2023年青海海北中考英语真题及答案

这是一份2023年青海海北中考英语真题及答案，共14页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

I.听力测试（共四部分，共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
第一部分：听句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子相对应的图片。每个句子仅读一遍。
1 A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二部分：听句子，选择最佳答语。每个句子读两遍。
6. A. Thank yu, Dad. B. N prblem, Dad. C. Sunds gd, Dad.
7. A. Thanks a lt. B. Take it easy. C. Nice t meet yu, t.
8. A. I'm srry. B. Never mind. C. N, I can't.
9. A. Help yurself. B. Sunds gd. C. Gd luck.
10. A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I agree. C. I'm afraid s.
第三部分：听对话，选择最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
11. Where did Bb g during the summer hliday?
A. The Great Wall. B. The Summer Palace. C. Tian'anmen Square.
12. What des Emma think f the picture Alng the River During the Qingming Festival(《清明上河图》）?
A. Interesting. B. Lng. C. Wnderful.
13. Which bk is the wman ging t buy?
A. Jurney t the West. B. Hu Yi Shts the Suns. C. Yu Gng Mves the Muntains.
14. Hw many times has the man been t Cannes Film Festival(夏纳电影节）?
A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times.
15. What des Tny d t relax himself?
A. Play sprts with friends. B. Read bks. C. Listen t music.
第四部分：听短文，根据短文内容填空。短文读两遍。（每空仅填一词）
II.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案填入空白处。
1. —________ did yu stay in Huangyuan during their Lantern Festival?
—Fr six days.
A. Hw lngB. Hw ftenC. Hw sn
2. T _______ surprise, lcal villagers are successful in planting strawberries withut sil in Hainan.
A. weB. urC. us
3. We are deeply _________ by the stry f Mu Shengzhng, whse team started building rad in Haixi in the 1950s.
A. hurtB. mvedC. trubled
4. —Mre and mre wild animals have been fund as the natural envirnment imprved in Gulu.
—_________ exciting it is!
A. WhatB. Hw aC. Hw
5. A taxi driver prevented (阻止) an _________ when he saw a car with serius prblems travelling acrss Huangnan.
A. accidentB. interviewC. advertisement
6. The fur pandas in Chngqing Z were brn n the same day _______ 2019.
A. nB. atC. in
7. Thanks t the help f the gvernment, farmers in China are ________ a happier and richer life.
A. livingB. changingC. planting
8. “We made ur dreams cme true thrugh ________ wrk,” Chinese astrnaut Liu Yang shared her stries n China’s Space Day.
A. hardB. lazyC. easy
9. Accrding t the Wrld Happiness Reprt 2023, Finland (芬兰) is the wrld’s happiest cuntry. Peple ________ mre time with families and friends there.
A. cstB. spendC. pay
10. A best friend is a persn _________ is always there when yu need him r her. As the saying ges, “A friend in need is a friend indeed.”
A whmB. whseC. wh
III.完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读短文，从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文完整、通顺。
It was a sunny day. Jenny and her mther went t a park. When they ____11____ t the park, Jenny wanted t ride the rller caster(过山车）.
But it seemed that ____12____ peple were already waiting in the line. ____13____, a by cut in line(插队). “Hey, yu! Yu must ____14____ the rules in public. Wuld yu please get in the line?” Jenny shuted ____15____ the by angrily. The by’s face turned red at nce. “I’m srry,” the by lwered his head and went t the back f the line.
After that, Jenny and her mther went arund t take phts. There ____16____ different kinds f flwers in the park like tulips and sunflwers. Then Jenny saw a sea f rses, which are her favrite. When she was ging t ____17____ sme red rses, her mther stpped her, “Hney, the rses are beautiful, ____18____ we shuldn’t pick them because ther peple want t enjy them, t.” Jenny was ashamed, “Mum, I agree with ____19____ yu said. I wn’t d it again.” “Hney, I am ____20____ yu,” her mther ndded with a big smile n her face.
