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    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案
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      安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题(原卷版).docx
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      安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题(解析版).docx
    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案01
    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案02
    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案03
    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案01
    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案02
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    2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案

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    这是一份2023-2024学年安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学高二上学期10月月考英语试题含答案,文件包含安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题原卷版docx、安徽省芜湖市镜湖区安徽师范大学附属中学2023-2024学年高二上学期10月月考英语试题解析版docx等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共44页, 欢迎下载使用。

    考生注意:
    1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上,并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
    2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例:Hw much is the shirt?
    A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
    答案是C。
    1.What can’t the wman d well in?
    A.Passing a ball. B.Hitting a ball. C.Catching a ball.
    2.Wh will prbably pick up Helen tmrrw mrning?
    2.Wh will prbably pick up Helen tmrrw mrning?
    A.Larry B.Bb. C.Mary.
    3.What will the speakers d in the afternn?
    A.Attend a meeting. B.Swim in a lake. C.G t the tp f a muntain.
    4.When will the speakers leave wrk tday?
    A.At 5:00 pm. B.At 6:00 pm. C.At 7:00 pm.
    5.Where des the cnversatin take place?
    A.In a plane. B.At a park. C.On a train.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6.Why des the wman cme here?
    A.T visit a patient. B.T see a dctr. C.T apply fr a passprt.
    7.What des the wman need t prvide?
    A.Her address. B.Her ID card. C.Her evidence f identity.
    听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
    8.What is the relatinship between the speakers?
    A.Fellw wrkers. B.Teacher and student. C.Classmates.
    9.What d we knw abut the man speaker?
    A.He has much wrk experience.
    B.He is the same age as the wman.
    C.He graduated frm cllege this summer.
    10.What is the headmaster like?
    A.Strict. B.Impatient. C.Easy-ging.
    听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
    11.What is the first bk abut?
    A.Hneybees. B.Different clrs. C.Wdland animals.
    12.What is Jrey Hurley?
    A.A writer. B.A painter. C.A bkseller.
    13.Hw much will the speakers pay?
    A.$7. B.$20. C.$38.
    听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
    14.Why did Greysn start the rganizatin?
    A.T reduce fd waste. B.T supprt his family. C.T help peple in need.
    15.What was Greysn’s parents’ attitude twards his decisin?
    A.Supprtive. B.Wrried. C.Uncaring.
    16.What is Greysn’s dream?
    A.T start a larger activity. B.T becme a Navy SEAL. C.T wrk as a firefighter.
    17.What is the cnversatin mainly abut?
    A.A firefight. B.A gd family. C.A charity rganizatin.
    听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
    18.What did Chle Kim realize after her first snwbarding?
    A.She fund it bring. B.She was interested in it. C.She was afraid f cmpeting.
    19.Why did Chle Kim chse t begin hmeschling?
    A.T avid the tiring schl life. B.T have mre time fr training. C.T enjy her father’s cmpany.
    20.Hw ld was Chle Kim when she wn a gld medal at the 2015 X Games?
    A.14. B.16. C.18.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    Edinburgh summer festivals 2023
    The Edinburgh Festival Fringe
    Set up in 1947, the Edinburgh Festival Fringe is the wrld’s largest perfrmance arts festival. Only the Olympic Games and the Wrld Cup sell mre tickets and it takes ver venues (场馆) all ver the city fr mst f August. The Edinburgh Festival Fringe Sciety publishes a free prgramme every year cntaining mst f the perfrmances — which can be picked up in venues acrss Edinburgh befre and during the event.
    The Edinburgh Internatinal Festival
    First held in 1947, the Edinburgh Internatinal Festival has taken place every year since. It sees famus figures frm the fields f music and the perfrming arts invited t perfrm in the city. Traditinally the majrity f events are classical music cncerts, pera, theatre prductins, and dance perfrmances.
    The Edinburgh Internatinal Film Festival
    Established in 1947, the Edinburgh Internatinal Film Festival is the wrld’s ldest uninterruptedly (不间断地) running film festival. Threatened by financial prblems last year, including the clsing f its Edinburgh Filmhuse hme, it is cming in 2023 as a dwnsized event shwing a selectin f films frm arund the wrld.
