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云南省昆明市六县区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末统考英语试题（含答案）
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这是一份云南省昆明市六县区2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末统考英语试题（含答案），共9页。试卷主要包含了本卷为试题卷， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2022-2023学年上学期期末检测
八年级英语试题卷
（全卷四个部分，共8页；满分100分，考试用时120分钟）
注意事项：
1.本卷为试题卷。考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
2.考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共三节，满分15分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。
6. A. By studying medicine. B. By studying education. C. In Beijing.
7. A. Yes, they will. B. No, they won’t. C. Yes. I hope so.
8. A. I think so. B. Sounds great. C. I don’t think so.
9. A. Dumpling House. B. Town Cinema. C. Spring Park.
10. A. Me, too. B. Me, neither. C. So do I.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下列对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
听第一段材料，回答第11、12小题。
11. How old is Tom going to be?
A. Fourteen. B. Fifteen. C. Sixteen.
12. When is Tom’s birthday party?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
听第二段材料，回答第13、14、15小题。
13. Who cooked the dinner on Monday evening?
A. Karen. B. Karen’s mother. C. Karen’s father.
14. What was wrong with Karen’s mother?
A. She was ill. B. She was late for work. C. She made the meal salty.
15. What did Karen do before going to bed that night?
A. She watched TV with her parents.
B. She did her homework.
C. She brought hot water for her mother to wash feet.
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 单项填空（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
16. Kelly is going to study in ______ university and she really wants to be ______ engineer when she grows up.
A. a; a B. an; an C. an; a D. a; an
17. —Mr. Smith, how can I ______ myspoken English?
—You can join an English club to practice speaking English every day.
A. try B. write C. improve D. read
18. —I predict we will go to Mars (火星) for vacations in the near future.
—______. There is no air on Mars.
A. I agree with you B. I disagree with you.
C. That sounds great D. You’re right
19. I want to make fruit salad for my parents, I don’t know ______ apples and ______yogurt I need.
A. how many; how much B. how much; how many
C. how far;how old D. how long; how often
20. There ______ a basketball game in our school next month.
A. is B. is going to have C. will have D. will be
21. —When did you go to the ______ for teeth cleaning, Tina?
—I went there last Sunday.
A. musician B. pilot C. actor D. dentist
22. I saw ______ in the classroom because ______ was playing basketball on the playground.
A. nobody; everybody B. somebody; anybody
C. everybody; somebody D. anybody; nobody
23. The ______that Hangzhou will hold the 19th Asian Games (亚运会) made us excited.
A. competition B. news C. hobby D. advice
24. —Why are you so ______, Mary?
—My mom fell ill last night and I’m worried about her.
A. angry B. happy C. interested D. upset
25. We studied ______ at home in November 2022 because of COVID-19.
A. online B. probably C. finally D. until
26. —Can you go to the museum with me this weekend?
—______. When and where shall we meet?
A. No, I can’t B. Thank you C. Don’t worry D. Sure, I’d love to
27. Movie World is the ______ movie theater in town because it has ______ service than any other theaters.
A. best; best B. better; better C. better; best D. best; better
28. —What ______ ifwe have the party this evening?
—Most of the class won’t come because they have to study for a test.
A. will happen B. happens C. happened D. to happen
29. Ken is going to travel to Malaysia ______ the morning of March 2nd.
A. in B. on C. at D. of
30. —How was your trip to Kunming last summer vacation?
—______. It is a fantastic city.
A. Dangerous B. Great C. Terrible D. Meaningless
31. Jeff’s father was unhealthy. So the doctor advised him ______ too often.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. not to smoke D. not smoking
32. —Did you enjoy the World Cup Soccer in 2022?
—______. I play soccer every day.
A. I’m sorry B. No. I didn’t C. Of course D. You’re welcome
33. We will bring Ms. Steen to the party without calling her ______ she can be surprised.
A. even though B. so that C. because of D. in order to
34. —How often do you go to the movies?
—______. I don’t like watching movies.
