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    山东省淄博市高青县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题

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    山东省淄博市高青县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题

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    这是一份山东省淄博市高青县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题,共4页。试卷主要包含了听力选择,音标,完形填空,阅读理解,选词填空,语法填空,阅读表达,完成句子等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    注意:请将答案写在答题纸的相应位置! 满分 120分。
    一、听力选择(共 15小题,满分15分)
    第一部分 听短对话回答问题
    你将听到5组对话,每组对话听两遍。然后从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答问题的最佳答案。
    1. What will they watch tnight?
    A. A sprts shw. B. A game shw. C. A talk shw.
    2. What's Tm's favrite TV shw?
    A. Sitcms. B. Sap peras. C. Game shws.
    3. What is the girl ging t be when she grws up?
    A. A teacher. B. An engineer C. A dctr.
    4. What lessns is the wman ging t take?
    A. Pian. B. Vilin. C. Guitar.
    5. What's Jack's predictin abut the future?
    A. There will be fewer trees. B. There will be less pllutin. C. There will be mre pllutin.
    第二部分 听长对话回答问题
    你将听到一段对话,对话听两遍。然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答问题的最佳答案。
    6. What are the speakers talking abut?
    A. Hw t make Russian sup? B. Hw t make Australian sup?
    C. Hw t make American sup?
    7. Hw many carrts des the sup need?
    A. Five. B. One. C. Fur.
    8. What kind f meat des the wman need t buy t make the Russian sup?
    A. Muttn. B. Beef. C. Prk.
    9. What is the last step t make Russian sup?
    A. Add sme water. B. Add sme sugar. C. Add sme salt.
    10. Hw lng des it take t make Russian sup?
    A. It takes abut 10 minutes. B. It takes abut 40 minutes. C. I t takes abut 20 minutes.
    第三部分 听短文回答问题
    你将听到一篇短文,短文听两遍。然后从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出能回答问题的最佳答案。
    11. What will Tny d n Mnday?
    A. G t the dctr. B. Play with his friends. C. G n vacatin.
    12. When will Tny g t see his dad?
    A. On Mnday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
    13. What will Tny d n Thursday?
    A. Study fr the math exam. B. Play with his friends. C. G n vacatin.
    14. Wh will Tny g n vacatin with?
    A. His friends. B. His classmates. C. His parents.
    15. When will Henry give a call t Tny?
    A. Befre the vacatin. B. During the vacatin. C. After the vacatin.
    二、音标(共9小题,满分9分)
    从每小题的选项中选出一个发音与其他三个不同的选项。
    16. A. university B. human C. cmputer D. pllute
    17. A. sugar B. apartment C. cartn D. article
    18. A. team B. already C. meaningless D. meat
    19. A. rcket B. hbby C. freign D. wn
    20. A. imprve B. simple C. side D. impssible
    根据所给音标,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出正确的单词。
    21./speɪs/ A. spn B. space C. simple D. shape
    22./pɪənɪst/ A. pilt B. piece C. pie D. pianist
    23./faɪnəlɪ/ A. finally B. fill. C. film D. famus
    24./əpa:tmənt/ A. appear B. autumn C. apartment D. astrnaut
    三、完形填空(共10 小题,满分 10分)
    阅读下面短文,从每小题 A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。
    Car Free Day was first started by 34 cities in France n September 22nd, 1998. It was started t prtect the 25 . By nw, mre than 1,000 cities 26 the wrld have had a Car Free Day.
    The 27 Car Free Day in China was in Chengdu in 2001. Other cities, including Taipei, Shanghai and Wuhan, als supprt the day.
    In Beijing mre and mre peple are jining the campaign (活动). It asks drivers t 28 their cars at hme
    fr ne day each mnth. On that day, peple try 29 ,taking the subway r riding a bike t wrk. It als calls n Beijingers nt t use cars n June 5th (Wrld Envirnment Day). The slgan fr the day is, “If we drive fr ne 30 day, we can have ne mre nice day.”
    Mre and mre 31 have shwn their supprt. “We cannt cntrl (控制) the weather, 32 we can chse nt t drive,”said Wu Znghua, a car club chairman. In the year f 2021, Beijing had 288 blue 33 days. While in the first quarter f 2012, Beijing nly had 52 blue sky days. This was 1 1 days less than the number fr the same perid the year befre. Much f the dust cmes frm the desert, but cars cause mst f the air 34 . We must d mre fr Car Free Day.
    25. A. space B. future C. envirnment D. peace
    26. A. arund B. up C. dwn D. after
