M: Finally, turn n the cmputer.
W: Right. Turn n the cmputer.
听第三段对话, 回答第10到第12小题。
W: Hi, David. This is Lingling speaking. What's happening? Are yu getting ready fr Christmas?
M: Yes, we are. We are quite busy nw.
W: What are yu ding at the mment?
M: I am cleaning the huse and putting things away. I'm a bit tired nw.
W: Yu are wrking s hard. Are yur parents helping yu?
M: N. My mther is cking lts f fd in the kitchen. My father is ging shpping fr Christmas presents.
W: Ww, presents! That's great! What present wuld yu like t get this year?
M: I'd like a new ftball.
听第四段对话, 回答第13到第15小题。
M: Betty, are yu busy n Thursday?
W: On Thursday I get up at 7:00 and g t schl at 7:30.
M: D yu start lessns at 8:00?
W: Yes, we start at 8:00.
M: What d yu d at break?
W: We have 20 minutes' break at 10: 10. I talk with a friend.
M: When is yur lunch?
W: It's at 12:30. I have half an hur fr lunch. I d sme wrk at the library at 1 'clck.
M: Yu g hme at 3: 40. That's early.
W: Yes, but I d sprts at 4: 15.
M: Oh, that's why yu are s busy.
C. 听短文, 补全信息。（共5小题, 每小题1分, 满分5分）
听下面一段短文, 根据你所听到的短文内容, 从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案完成表格信息。本段短文读两遍。
Wu Dng has a gd friend. His name is Peter. He is 13 years ld and he's frm Australia. Wu Dng and Peter are in the same class. They g t schl five days a week. They stay at hme n Saturday and Sunday. Peter likes China and Chinese fd. He likes rice cakes very much. At schl, their favurite sprt is playing ftball. They ften play it after class.
Peter likes music and he ften ges t a cncert n Sunday. He really enjys them. And he always wuld like a cncert ticket fr his birthday present.
Wu Dng and Peter like making things. They're making a plane. They like flying planes n Sunday mrning. Peter speaks English and a little Chinese. Wu Dng speaks Chinese and a little English. They teach each ther.
参考答案:
一、听力
A. 1—5 ECBAD B. 6—10 BCCAB 11—15 ABCBA C.16—20 CCBAB
二、语音
21—25 BBCAC 26—30 ABCCB
三、阅读理解
31—33 CBA 34—37 BCDD 38—41 DBAC 42—44 CDA
四、完形填空
45—48 DABC 49—52 BDCA
五、按要求完成下列各题
53.（略）
54. Daming is running in the park nw.
55. What d students always d n Friday afternn?
56. The panda likes t eat bamb and it eats ther plants t.
57. Des Lingling's mther ck dinner every day? N, she desn't.
六、语篇填空
58. frm 59. an 60. has 61. parties 62. Children 63. their
64. enjys 65. are
七、阅读与表达
66. T help his brther carry the basket.
67. They use a ple and hld the ends.
68. Sliding the basket t Tm's end f the ple.
69.（Open-ended）
八、书面表达（略）
Wu Dng's friend
Name: Peter
Age: 13
Cuntry: 16
Favurite things
Fd: Peter likes China and Chinese fd. He likes 17 very much.
Sprt: At schl, their favurite sprt is 18 .
Present: He always wuld like a 19 fr his birthday present.
Activities n Sunday
●Peter likes music and he ften ges t a cncert n Sunday.
●They like 20 n Sunday mrning.

Dear classmates,
My birthday is next Saturday. I wish everyne can cme t my party. We can d many interesting things, such as singing, dancing as well as enjying delicius fd.
Lisa's 9th Birthday
13 July, 2023
11:00—13:00
Dngfeng Htel
A. What is Ann ding at the mment?
B. He is Ann's yunger brther, Tmmy.
C. They are ding different things nw.
D. And Danny is taking phts f them.