A. Always B. Usually C. Sometimes D. Hardly ever
35. To save water, we should ______ the tap (水龙头) when brushing teeth.
A. turn on B. turn off C. turn up D. turn down
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Do you know that the song Happy Birthday was written 36 an American girl? One day, the girl was invited to her friend’s 37 party. She was happy 38 sad because she didn’t have enough money to buy a gift for her. Later that night, when she was in bed thinking about the 39 . Her grandma came. “What happened?” Her grandma asked. Hearing the girl’s story, she said, “Don’t worry. I think I can help you. Why not 40 a song for your friend? Happy Birthday to you.” What a beautiful song! They sang and sang. 41 the girl woke up. It was a dream! She decided 42 it down at once and sing it to her friend at the party.
When she sang the song at the party, her friend was very 43 . “Thank you for 44 me the special gift.” Her friend said. And they learned to sing it together. Later the girl became very rich and famous in 45 .
36. A. on B. in C. from D. by
37. A. birthday B. opening C. Christmas D. Thanksgiving
38. A. and B. but C. so D. because
39. A. song B. housework C. gift D. homework
40. A. to sing B. singing C. sang D. sing
41. A. Suddenly B. Quickly C. Quietly D. Comfortably
42. A. writing B. to write C. putting D. to put
43. A. upset B. shy C. serious D. happy
44. A. give B. giving C. buy D. buying
45. A. America B. China C. Japan D. Malaysia
第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分35分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”，错误“F”），并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Tom liked watching TV when he was ten. He watched TV at least five hours everyday. He was always late for school because of this.
One day, he found a pair of special glasses on his table. He also found a message saying “With these you can see time”.
The boy decided to have a try. He put on the glasses and looked at his brother. He saw a big box of flowers on the top of his head. When he looked at his parents, he also saw the flowers. The flowers were very beautiful. Then he looked at himself from the mirror. He saw the flowers, too. But his flowers went to the mouth of the television. The mouth was so big that his flowers became fewer and fewer.
At last, he learnt that watching TV was a waste of time. He could learn nothing from it. He decided he would never let the television eat his time again.
46. Tom was always late for school because he got up late.
47. Tom can see the time with this pair of glasses.
48. Tom can see fewer and fewer flowers on his brother’s and parents’ heads.
49. The flowers of Tom’s went to the mouth of the television.
50. From this passage we know that watching too much TV can eat your time.
第二节（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）
根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡相应位置上。
A
What will you do if you have five million dollars? Different people have different answers to this question.
Ted: If I have five million, I will use the money to do everything I like. First, I’ll use two million to open my own shop. And I’ll use another two million to buy some houses. In the future, the houses will become more expensive, and I’ll sell them to other people. Finally, I’ll use one million to buy some gifts for my family and good friends.
Jake: If I get five million, I want to do business. I’ll do a lot of things for my family. Because nothing is more important than my family for me. I’ll buy a big house for them and I’ll travel around the world with them.
Ben: I’ll buy an island if I have five million. Then I’ll be the king (国王) of the island. I’ll invite all my family and friends to my island.
May: If I have five million, I’ll put three million in the bank and spend two million. I’ll visit Paris, London and New York. I’ll eat delicious food, play games and build a house with a swimming pool.
No matter what you will do. The most important thing for you now is to study hard. Only in this way you’ll have chances to make your dreams come true.
51. Ted will buy some houses if he has five million because ______.
A. the houses are beautiful B. the houses will become more expensive
C. he wants to live comfortably D. there are too many people in his family
52. Jake thinks ______ is the most important for him in the world.
A. money B. friends C. family D. business
53. ______ wants to be a king of an island if he has five million.
A. Ben B. May C. Jake D. Ted
54. May loves ______ according the passage.
A. beautiful clothes B. reading books C. banks D. travelling
55. What’s the main idea of this passage?
A. Work hard and you’ll be successful. B. Money is the most important in the world.
C. We should be kind to others. D. We can do nothing without money.
B
Keeping a diary is a great way to remember what you did many years ago. Many people write their diaries every day. They write about what they did, what they ate, who they saw and met, how they did something and how they feel that day.
Most people don’t want anyone else to read their diaries. They keep them in a safe place. Some Chinese students try to keep diaries in English to help themselves remember something. In this way, their parents can’t understand what they write. And it’s also good for studying English.
There are many famous diaries in the world. Some diaries are useful because we can learn about the life long ago, and we can get to know something important or something interesting. Many people in China have read the Diaries of Lei Feng. Lei Feng was a soldier. In his short time, he did a lot of good things for other people and for his country. He was always ready to give, but never asked for anything from others. He kept diaries and from them, we learn how great he was. In China’s schools, students learn some of his diaries as texts.