    27. A. lst B. best C. next D. first
    28. A. use B. leave C. wash D. drive
    29. A. walking B. standing C. believing D. shaking
    30. A. much B. less C. mre D. many
    31. A. parts B. actrs C. engineers D. drivers
    32. A. because B. r C. but D. and
    33. A. planet B. sea C. water D. sky
    34. A. temperature B. pllutin C. relatinship D. predictin
    四、阅读理解(共14 小题,满分28分)
    A
    阅读下面短文,从各题A、B、C、D中选出能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
    Barnyard is a cartn. It has a few characters wh always make peple laugh.
    There is a beautiful barnyard with lts f sunflwers arund it. The wners f the barnyard have many cws, pigs, pandas, gats, sheep, ducks and chickens. These animals like driving,singing and dancing a lt.
    The cws are much smarter than the ther animals in the barnyard. Ben is the head cw. He asks all the animals t walk n their tw legs just like human beings. He als asks the animals nt t swim r watch TV withut permissin(允许).
    When the wners are ut, they becme crazy. They play tgether s happily day and night.One day, a grup f wlves cme t the barnyard. The animals and their hme are in danger. Ben desn't knw what t d. But his sn Otis, a naughty yung cw, is very clever. He has a gd idea t d with the wlves. S Otis and his friends start a fight with the wlves. And at last, they beat the wlves and Otis becmes the new head cw.
    35. Frm the first paragraph we can infer that .
    A. the characters in this mvie can help the wners a lt
    B. the characters in this mvie ften have a party
    C. the cart n is a cmedy
    D. mst f the animals are hard t teach
    36. What is the writer's purpse(目的) f writing the secnd paragraph?
    A. T tell us that the animals are pretty active.
    B. T tell us that the wners lve sunflwers very much.
    C. T shw hw kind the wners f the barnyard are.
    D. T ask peple t take gd care f all animals.
    37. What animals are the cleverest in the barnyard?
    A. The sheep. B. The pigs. C. The pandas. D. The cws.
    38. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
    A. Ben is very strict with his sn Otis.
    B. Otis plays an imprtant part in fighting against the wlves.
    C. The wners lve Ben better than Otis.
    D. The animals aren't afraid f the wlves.
    39. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Gd team wrk and a gd head are very imprtant in ding things.
    B. Animals can help their wners a lt smetimes.
    C. In fact, animals dn't like their wners at all.
    D. T bey(遵守) rules is imprtant fr all f us.
    B
    阅读短文B,根据短文内容,从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余。
    In China, almst everyne knws Zngzi. Why? 40 It is the ppular fd f the Dragn Bat Festival. And making Zngzi is an imprtant thing n that day.
    There are many kinds f Zngzi in China. They are in different shapes and tastes. Peple in sme places in the suth f China like t eat salty Zngzi, while mst peple in the nrth f China like eating sweet Zngzi. 41
    First, wash and ck the bamb(竹子) leaves fr a few minutes.
    Next, wash the rice. Remember that the rice desn't need t be washed fr t lng.
    Then, put sme date jujubes(枣) int a pt and ck them fr 10 t 15 minutes.
    42 Use a spn t fill bamb leaves with rice and date jujubes. Tie(扎,系) it up with a small and thin rpe(细绳).
    Then when they're ready, put them int a pt, add sme water and ck fr abut three hurs.
    43 Yu can eat them with sugar r hney.
    Why nt chse smeday and have a try? I'm sure yur family r friends will like it.
    A. I like eating Zngzi Very much.
    B. Because it's a kind f traditinal Chinese fd.
    C. Finally, put the Zngzi n a plate and serve yur family r friends.
    D. Tday I want t teach yu hw t make date jujube(枣) Zngzi.
    E. Then, put three bamb leaves in yur hand.
    C
    下面材料A~E分别是一些合理的建议。请根据五位人物的喜好,帮助他们选择一条适合他们的建议。
    44. My name is Frank. I am a student in Grade Seven. I want t watch a mvie t relax this weekend, but I dn't want t watch it n TV at hme.
    45. Mr. King is new in New Twn. There is a party fr his sn in his huse this evening. He.needs t buy gd fruit, vegetables and juice. Where can he buy them?
    46. I am Mike. I'm a student. My parents will take me t g n a trip this weekend. I want t g t a cl place. I want t see sme cute animals.
