湖南省株洲市渌口区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期中考试英语试题

这是一份湖南省株洲市渌口区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期中考试英语试题，共4页。试卷主要包含了 选择题的作答， 非选择题的作答， 考试结束后，将答题卡上交等内容，欢迎下载使用。

（本试卷共 6 页，全卷满分：150 分）
注意事项：
1. 答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上相应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3. 非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4. 考试结束后，将答题卡上交。
第一部分 听力技能（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 5 秒钟的时同来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. Hw des Lily g t schl every day?
A. B. C.
2. In which cuntry did Mark g n his vacatin?
A. B. C.
3. What is Mike ding nw?
A. He is watching TV. B. He is ging fishing. C. He is ging camping.
4. What is Kate’s hbby?
A. Kate likes reading bks. B. Kate likes singing. C. Kate likes sleeping.
5. Hw ften des their math teacher play basketball？
A. Fur times a week. B. Six times a week. C. Three times a week.
第二节（共 15 个小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 6 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有 2、3 个小题。从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第 6 和 7 两个小题。
6. When will Ken g t the mvies?
A. This evening. B. Tmrrw mrning. C. Tmrrw afternn.
7. Why can’t Kelly g with Ken?
A. Because she has t finish hmewrk.
B. Because she has t lk after her sister.
C. Because she has t d husewrk.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8 和第 9 两个小题。
8. Where is Jim’s grandma nw?
A. In the ffice. B. In hspital. C. At hme.
9. What did Jim’s grandma ften d?
A. She ften wrte stries. B. She ften listened t stries. C. She ften tld stries.
听下面一段对话，回答第 10 和第 11 两个小题。
10. Wh is mre utging?
A. David B. Jack C. Mary
11. What is Lucy’s friend like?
A. She is taller. B. She is mre athletic. C. She is quieter.
听下面一段对话，回答 12 至 14 三个小题。
12. Where did Peter g n vacatin?
A. In Shanghai. B. In Hainan. C. In Hng Kng.
13. Hw lng did Peter stay there?
A. Fr five days. B. Fr seven days. C. Fr fur days.
14. What did Peter buy fr his little sister?
A. A shirt B. A dress. C. A bk.
听下面一段对话，回答第 15 至第 17 三个小题。
15. What is Li Fang watching nw?
A. Mr. Bean’s Vacatin. B. Mickey Muse. C. Mr. Bean’s Hliday.
16. What des Li Fang think f cmedies?
A. It’s educatinal. B. It’s relaxed. C. It’s enjyable.
17. When des Sam like watching talk shws?
A. When he is sad. B. When he is happy. C. When he is relaxing.
听下面一段独白，回答第 18 至第 20 三个小题。
18. Hw des the speaker’s mther g t wrk?
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
19. What des the speaker’s mther d?
A. A dctr. B. A teacher. C. A scientist.
20. What des the writer’s mther seldm d after supper？
A. Read bks. B. Watch TV. C. Help the writer with hmewrk
第二部分 知识运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 语法填空（共 10 个小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
从 A、B、C 三个选项中选择正确的答案填空。
21. —What ________ utging girl! Wh is she？
—Oh, she is Sally, ________ winner f the singing cmpetitin.
A. an; a B. a; a C. an; the
22. ________ Dashan is frm Germany, he can speak Chinese very well.
A. Because B. Althugh C. If
23. She listens t the teacher ________ f all the students.
A. the mst careful B. mre carefully C. the mst carefully
24. Bth Tm and Mike have ________ hmewrk every day, s they d a lt f sprts after schl.
A. little B. few C. a little
25. —Lily, yu lk beautiful in yur new shirt tday.
—Oh, really? I ________ it in the supermarket with my mm.
A. buy B. will buy C. bught
26. Linda didn’t d ________. She just read and slept.
A. anything special B. smething special C. special anything
27. Mike can run as ________ as Jhn.
A. faster B. fast C. fastest
28. —________ times did yu g shpping last mnth?
—Twice.
A. Hw ften B. Hw lng C. Hw many
29. —Wuld yu mind ________ the windw？
—N, nt at all.
A. clse B. clsing C. t clse
30. Parents really ________ us and they want us t have a bright future.
A. care abut B. care f C. take care
第二节 完形填空（共 10 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 20 分）
阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Archie was a by and he had sme dreams. All his dreams were full f 31. __________. They kept him happy. He ften built the things which 32. __________ in his dreams. One day, Archie 33. __________ f building the best and the biggest park. But when he tld his friends abut it, they said, “Get a jb. Yu can 34. __________ build such a park”. S Archie fund a jb 35. __________ a pliceman. It was a gd jb but Archie didn’t like it. It wasn’t what he wanted. S Archie gave up his 36. __________.