56. People don’t write about ______ in their diaries according to this passage.
A. what they did B. who they saw and meet
C. how they feel that day D. what they will do
57. Most people keep their diaries in a safe place because ______.
A. they don’t want others to read their diaries B. others may laugh at them
C. their diaries are not interesting D. they don’t have any friends
58. The writer thinks ______ is good for Chinese students to study English.
A. making English friends B. keeping diaries in English
C. reading English books D. asking the teacher for help
59. We can learn about the life long ago by reading ______.
A. some magazines B. some newspapers
C. some famous diaries D. some novels
60. We should learn from Lei Feng because _______.
A. he was always ready to give, but never asked for anything
B. he kept diaries every day
C. he was a soldier
D. he was very famous
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上，
We all want to be happy. But few people know how to find happiness. In fact, we make our own happiness. 61
The first way to be happy is enjoying simple things in life. Usually, we spend too much time thinking about the future. 62 “Will I get into a good college or get a good job?” We are so worried that we can’t enjoy our lives. 63 Such as reading a good book, listening to tour favorite music, or spending time with good friends. You will live a happier life if you have many good friends.
Another way to live a happy life is to be active. 64 People can forget about their problems while they are dancing or doing sports.
Finally, many people find happiness in helping others. Studies show that people feel good when they spend their time helping others. If you want to feel happier, 65 You can help a friend with his or her studies, go shopping to buy food for old people, or simply help do housework by washing the dishes at home.
A. Many people go dancing or play sports.
B. Here are a few ways to help you be happy.
C. Helping others makes us happy.
D. do good things for someone.
E. For example, we often ask ourselves such questions.
F. If you want to be happy, be a friendly person.
G. We should enjoy simple things in life.
第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
66. Laura got bad grades in the exam because she made some ______ mistakes. (care)
67. The Great Wall is one of the most famous ______ in Chinese culture. (symbol)
68. I wrote a letter to my friend and I’m looking forward to ______ from him. (hear)
69. It’s ______ for you to finish such difficult work in an hour, let me help you. (possible)
70. I bought something for my parents, but nothing for ______. (I)
第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
71. We ______ we were birds when we tried paragliding. (感受到)
72. I don’t think it’s necessary of my friends to be ______ me. (和…相同)
73. People often make resolutions ______ of the year. (在…的开始)
74. Robots can do simple jobs ______ and they never get bored.(反复地)
75. Teenagers enjoy ______ like Spider-Man because they’re exciting. (动作片)
第三节 书面表达（满分10分）
同学们，期待已久的寒假即将到来，你做好准备迎接丰富多彩的寒假生活了吗？在学习之余，是外出增长见识？还是在家帮助父母？你们一定有自己的规划吧？请以My Winter Vacation Plan为题写一篇短文，叙述你寒假计划要做的事情。
要求：
1.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁，词数不少于60个；
2.文中不得使用真实姓名和校名，校名统一用Guangming Middle School；
3.书面表达必须写在答题卡上，如在本卷上作答，一律不得分。
4.抄袭试卷中相关材料的，抄袭部分不给分。
2022-2023学年上学期期末检测
八年级英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分 听力（满分15分，每题1分）
1-5: BCABC 6-10: ACBAA 11-15: BCAAC
第二部分 英语知识运用（满分30分，每题1分）
第一节 16-20: DCBAD 21-25: DABDA 26-30: DDABB 31-35: CCBDB
第二节 36-40: DABCD 41-45: ABDBA
第三部分 阅读理解（满分35分，46-50题、61-65题，每题1.5分；56-65题，每题2分）
第一节 46-50: FTFTT
第二节 51-55: BCADA 56-60: DABCA
第三节 61-65: BEGAD
第四部分 写作（满分20分，第一节每题1分，第二节每题1分，第三节10分）
第一节 66. careless 67. symbols 68. hearing 69. impossible 70. myself
第二节 71. felt like 72. the same as 73. at the beginning of
74. over and over again 75. action movies
第三节 书面表达（略）
2022-2023学年上学期期末检测
八年级英语试题卷
（全卷四个部分，共8页；满分100分，考试用时120分钟）
注意事项：
1.本卷为试题卷。考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
2.考试结束后，请将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共三节，满分15分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。