    47. Linda lives in Mn Twn and she enjys reading bks. In her free time, she ften spends sme time reading bks at hme. But smetimes, it's very nisy in her huse.
    48. I'm Alice. I like listening t music and I think it's a gd way t relax. I want t be a musician. The weekend is cming. I want t find a gd place t enjy music.
    A. Gd news fr yu. Welcme t Super Cinema n Lve Street. Yu can see many new mvie s n Saturday evenings.
    B. There is a reading rm near yur twn and it is quiet and big. Why nt g there? Yu can ride a bike there. I'm sure yu will have fun reading there.
    C. Why nt g t Muntain Farm Park? It is near muntains and there are many tall trees and beautiful flwers there. Yu can see cute small animals like birds and rabbits.
    D. There is a great cncert (音乐会) in Happy Hall n Blue Street. Five great singers and ther musicians will cme t the cncert. Yu can g there and have fun this Saturday.
    E. There is an ld supermarket n Bright Street. It's between a clthes stre and a cake shp. The things in it are always cheap. It sells very fresh vegetables, fruit, meat and flwers.
    五、选词填空(共10 小题, 满分 10分)
    根据短文内容,选择适当的单词填空,使短文意思完整。每个选项只用一次,有两项剩余。
    stpping less well imprve frget sure
    happy reslutin yur difficult breakfast gd
    New Year's Day is cming. I believe that mst f yu have 49 wn New Year's reslutins. But what kind f reslutins shuld yu make?
    First, yur New Year's reslutins shuld be 50 fr yu. Make sure that they can 51 yur studies r make yu healthier.“Ging t bed late” isn't a gd 52 .Yu shuld make reslutins like “drinking milk fr 53 every mrning.” The reslutin“ 54 eating junk fd”is als a gd ne. Studying harder and spending 55 time watching TV are gd nes, t. Secnd, yur New Year's reslutins shuldn't be very 56 t keep. Be 57 that yu can keep yur reslutins.
    After yu make sme gd and realistic(真实的) reslutins, dn't 58 t make a plan. Write dwn what yu need t d every day and then d it.
    49. 52. 50. 51. 52. 54. 56. 57. 55. 58.
    六、语法填空(共 10 小题, 满分10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入适当的内容(不多于3个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Right nw yu spend mst f yur time at schl. D yu wnder what yu are ging 59 (d) after junir high schl? Will yu g t senir high schl? Will yu be a 60 (pian)? Maybe it is time 61 (think) abut yur chices and t prepare fr them. Smeday wrk will be a big part f yur life.
    What kind f jb wuld be right fr yu 62 the future? Think abut yur interests(兴趣) and yur skills. Yu may like t listen t music, dance, play basketball, r wrk with cmputers. Yu may knw hw t ck a delicius meal r hw t get alng with peple.Knwing bth yur interests and skills 63 (help) yu make a better plan fr yur future jb. Yu shuld 64 (sure) abut it.
    Laura Zhang, an art designer(设计师), enjys her wrk 65 she can use her interests and skills in it. She enjyed imagining(想象) smething in her mind when she was at schl. She tk art design and cmputer lessns, and als learned abut 66 (take)phts n her wn. Here is 67 she says abut the meaning f wrk:“If yu have a jb yu like, wrk means much mre than just making mney. It means 68 (use) yur talents, making a cntributin (贡献), and getting a real sense f satisfactin(满足感) frm ding a jb.”
    59. 62. 61. 62. 61. 64. 65. 66. 67. 65.
    七、阅读表达(共5 小题,满分 10分)
    Rbbie lked ut f the windw. It was still snwing heavily and there was ice n the windw.
    The family tld Rbbie t turn the heat n befre they gt hme. And he did it. Then Rbbie was tld t d sme cleaning wrk at nce. It was an easy jb fr him. He kept n wrking until every rm was clean and tidy. Then, he had t ck dinner fr the family. The first thing Rbbie did was t get a big pt in the kitchen. Then he pur sme water in the p t and put it n the stve(炉子). He used ne f his hands t cut up a chicken and added the pieces t the water t make a gd sup. Then he gt sme tmates, cabbages and carrts t make a vegetable salad.
    At ten past eight he laid the table. Then he put sme bread, the chicken sup and the salad n it. What a sweet smell! The mment he turned n the lights, the whle family came hme.
    “The sup smells great,”said Helen.“Yu really did a gd jb.”Rbbie is ne rbt that really saves the family a lt f wrk.
    69. What was the weather like when the stry happened?