Archie thught abut his dream again. Thugh his friends didn’t believe his dreams, he decided t have a try, He thught that n matter hw difficult it is, he shuld believe in 37. __________
It was hard t build the park. But it was very 38. __________ fr Archie. When finished all the wrk, peple came frm everywhere. They lved all the fun things in the park. Archie was happy t see his dream cme true. He learned that things culd be much 39. __________ than they smetimes seemed t. And Archie’s stry tells us: if yu stick t（坚持） yur 40. __________, yu can d it, t.
31. A. happiness B. sadness C. darkness
32. A. lst B. sld C. appeared
33. A. heard B. dreamed C. felt
34. A. never B. almst C. always
35. A. fr B. as C. frm
36. A. dream B. jb C. park
37. A. himself B. herself C. itself
38. A. difficult B. bring C. interesting
39. A. wrse B. well C. better
40. A. wrk B. dream C. happiness
第三部分 阅读技能（共 20 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 40 分）
阅读下面的材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出最佳选项回答问题或完成句子。
A
（41、42 题图）
41. Jhn was ______ at ten ’clck n Saturday mrning.
A. ding hmewrk B. ging t the beach C. washing clthes
42. When did Jhn watch ftball games n Sunday?
A. 7:00 a.m. ~ 11:30 a.m. B. 2:00 p.m. ~ 5:00 p.m. C. 7:00 p.m. ~ 9:00 p.m.
B
（43、44、45 题图）
43. The text is ______.
A. a health reprt. B. a thanks letter. C. a schl reprt.
44. Frm the reprt, we knw that ______.
A. Anne was brn in Lndn. B. Anne was brn in June. C. Anne is a schl student.
45. What can we learn abut Anne’s visin?
A. Her tw eyes are greatly different.
B. Her right eye is better than the left ne.
C. Her right eye is wrse than the left ne.
C
China is called the kingdm f fans (扇子). Fans are everywhere in ur daily life. But hw much d yu knw abut them?
It is said that fans were first used t cl the air during the Shang Dynasty (明代). At that time, they were made f feathers, bamb r silk. Sme f them were rund, while thers were square.
Flding paper fans first became ppular during the Sng Dynasty. There were usually beautiful pictures n the fans. Sme were muntains and rivers, thers were flwers and animals. Many peple, including Su Dngp, a pet f the Sng Dynasty, and Tang Bhu, a schlar f the Sng Dynasty, even painted and wrte pems n fans. This made the fans int art wrks. Many rich and imprtant peple liked hlding fans.
Tday, fans are ppular gifts. During the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games, flding fans were given t leaders and fficials frm ther cuntries, as well as audience (观众) members. While they were having their fans t get cl air, they were als experiencing Chinese culture.
46. The fans were made f different materials except ______ during the Shang Dynasty.
A. paper B. bamb C. silk
47. When did flding fans first becme ppular？
A. The Shang Dynasty. B. The Sng Dynasty. C. In 2008.
48. What culdn’t peple see n fans in the Sng Dynasty？
A. Muntains. B. Animals. C. Audience.
49. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage？
A. Tang Bhu never wrte r painted n fans.
B. Sme fans were rund, while thers were square during the Shang Dynasty.
C. Flding fans were nly given t leaders and fficials frm China.
50. What’s the passage mainly abut？
A. The Develpment f FansB. The Shapes f FansC. When Fans Became Ppular
D
By r girl? Rich r pr? Fat r thin? Smart r stupid? We like t label (贴标签) the peple we meet and divide them int different grups.
Labelling is necessary in life as we use it t catalgue (登记) clthes and infrmatin. But labels are just labels. We may easily get t “knw” a persn thrugh the labels. Hwever, these judgments may be wrng.
In fact, everyne changes (改变) all the time. The persn we see in frnt f us right nw will be different in a few years. The prblem with labelling peple is that it is t simple and usually unfair (不公平的). Labels can create bias (偏见). The bias changes the way we talk with each ther. Fr example, when a teacher thinks “Bys are better than girls at math”, the teacher cannt understand that bys and girls use different ways t slve prblems. As the teacher fails t lk at the whle picture, this may break students’ hearts, and lead t misunderstanding (误解).