6. A. By studying medicine. B. By studying education. C. In Beijing.
7. A. Yes, they will. B. No, they won’t. C. Yes. I hope so.
8. A. I think so. B. Sounds great. C. I don’t think so.
9. A. Dumpling House. B. Town Cinema. C. Spring Park.
10. A. Me, too. B. Me, neither. C. So do I.
第三节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
听下列对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。
听第一段材料，回答第11、12小题。
11. How old is Tom going to be?
A. Fourteen. B. Fifteen. C. Sixteen.
12. When is Tom’s birthday party?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Thursday. C. On Friday.
听第二段材料，回答第13、14、15小题。
13. Who cooked the dinner on Monday evening?
A. Karen. B. Karen’s mother. C. Karen’s father.
14. What was wrong with Karen’s mother?
A. She was ill. B. She was late for work. C. She made the meal salty.
15. What did Karen do before going to bed that night?
A. She watched TV with her parents.
B. She did her homework.
C. She brought hot water for her mother to wash feet.
第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 单项填空（共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
16. Kelly is going to study in ______ university and she really wants to be ______ engineer when she grows up.
A. a; a B. an; an C. an; a D. a; an
17. —Mr. Smith, how can I ______ myspoken English?
—You can join an English club to practice speaking English every day.
A. try B. write C. improve D. read
18. —I predict we will go to Mars (火星) for vacations in the near future.
—______. There is no air on Mars.
A. I agree with you B. I disagree with you.
C. That sounds great D. You’re right
19. I want to make fruit salad for my parents, I don’t know ______ apples and ______yogurt I need.
A. how many; how much B. how much; how many
C. how far;how old D. how long; how often
20. There ______ a basketball game in our school next month.
A. is B. is going to have C. will have D. will be
21. —When did you go to the ______ for teeth cleaning, Tina?
—I went there last Sunday.
A. musician B. pilot C. actor D. dentist
22. I saw ______ in the classroom because ______ was playing basketball on the playground.
A. nobody; everybody B. somebody; anybody
C. everybody; somebody D. anybody; nobody
23. The ______that Hangzhou will hold the 19th Asian Games (亚运会) made us excited.
A. competition B. news C. hobby D. advice
24. —Why are you so ______, Mary?
—My mom fell ill last night and I’m worried about her.
A. angry B. happy C. interested D. upset
25. We studied ______ at home in November 2022 because of COVID-19.
A. online B. probably C. finally D. until
26. —Can you go to the museum with me this weekend?
—______. When and where shall we meet?
A. No, I can’t B. Thank you C. Don’t worry D. Sure, I’d love to
27. Movie World is the ______ movie theater in town because it has ______ service than any other theaters.
A. best; best B. better; better C. better; best D. best; better
28. —What ______ ifwe have the party this evening?
—Most of the class won’t come because they have to study for a test.
A. will happen B. happens C. happened D. to happen
29. Ken is going to travel to Malaysia ______ the morning of March 2nd.
A. in B. on C. at D. of
30. —How was your trip to Kunming last summer vacation?
—______. It is a fantastic city.
A. Dangerous B. Great C. Terrible D. Meaningless
31. Jeff’s father was unhealthy. So the doctor advised him ______ too often.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. not to smoke D. not smoking
32. —Did you enjoy the World Cup Soccer in 2022?
—______. I play soccer every day.
A. I’m sorry B. No. I didn’t C. Of course D. You’re welcome
33. We will bring Ms. Steen to the party without calling her ______ she can be surprised.
A. even though B. so that C. because of D. in order to
34. —How often do you go to the movies?
—______. I don’t like watching movies.
A. Always B. Usually C. Sometimes D. Hardly ever
35. To save water, we should ______ the tap (水龙头) when brushing teeth.
A. turn on B. turn off C. turn up D. turn down
第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Do you know that the song Happy Birthday was written 36 an American girl? One day, the girl was invited to her friend’s 37 party. She was happy 38 sad because she didn’t have enough money to buy a gift for her. Later that night, when she was in bed thinking about the 39 . Her grandma came. “What happened?” Her grandma asked. Hearing the girl’s story, she said, “Don’t worry. I think I can help you. Why not 40 a song for your friend? Happy Birthday to you.” What a beautiful song! They sang and sang. 41 the girl woke up. It was a dream! She decided 42 it down at once and sing it to her friend at the party.