    The Edinburgh Internatinal Bk Festival
    First taking place in a single tent in 1983, the Edinburgh Internatinal Bk Festival was riginally held every tw years but became a yearly literary celebratin in 1997. It invites hundreds f authrs, jurnalists, pliticians and famus faces frm arund the wrld t cme t the city t speak abut bth their bks and thse f thers.
    1. Hw lng des the Edinburgh Festival Fringe last?
    A. Abut a week.B. Almst a mnth.
    C Mre than 40 days.D. Arund half a year.
    2. What is special abut the Edinburgh Internatinal Film Festival?
    A. It kicked ff in an ld tent half a century ag.
    B. It is the wrld’s largest perfrmance arts festival.
    C. It is the third largest event in terms f ticket sales.
    D. It has been cntinually held since it started.
    3. Which event used t take place every secnd year?
    A. The Edinburgh Festival Fringe.
    B. The Edinburgh Internatinal Festival.
    C. The Edinburgh Internatinal Film Festival.
    D. The Edinburgh Internatinal Bk Festival.
    B
    Because my stries keep my heart punding at night with the pssibility f it all, when I can’t get wrds n paper, I want t scream. All my energy pls at the bttm f my heart, where it cntinues t yell at me all day lng, “Write! Write! Write!” I have t quiet the vice like a hidden pet, shushing (发嘘声) it ver and ver until I get the chance t leave, laptp in hand, stries puring ut f my mind.
    What pr, unfrtunate lives we artists live! We’re trtured by ur wrds, whether they’re circling arund in ur minds at 3 am r written n paper, lking sad and regretful that we’ve put them there. Our wrds laugh at us befre and after they leave ur bdies.
    I messaged a writing mentr (导师) when I fund myself running in circles. With nly a small windw f time t myself each afternn, I fund it hard t write. If nly I had mre time, I culd finish my bk. If nly peple wuld leave me alne, I culd becme an accmplished writer. It was everyne else’s fault.
    Small — my mentr tld me t start small but keep ging. “D what yu can, when yu can. Let that be enugh during the busy seasns.” In her eyes, she was nce me. She was nce crazy with tasks that kept her hands pushing, pulling, grabbing and mving endlessly. She recgnized herself in the way I talked with starry eyes abut my dreamy writing gals and plans. Essays, articles and shrt stries flwered in my rich mind.
    In a few wise wrds, she gave me the freedm t write in small perids f time she called “the cracks f the day”. She argued that I shuld run after publishing with the same desire as ever. But in her patient vice, I heard a gentle reminder f stpping running s hard and instead slwing t a sustainable pace.
    S I write. I submit. I live, and I dream.
    4. What can we infer abut the authr frm the first paragraph?
    A. She has a strng desire t write.B. She has serius heart prblems.
    C She is frced t write cnstantly.D. She is unable t fcus n writing.
    5. What des the underlined wrd “trtured” in paragraph 2 prbably mean?
    A. Threatened.B. Trubled.C. Inspired.D. Impressed.
    6. What prblem did the authr have in writing?
    A. She suffered frm a serius lack f time.
    B. Her writing was far frm satisfying.
    C. She had n idea what t write.
    D. She has n ne t rely n.
    7. Which f the fllwing can sum up the writing mentr’s suggestin t the authr?
    A. All rads lead t Rme.B. Strike while the irn is ht.
    C. N pains, n gains.D. Cnstant drps wear away a stne.
    C
    Lng lines at security checkpints, tiny plastic cups f drink, small bags f biscuit, planes full f passengers, fees attached t every service—all reflect the realities f 21st century cmmercial air travel. It’s n wnder that many travelers have becme nstalgic (怀旧) fr the s-called “glden age” f air travel in the United States.
    During the 1950s, airlines prmted cmmercial air travel; airline hstesses served full meals n real china, airline seats were large and frequently empty with enugh legrm, and passengers were always dressed well.