    70. What d the underline wrds“did it”mean?

    71. What did Rbbie d fr the family in ttal(一共)?

    72. What is Rbbie?

    73. D yu want t have Rbbie in yur family? Why?

    八、完成句子(每空1分,满分 10分)
    根据每小题的汉语句子,完成英语句子,每空一词。
    74.我们经常对别人做出承诺。
    We ften t thers.
    75. 小行动有大影响。我们每个人都可以在保护环境中发挥作用。
    Small actins make a big difference. Each f us can a in prtecting the envirnment.
    76.——你觉得谈话节目怎么样?
    ————我从不期待从中学到很多东西。
    ——What d yu think f talk shws?
    ——I never learn a lt frm them.
    77. 未来会有更多的污染。你会做什么来拯救我们的地球呢?
    There will be mre in the future. What will yu d t ur earth?
    78. 当他长大了想干什么?
    What des he want t be when he ?
    九、书面表达(18分)
    假如你是第一中学的李华。下表是你和你的朋友 Peter 对喜好的电视节目和自己未来规划的介绍。请你根据信息提示写一篇短文,介绍你和你的朋友Peter的观点。
    要求:1.要点齐全,可适当发挥,不少于80词;
    2.文中不能出现真实的姓名、校名和其他真实信息。
    Hey, I'm Li Hua, a student in N.1 Middle Schl.


    注意:请将答案写在答题纸的相应位置!
    七年级英语答案(满分 120分)
    一、听力选择(共 15 小题, 满分15分)
    1-5 ABBCC 6-10 ACBCB 11-15 ABACC
    二、音标(共9小题,满分9分)
    16-20 DABDC 21-24 BDAC
    三、完形填空(共 10小题,满分10分)
    25-29 CADBA 30-34 BDCDB
    四、阅读理解(共 14 小题,满分28分)
    35-39 CADBA 40-43 BDEC 44-48 AECBD
    五、选词填空 (共 10小题, 满分10分)
    49. yur 50. gd 51. imprve 52. reslutin 53. breakfast
    54. stpping 55. less 56. difficult 57. sure 58. frget
    六、语法填空(共 10 小题, 满分 10分)
    59. t d 60. pianist 61. t think 62. in 63. will help
    64. be sure 65. because 66. taking 67.what 68. using
    七、阅读表达 (共5小题,满分10分)
    69. It snwed heavily and it was very cld.(It snwed heavily and there was ice n the windw.也可得分)
    70. It means Rbbie turns the heat n. /Rbbie turned the heat n.也可。
    71. Rbbie turned the heat n, did sme cleaning wrk, ck dinner, laid the table and put sme bread, the chicken sup and the salad n the table.
    72. It is a rbt.
    73.开放性答案, 言之有理即可。
    八、完成句子(每空1分,满分10分)
    74. make prmises 75. play rle/part 76. expect t 77. pllutin , save
    78. grws up
    十、书面表达(18分) 略Name
    Favrite shws
    Dream jbs
    Li Hua
    喜欢新闻,认为有教育意义,期待了
    解世界上接下来发生的事情。
    父母想让我成为电脑设计员,但是我不
    确定。我打算成为一名记者,我将去上
    海工作。
    Peter
    不能忍受肥皂剧,尽管演员们做得
    好,但觉得无聊和毫无意义。
    想成为小提琴家,计划每天练习小提琴。
    总之,坚持决心很困难,但是我们会尽力实现它们。

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