S we need t remember that labels are fr clthing. Labels are nt fr peple. We dn’t need t be labeled. Let’s respect (尊重) urselves and thers and just be prud f wh we truly are.
51. What des the writer think f labelling?
A. We can’t label anything.
B. It is necessary in life t label peple.
C. It is nt right t label peple like clthes.
52. What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 3 refer t?
A. talking with thers B. labelling peple C. knwing a persn
53. The example in Paragraph 3 tells us ________.
A. labels can create bias.
B. labelling peple is simple and unfair
C. bys are really better at math than girls
54. If yu read the passage in a magazine, the magazine is prbably named “________”
A. Famus peple B. Great news C. Persnal ideas
55. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. Stp labelling peple B. Respect urselves C. Learn t make friends
E
A teenager in Shenyang, Lianing prvince, reprted a mistake in a textbk t its publisher (出版商), pinting ut a mix-up f tw insects (昆虫) in ne f its pictures.
“I fund a small mistake n page 95 f the English textbk published by Shanghai Educatinal Publishing Huse when I was preparing lessns befre class” said Cui Chenxi, a 7th grader in Shenyang N. 126 Middle Schl. “The textbk says the animal in the picture is a bee but fund it’s actually a hver fly (食蚜蝇). ”
The publisher cnfirmed (证实) the mistake they made after asking a bilgy teacher and said it will change the picture after it gets apprval frm the Ministry f Educatin (教育部).
The publisher als thanked the 12-year-ld by fr reprting the mistake, and praised (表扬) him fr being s excellent. When asked hw he knew the mistake, Cui said, “It’s easy. Bees have tw pairs f wings while hver flies have nly ne pair. Besides, bees are fatter with their rund belly (肚子) while the hver fly is thinner. ” “What’s mre, bees have clearer tentacles (触角) than hver flies des.”
Cui has such a great interest in bilgy that he raised 10 types f ants in his primary schl t watch the insects’ habits and their activities, accrding t Cui’s mther. The family has mre than 300 bks abut natural science and Cui has a bkshelf f his wn.
56. What is Cui Chenxi?
A. A middle schl teacher. B. A middle schl student.C. A writer.
57. What des the underlined wrd “apprval” mean in Paragraph 3?
A. 批准 B. 修改 C. 编辑
58. The furth paragraph mainly tells us ________．
A. hw the publisher reprted the mistake
B. why Cui liked bees and hve flies
C. hw Cui knew the mistake
59. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE abut bees and hver flies?
A. Hver flies may nt have clear tentacles.
B. Bees have mre pairs f wings than hver flies d.
C. Bees are nt s fat as hver flies.
60. What can we knw frm the last paragraph?
A. Cui is a big fan f bilgy.
B. Cui’s family all lve bilgy.
C. Cui raised 10 types f ants in his primary schl t play with.
第四部分 写作技能（共三节，满分 50 分）
第一节 双向翻译（共 5 个小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
根据上下文内容，将文中画线部分译成汉语或者英语。
It is very cmmn fr students’ grades t g dwn (下降). Smetimes it is because f situatins utside schl such as prblems at hme. Smetimes it is nly because the exams get harder. 61. When yur grades start t g dwn, yu shuld try talking t yur teacher. He is able t help yu with the subjects yu find difficult. Yu’d better nt cmpare yurself with ther students. It desn’t matter if they get higher marks than yu. 62. 最重要的事情是你应该尽最大努力｡ Only in this way, yu can see hw much talent yu are having. At the same time, a gd planning will make yu successful. 63. The earlier yu make plans, the better yur future will be.
Lk thrugh yur ntes again befre the exam. 64. Yu will be surprised when yu find yurself remember s much. It may take hard wrk and yu may nt imprve a lt in a shrt time. But let yur cnfidence rise by every mark. Besides this, right ways are als needed. Yu can turn t teachers and classmates fr advice n gd ways t learn better. 65. 如果你坚持努力学习,有一天你会实现你的梦想｡
61. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
62. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
63. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
64. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
65. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 回答问题（共 5 个小题；每小题 3 分，满分 15 分）
阅读下面的材料，然后根据材料内容回答问题。
After spending 40 hurs playing the nline game King f Glry, a middle schl student had a strke (中风) and nearly died. This happened in Guangdng Prvince in April last year. It shws hw bad things can get if ne becmes addicted t (沉迷) the Internet.