    After jets were intrduced in the late 1950s, passengers culd travel t even the mst distant lcatins at speeds unimaginable a decade befre. An airline trip frm New Yrk t Lndn that culd take up t 15 hurs in the early 1950s culd be made in less than seven hurs by the early 1960s.
    But the gd memry f airline in that time can be tricky, and “glden ages” are seldm as beautiful as they seem. Until the intrductin f jets in 1958, mst f the natin’s cmmercial planes were prpeller-driven (螺旋桨驱动) aircraft. Mst f these planes were unpressurized, and with a maximum cruising (巡航) altitude f 10,000 t 12,000 feet, they were unable t fly ver bad weather. Delays were frequent, turbulence (气流) was cmmn, and air sickness bags were ften needed. Fr much f this perid, the ld saying “Time t spare, g by air” still rang true.
    Thrugh the 1930s and int the 1940s, almst everyne flew first class. Airlines did encurage mre peple t fly in the 1950s and 1960s by intrducing cach r turist fares, but the savings were relative: less expensive than first class, but still pricey. Althugh the inventin f jets did result in lwer fares, the cst was still ut f reach f mst Americans.
    8. Why d passengers treasure the memry f the “glden age” f air travel?
    A Passengers behaved better in thse days.
    B. Peple traveled by plane mre frequently at that time.
    C. Cmmercial air travel has kept airplanes in shrt supply.
    D. The air travel experience is much wrse than it used t be.
    9. Hw des the authr develp the first tw paragraphs?
    A. By giving figures.B. By fllwing time rder.
    C. By making cmparisns.D. By explaining principles.
    10. What can be learnt abut the flights befre the jet age frm the text?
    A. The flights were ften delayed.
    B. The flights didn’t ffer meals t passengers
    C. The flights culd fly ver 20,000 feet.
    D. The flights were affrdable fr mst peple.
    11. What is the text mainly abut?
    A. The cnvenience f the mdem airplanes.
    B. The advantages f air travel in America.
    C. The reality behind air travel’s glden age.
    D. The ld saying “Time t spare, g by air”.
    D
    Learning a new language is like yu’re ging thrugh the jungle with a knife and creating a path. When yu learn tw languages at nce, yu’re cutting yur way thrugh the jungle t create tw paths, which requires twice the discipline (自律), time and mtivatin.
    But it is pssible. A 2020 study published in the Internatinal Jurnal f Multilingualism fund that Chinese students learning English and Russian at the same time achieved similar mastery in English cmpared t a cntrl grup that just studied English. This is likely because they have already made enrmus effrts. A 2017 study suggests that bilinguals (双语者) can learn new languages faster than single-language learners.
    The biggest challenge f learning tw languages at the same time is finding enugh time and pprtunities t study them. But t knw just hw many effrts and resurces t put int it, yu’ll need t decide what yu want t achieve with the languages yu’re planning t adpt. Becming prfessr-level fluent in Plish is ging t take a really lng time, but if yu want t be able t have cnversatins while yu’re traveling, that wn’t take as much time.
    T help yu distribute (分配) yur time and energy mre effectively, and get a better idea f what yur study plan will lk like, it’s imprtant t understand hw difficult a particular language is fr a native English speaker. While it can take up t 2,200 hurs t learn languages like Arabic and Mandarin, if yu grew up speaking English, it’ll be easier fr yu t pick up Czech and German, fr example. The easiest languages fr native English speakers t learn include Spanish French, and Prtuguese, which require between 600 and 750 hurs f class t achieve prfessinal mastery.
    If it feels t discuraging t g full speed ahead n bth languages right away, it might be easier t understand basic grammar and vcabulary fr ne language befre adding anther ne t the mix.