On that night, Jenny wrte in her diary, “What ____21____ interesting day! Hwever, thinking back n the ____22____ I had tday, I feel srry fr what I did in the park. I shuld have asked the by plitely t wait in line instead f ____23____ludly and angrily. Als, it is wrng t pick flwers in the park. I realize it is much ____24____ said than dne. When we ask thers t fllw the rules, we need t remind(提醒) ____25____ nt t break the rules, either.”
11. A. arrivedB. gtC. left
12. A. hundreds fB. a hundred fC. hundred f
13. A. SuddenlyB. HappilyC. Luckily
14. A. makeB. breakC. fllw
15. A. atB. withC. fr
16. A. wereB. wasC. had
17. A. waterB. pickC. buy
18. A. unlessB. thughC. but
19. A. hwB. whyC. what
20. A. prud fB. wrried abutC. angry with
21. A. aB. anC. the
22. A. dreamB. experienceC. chance
23. A. smilingB. laughingC. shuting
24. A. easyB. easierC. easiest
25 A. yurselvesB. themselvesC. urselves
Ⅳ.阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
26. Hw lng des it take us frm Xining t Riyue Muntain?
A. 0.5 hur.B. 1 hur.C. 1.5 hurs.D. 2.5 hurs.
27. Where can we ride yur yaks?
A. In Xining.B. At Riyue Muntain.
C. On the Qinghai Lake.D. In Gangcha.
28. What time can we g sightseeing n the Qinghai Lake by ship?
A. 9:00.B. 11:00.C. 14:00.D. 17:00.
29. What can we d in Gangcha?
A. Learn the stry f Riyue Muntain.B. Enjy Tibetan fd.
C. Watch birds.D. Visit the museum.
30. Where is the text prbably frm?
A. Travel magazine.B. Science magazine.
C. Sprts magazine.D. Health magazine.
B
31. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In the street.B. In a htel.C. In a bank.D. In a classrm.
32. Hw many kinds f jbs are mentined?
A. 4.B. 6.C. 7.D. 10.
33. What des Judy’s father d?
A. A basketball cach.B. A scientist.
C. A pilt.D. A cleaner.
34. Why d Sally’s parents have little time t be with her?
A. Because they have different jbs.B. Because they are very busy.
C. Because Sally lves her parents.D. Because Sally’s parents are nice peple.
35. Mrs. Smith wants t tell the students ________.
A. different jbs have different values (价值)
B. we need t help ur parents
C. different peple have different jbs
D. we can nly learn frm ur parents
C
What will travel be like in 2070? Maybe travel will becme smarter and easier by that time. Here are sme amazing predictins abut traveling that might happen in 2070.
At the airprt
Yu will use “heartbeat passprt(护照)” at the airprt. And passprt checks will nt be used any mre. Because everyne’s heartbeat is different and it can tell yu wh yu are and where yu will g. Als, it prvides mre persnal infrmatin.
On the airplane
Airplane seats culd fit a persn’s bdy shape, size and even temperature. There will be n screens n the airplane. With a futuristic device(未来设备), yu can watch many kinds f mvies n the airplane right befre yur eyes.
In the htel
3D print technlgy will develp surprisingly fast. It can print almst everything like clthes and fd. Therefre, when yu get t the htel, suitcase will nt be needed any mre.
During the trip
The trip will becme interesting and clrful. Many kinds f services will be prvided during the trip. If yu want t see what happened in the Ming Dynasty r the first Olympic Games, yu can just wear a special headset r glasses.
36. What will travel be like in 2070 accrding t the passage?
A. Smarter and easier.B. Mre expensive.
C. Mre difficult.D. Much cheaper.
37. What des the underlined wrd “predictins” in Paragraph 1 prbably mean?
A. 因素B. 条件C. 重点D. 预测
38. Yu will use _________ at the airprt instead f passprt checks.
A. heartbeat passprtB. persnal infrmatin
C. persnal bdy shapeD. 3D print technlgy
39. 3D print technlgy can _________.