T stp mre teenagers frm becming addicted t the Internet, the Ministry f Educatin (MOE 教育部) sent a letter t all parents in China n April 20, 2018. It calls n them t pay mre attentin t (关注) their children’s nline activities.
The MOE als sent a ntice t primary and middle schls, asking them t mnitr (监督) students’ Internet use. Frm then n, schls wuld pay mre attentin t their students’ Internet use and their use f mbile phnes.
Schls have been tld t teach students hw t avid vilent (暴力的) nline events. If students shw signs f being addicted t the Internet, they can get help frm their teachers t give up their addictin.
Amng China’s 772 millin Internet users, abut 151 millin f them are between the ages f 10 and 19, accrding t the China Internet Netwrk Infrmatin Center.
It’s imprtant t pay attentin t hw much time yu spend nline. T make better use f the Internet, experts advise that students shuld shrten their screen time t less than 1.5 hurs a day. T make better use f their free time, they can develp gd hbbies, like reading r playing sprts.
66. What happened t the middle schl student in the passage?
67. When did the MOE send a letter t all parents in China?
68. Why did the MOE send a ntice t primary and middle schls?
69. Can teachers help students give up their addictin t the Internet?
70. Hw lng can the students spend nline accrding t the experts’ advice?
第三节 情景作文（共 1 个小题，满分 25 分）
71. 健康是生命之基，是人生幸福之源。请你以“Hw t have a healthy lifestyle”为题，根据以下要点和要求，用英语写一篇短文，谈谈如何拥有健康的生活。提示词语：balanced diet, exercise, gd habits
内容包括：
1. 健康的重要性；
2. 列举一些健康的生活方式；
3. 谈谈打算或建议，说出自己的感受。
注意：
（1）词数：90 词左右；开头：Health is very imprtant t all f us.
（2）短文须包含所有提示内容，可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
（3）文中不能出现可能透露考生真实身份的任何信息。
Answers
1-5 CAABC 6-10 CBBCA 11-15 BAABC 16-20 BACAB
21-25 CBCAC 26-30 ABCBA
31-35 ACBAB 36-40 BACCB
41-45 ACACB 46-50 ABCBA
51-55 CBACA 56-60 BACCA
61. 当你的成绩开始退步时，你应该尝试和你的老师谈谈。
/ 当你的成绩开始下降时，你应该试着和你的老师谈谈。
62. The mst imprtant thing is (that) yu shuld try yur best.
63. 你越早开始制定计划，你的未来就会更好。
64. 当你发现你记得如此之多（的知识点），你会感到很惊讶。
65. If yu keep studying hard, yu will make yur dream cme true ne day.
/ yu will realize / achieve yur dream ne day.
66. The student had a strke and nearly died.
67. On April 20, 2018.
68. Because it wanted t ask them t mnitr students’ Internet use.
69. Yes（，they can）.
70. Less than 1.5 hurs a day.
71.
Hw t have a healthy lifestyle
Health is very imprtant t each f us. If we have a healthy bdy, we can d things well. Then hw t have a healthy lifestyle?
First, a balanced diet is imprtant fr a healthy life. We must eat enugh fruits and vegetables. We had better nt eat t much junk fd because it is bad fr ur health. Secnd, we have t get up early and g t bed early. Besides, exercising can help us keep healthy.
In a wrd, a healthy life can help us imprve ur life. We can stay away frm illness if we have gd habits.Jhn’s weekend
Activities
Time
On Saturday
Exercise
6:00 a.m. ~ 7.00 a.m.
D hmewrk
8:00 a.m. ~ l1:00 a.m.
Wash clthes
2:00 p.m. ~ 4:00 p.m.
On Sunday
G t the beach
7:00 a.m. ~ 11:30 a.m.
G t the park
2:00 p.m. ~ 5:00 p.m.
Watch ftball games
7:00 p.m. ~ 9:00 p.m.
SCHOOL HEALTH SERVICE
Child Health Center
Level 3, Marter Hspital
3 Hspital Street, Lndn
Tel: 6435-3895
HEALTH ASSESSMENT REPORT
Name: Anne Cle
Schl: Little Ftprints Schl
Visin Test Result
Right eye
Left eye
Withut glasses
6/7.5
6/8
With glasses
6/6: gd visin; 6/9: OK; 6/12 and abve: pr, needs re-assessment;
UT: unable t test; CS: cannt see
…………………………………………………………………………
Height: 111.20cm（within nrmal range）
Weight: 37.90kg (abve nrmal range)