    12. Why can bilingual learners d as well as single-language learners?
    A. Bilingual learners are cleverer.
    B. Bilingual learners wrk harder.
    C. Bilingual learners are mre interested in languages.
    D. Bilingual learners have a better learning envirnment.
    13. What determines the time it takes t learn freign languages?
    A. The ccasins f using the languages.
    B. The steps t learn the languages.
    C. The prfessrs teaching the languages.
    D. The purpse f learning the languages.
    14. Which language is hardest fr native English speakers accrding t the text?
    A. French.B. German.C. Mandarin.D. Prtuguese.
    15. What is the best title fr the text?
    A. Learning Tw Languages at OnceB. Ways f Leaning a New Language
    C. Language Talent f Chinese StudentsD. Difficulty in Learning Language
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    If hearing the imprtance f gd scial relatinships makes yu think that yu might nt have enugh, yu aren’t alne, said Adam Smiley Pswlsky, wrkplace belnging expert and authr f “Friendship in the Age f Lneliness”.
    ____16____ Hwever, the hpe f develping new friendships — r strengthening existing nes — can be disappinting. It’s frightening t think abut friendship in adulthd, and the sense f defeat keeps us frm even trying, Pswlsky said.
    His suggestin? ____17____ Text a friend that yu haven’t talked t fr a lng time, cmmit t meeting ne new persn a mnth, hst a dinner party, r jin a class. If yu d just ne thing, make a list f five peple in yur life that yu care abut, and give ne f them a phne call. The mst remarkable friendships ften begin with tiniest mments f cnnectin.
    Remember that yu likely wn’t frm a strng cnnectin vernight. Research shws that we need 90 hurs f time tgether t cnsider smene a friend and mre than 200 hurs t cnsider them a clse friend that yu have an emtinal cnnectin with. Pswlsky suggested that in ur busy wrld, we shuld put ur friendship n the calendar. ____18____
    But studies als shw that it isn’t just abut having relatinships. ____19____ Pswlsky cnsiders that there might nt be just ne definitin f a gd friendship, but mst strng relatinships share sme similar qualities. They tend t priritize (区分优先次序) laughter, jy, excitement, curage, weakness and a lack f judgment.
    ____20____ They becme better versins f themselves, especially when their friend is struggling r ging thrugh smething hard. Yu knw smene is a true friend when they have yur back when yu’re sick, when yu lse yur jb, when yu make a mistake, when yu’re ging thrugh a break-up, when yu’re stressed, when yu’re sad.
    A. Start small.
    B. The quality als matters.
    C. Listen and ask real questins.
    D. Many peple may feel lnely and want clser cnnectins.
    E And gd friendships are ften tw peple helping each ther.
    F. In ther wrds, we shuld cmmit t blding activities regularly.
    G. But having relatinships between gd and bad ften can be unhelpful.
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    I argued with my sixteen-year-ld sn Anthny again. I rushed ut f the huse with ____21____. Shaking my head in disappintment and seeking ____22____, I walked tward Clara, my elderly neighbr. I tld her it was fr his ____23____ this time. We were always ____24____ abut his clthes, his messy rm, r his lud music.
    Clara ____25____ and said, “It’s nly a small thing.” Then the smile disappeared frm her face, and she became ____26____. During her hard life, she had ____27____ t say, “But it’s nly…” “It’s nly smething, and tmrrw will be ____28____. Everybdy has enugh heartaches and ____29____ in their lives, s we shuldn’t waste time and energy n the ‘it’s nly’ things that cme their way,” she cntinued.
    I walked back with Clara’s wrds circling arund in my head and ____30____ in my heart. I prepared a piece f cake, Anthny’s favrite ____31____. He stared at the plate eagerly, but there was still a hit f ____32____ in his eyes. He lked at me and ____33____ asked why I had n ne wrd abut his hair.
    I said it was nly hair. He ____34____ a smile as he tk the cake and said that was what he had been trying t tell me. Nw I realize that he actually didn’t want t fight with me but just wanted me t hear the ____35____ he was making.