A. help us t check passprts
B. prvide many kinds f mvies
C. print almst everything like clthes and fd
D. take us t see the first Olympic Games
40. What is the best title f the passage?
A. Heartbeat PassprtB. A Futuristic Device
C. 3D Print TechnlgyD. Travel in 2070
V.补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
Judy: Hi, Sam! What are yu ding?
Sam: ____41____ Have yu heard abut it befre?
Judy: ____42____ What is it abut?
Sam: ChatGPT is a smart AI chatbt(聊天机器人) made by a US cmpany.
Judy: Sunds interesting. ____43____
Sam: It can d a lt f things, like answering questins, writing emails and chatting with yu.
Judy: ____44____
Sam: Yes, yu can. But yu’d better use it as a learning tl, nt t cheat n yur hmewrk.
Judy: Why?
Sam: ____45____ Then we will lse the ability t think and learn.
Judy: I ttally agree with yu.
A. N, I haven’t.
B. Can I use it fr my hmewrk?
C. Because if we d s, we wn’t need t use ur brains.
D. What can it d?
E. I’m reading an article abut ChatGPT.
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）
VI.语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个恰当的单词或用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
VII.阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，用符合语义及语法规则的词填空，每空一词。
Abut 80% f the land animals make hmes in the frest. But their hmes are disappearing(消失) all ver the wrld. In the last 10,000years, we’ve lst 30% f all trees that were nce n the earth. That’s bad news fr animals because cutting dwn trees destrys(破坏) the hmes f animals that live in the frests. What’s wrse, sme pllutins caused by human activities like water pllutin and air pllutin are bringing further lsses t the frests. Therefre, as gd friends f animals, it is necessary fr us t take sme actins t prtect their hmes-frests.
Ds
●Plant mre trees by taking part in the vlunteering, prjects and activities.
●Take extra plastic bags alng and pick up litter n yur walk t keep the frest clean.
●Put ut campfires befre mving n when yu g camping t avid wildfires in the frest.
Dn’ts
●Dn’t cut dwn trees fr dispsable chpsticks(一次性筷子).
●Dn’t take rcks, flwers and leaves frm the frest flr which might prvide hmes fr small animals.
●Dn’t destry the animals’ hmes and habitats.
Huge and beautiful frests where a great variety f animals make hmes are ready fr us t explre. Whenever yu have a chance t get clse t nature, make wise chices and take the advice mentined abve t prtect hmes fr ur dearest friends.
56. Fr animals, it is bad news t _______ ________ trees.
57. Human activities like water pllutin and _______ ________ are bringing further lsses t the frests.
58. _______ ________ campfires befre mving n t avid wildfires in the frest.
59. Try t use less dispsable _________ t prtect mre _________ frm being cut dwn.
60. _________ yu get clse t nature, please make chices _________ and take the advice abve t prtect hmes fr ur dearest friends.
Ⅵ.书面表达（满分15分）
61. 积极健康、乐观向上的生活是我们共同追求的目标。通过正确合理的自我管理和自我提升，我们都能遇见更好的自己。请参考右图信息，以“Hw t becme a better persn”为主题，写一篇英语短文。
写作要求：
(1)语句通顺，逻辑清晰，书写规范；
(2)词数60—80左右；
(3)文中不能出现真实姓名和校名等信息。
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参考答案
第I卷(听力及选择题)
I.听力测试（共四部分，共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
第一部分：听句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子相对应的图片。每个句子仅读一遍。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二部分：听句子，选择最佳答语。每个句子读两遍。
6. A. Thank yu, Dad. B. N prblem, Dad. C. Sunds gd, Dad.
7. A. Thanks a lt. B. Take it easy. C. Nice t meet yu, t.
8. A. I'm srry. B. Never mind. C. N, I can't.
9. A. Help yurself. B. Sunds gd. C. Gd luck.
10. A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I agree. C. I'm afraid s.
第三部分：听对话，选择最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
11. Where did Bb g during the summer hliday?
A. The Great Wall. B. The Summer Palace. C. Tian'anmen Square.
12. What des Emma think f the picture Alng the River During the Qingming Festival(《清明上河图》）?
A Interesting. B. Lng. C. Wnderful.