    21. A. fearB. angerC. jyD. satisfactin
    22. A. respectB. curageC. cmfrtD. trust
    23. A. haircutB. clthesC. rmD. study
    24. A. cmplainingB. arguingC. thinkingD. jking
    25. A. agreedB. hesitatedC. smiledD. apprached
    26. A. nervusB. patientC. prudD. serius
    27. A. regrettedB. plannedC. refusedD. learned
    28. A. harderB. familiarC. betterD. similar
    29. A. pwerB. trubleC. peaceD. danger
    30. A. taking rtB. breaking upC. turning verD. clearing away
    31. A. memryB. cllectinC. decratinD. treat
    32. A. reliefB. dubtC. interestD. excitement
    33. A. curiuslyB. fficiallyC. cnfidentlyD. wisely
    34. A. hidB. exchangedC. managedD. wn
    35. A. wishB. prmiseC. dealD. pint
    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,并将答案填写在答题卡上。
    As Buddhism gt ppular in China during the Tang Dynasty, there was a strng need t make ____36____ large number f Buddhist scriptures (佛经), and cpying by hand culd nt meet the ____37____ (rise) demand. Therefre, ancient Chinese craftsmen (工匠) fund a new way t mass prduce printed scriptures. Thus ____38____ (cme) the wdblck printing
    Traditinal wdblck printing is divided int fur majr steps: writing, carving, printing, and binding. ____39____ each step including several prcedures (步骤), it takes rughly 30 steps ____40____ (prduce) a wdblck print.
    Carving lies at the center f wdblck printing as this difficult step can either make the final print ____41____ break it. Characters and images are carved t make raised areas that will ____42____ (eventual) apply ink t paper. It calls fr a pair f skillful hands.
    A five-meter scrll f the Buddhist scripture Diamnd Sutra, which ____43____ (cmplete) in 868 AD, is the “earliest dated printed bk” in the wrds f the British Library, ____44____ it is stred. It is just ne f the ancient ____45____ ( wrk) f art that nt nly tell the wisdm f ur predecessrs, but witness the seeking f beauty by Chinese craftsmen thrughut centuries.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(满分15分)
    46. 你校正在就是否允许在校园安装自动售货机(vending machine)征求同学们的意见。请写一篇短文给校英文报投稿,表明你的观点并列举理由。
    注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    Shuld Vending Machines Be Allwed in the Schl?
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    第二节(满分25分)
    47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    At the fanciest restaurant in twn, Emily’s mst recent date, Nathaniel, talked abut his bats, hrses, and real estate (房地产) cllectin. He was exactly the kind f man her parents wanted her t marry, but she was unimpressed. Suddenly, a quarrel at the dr caught her attentin.
    “Please, I just want sme fries!” an ld wman in cheap clthing begged. Emily fixed her eyes n her bare feet and frwned. Being bareft was unacceptable at any restaurant. The waiter was displeased and tried t drive her ut, but smething in Emily’s heart tld her t stand up. “Wait a secnd,” she said t the waiter. “She’s with me.”
    The waiter’s eyes widened as Emily gestured fr the wman t jin her table. Nathaniel’s face turned red. “What are yu ding, Emily?” he demanded, whispering althugh the ld wman culd hear him.
    “I’m inviting this wman t sit with us. Is that a prblem?” she asked sweetly. The ld wman intrduced herself as Martha.
    “Yes, it is!” Nathaniel replied, thrwing his clth napkin n the table, standing up quickly and ging ut angrily.
    “Bye!” she waved at him as she sat dwn. Her vice termed sympathetic and kind as she lked at Martha. “Nw, what’s ging n? Can yu tell me why yu’re here? And why are yu bareft?”
    “Oh, madam. Yu didn’t have t invite me t yur table,” Martha shk her bead. “I just wanted sme fries fr my grandsn. He’s just been s sick, and I can’t get him t eat anything. He tld me he nly wants sme fries. S I sld my shes t a man walking by and he gave me enugh fr sme.”
    “May I ask, why nt g t a fast fd place?” Emily said gently.
    “Well, this place was clser. It’s t ht utside fr me t walk much farther withut shes,” Martha answered. The wman cntinued telling her stry. She and her grandsn had been living n the streets fr a few years since her daughter died, and they culdn’t affrd rent because n ne wuld hire her.
    注意:
    1. 续写词数应为150左右;
    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    Emily’s eyes watered as she tk ff her shes.
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    The ther guests put their shes back n.
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    1—5 BACCA 6—10 BCAAC 11—15 CAACA 16—20 BCBBA
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