13. Which bk is the wman ging t buy?
A. Jurney t the West. B. Hu Yi Shts the Suns. C. Yu Gng Mves the Muntains.
14. Hw many times has the man been t Cannes Film Festival(夏纳电影节）?
A. Once. B. Twice. C. Three times.
15. What des Tny d t relax himself?
A. Play sprts with friends. B. Read bks. C. Listen t music.
第四部分：听短文，根据短文内容填空。短文读两遍。（每空仅填一词）
II.单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案填入空白处。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】B
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】A
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】A
【8题答案】
【答案】A
【9题答案】
【答案】B
【10题答案】
【答案】C
III.完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
【11~25题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C
Ⅳ.阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。
A
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. C 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. A
B
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. D 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A
C
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36 A 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. D
V.补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. E 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. C
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）
VI.语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. elephants
47. the 48. was
49. Why 50. hurt
51. thinking
52. at 53. quickly
54. wear 55. angry
VII.阅读表达（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. ①. cut##chp ②. dwn
57. ①. air/land/sil/light/nuclear/industrial/waste ②. pllutin
58. ①. Put ②. ut
59. ①. chpsticks ②. trees##frests##bambs
60. ①. Whenever/When/If/While/As/Once ②. wisely/cleverly/smartly/crrectly/rightly/carefully
Ⅵ.书面表达（满分15分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Everyne wants t becme a better persn, s d I. I think the fllwing suggestins can help me.
Firstly, making mre friends will help me. It will nt nly ffer me pprtunities t learn frm them, but it will als give me mre chances t help thers. Secndly, it is imprtant fr me t read mre bks. Because reading can help me pen my eyes t the wrld and enrich my knwledge.
Actin speaks luder than wrds. I will try my best t becme a better persnMy Friends in China
Helen
I am frm the United Kingdm. But nw I am in China and I have made sme nice friends here. They always 16.________ me t learn Chinese.
At schl
● I'm very busy but I am feeling 17.________ every day.
●There are 18.________classes in the mrning and 3 classes in the afternn.
●My favrite subject is histry because it is interesting and I like stries in different dynasties(朝代）like the Tang and Sng Dynasty.
After schl
●They always teach me t play19.________ because I dn’t play it in the UK and it is t difficult fr me.
●They ften invite me t 20.________ hmes fr dinner.
In February, there was a vide abut Asian elephants in Yunnan, in which tw ____46____ (elephant) were fighting fr fd. By ____47____ end f 2022, the number f wild Asian elephants ____48____ (be) mre than 300.
They started t visit villages. ____49____ did they d s? Because they needed mre space and fd. But this brught lsses fr the farmers.
Smetimes, the elephants were scared and ____50____ (hurt) peple. S the lcal gvernment is ____51____ (think) f sme smart ways t get alng with the cute but naughty animals.
◆ If the elephants eat farmers’ plants, farmers can get sme mney frm the gvernment.
If the elephants get t clse t peple, fences (栅栏) can be built near villages and schls t prtect peple.
◆ If yu see sme elephants, stay ____52____ least 300 meters away frm them. Als, yu shuld leave the place ____53____ (quick).
◆ If yu are in a place with elephants, dn’t ____54____ (wear) bright-clred clthes. Such clthes culd make elephants ____55____ (angry).
My Friends in China
Helen
I am frm the United Kingdm. But nw I am in China and I have made sme nice friends here. They always 16.________ me t learn Chinese.
At schl
● I'm very busy but I am feeling 17.________ every day.
●There are 18.________classes in the mrning and 3 classes in the afternn.
●My favrite subject is histry because it is interesting and I like stries in different dynasties(朝代）like the Tang and Sng Dynasty.
After schl
●They always teach me t play19.________ because I dn’t play it in the UK and it is t difficult fr me.
●They ften invite me t 20.________ hmes fr dinner.