When she sang the song at the party, her friend was very 43 . “Thank you for 44 me the special gift.” Her friend said. And they learned to sing it together. Later the girl became very rich and famous in 45 .
36. A. on B. in C. from D. by
37. A. birthday B. opening C. Christmas D. Thanksgiving
38. A. and B. but C. so D. because
39. A. song B. housework C. gift D. homework
40. A. to sing B. singing C. sang D. sing
41. A. Suddenly B. Quickly C. Quietly D. Comfortably
42. A. writing B. to write C. putting D. to put
43. A. upset B. shy C. serious D. happy
44. A. give B. giving C. buy D. buying
45. A. America B. China C. Japan D. Malaysia
第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分35分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”，错误“F”），并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。
Tom liked watching TV when he was ten. He watched TV at least five hours everyday. He was always late for school because of this.
One day, he found a pair of special glasses on his table. He also found a message saying “With these you can see time”.
The boy decided to have a try. He put on the glasses and looked at his brother. He saw a big box of flowers on the top of his head. When he looked at his parents, he also saw the flowers. The flowers were very beautiful. Then he looked at himself from the mirror. He saw the flowers, too. But his flowers went to the mouth of the television. The mouth was so big that his flowers became fewer and fewer.
At last, he learnt that watching TV was a waste of time. He could learn nothing from it. He decided he would never let the television eat his time again.
46. Tom was always late for school because he got up late.
47. Tom can see the time with this pair of glasses.
48. Tom can see fewer and fewer flowers on his brother’s and parents’ heads.
49. The flowers of Tom’s went to the mouth of the television.
50. From this passage we know that watching too much TV can eat your time.
第二节（共10小题，每小题2分，满分20分）
根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡相应位置上。
A
What will you do if you have five million dollars? Different people have different answers to this question.
Ted: If I have five million, I will use the money to do everything I like. First, I’ll use two million to open my own shop. And I’ll use another two million to buy some houses. In the future, the houses will become more expensive, and I’ll sell them to other people. Finally, I’ll use one million to buy some gifts for my family and good friends.
Jake: If I get five million, I want to do business. I’ll do a lot of things for my family. Because nothing is more important than my family for me. I’ll buy a big house for them and I’ll travel around the world with them.
Ben: I’ll buy an island if I have five million. Then I’ll be the king (国王) of the island. I’ll invite all my family and friends to my island.
May: If I have five million, I’ll put three million in the bank and spend two million. I’ll visit Paris, London and New York. I’ll eat delicious food, play games and build a house with a swimming pool.
No matter what you will do. The most important thing for you now is to study hard. Only in this way you’ll have chances to make your dreams come true.
51. Ted will buy some houses if he has five million because ______.
A. the houses are beautiful B. the houses will become more expensive
C. he wants to live comfortably D. there are too many people in his family
52. Jake thinks ______ is the most important for him in the world.
A. money B. friends C. family D. business
53. ______ wants to be a king of an island if he has five million.
A. Ben B. May C. Jake D. Ted
54. May loves ______ according the passage.
A. beautiful clothes B. reading books C. banks D. travelling
55. What’s the main idea of this passage?
A. Work hard and you’ll be successful. B. Money is the most important in the world.
C. We should be kind to others. D. We can do nothing without money.
B
Keeping a diary is a great way to remember what you did many years ago. Many people write their diaries every day. They write about what they did, what they ate, who they saw and met, how they did something and how they feel that day.
Most people don’t want anyone else to read their diaries. They keep them in a safe place. Some Chinese students try to keep diaries in English to help themselves remember something. In this way, their parents can’t understand what they write. And it’s also good for studying English.
There are many famous diaries in the world. Some diaries are useful because we can learn about the life long ago, and we can get to know something important or something interesting. Many people in China have read the Diaries of Lei Feng. Lei Feng was a soldier. In his short time, he did a lot of good things for other people and for his country. He was always ready to give, but never asked for anything from others. He kept diaries and from them, we learn how great he was. In China’s schools, students learn some of his diaries as texts.
56. People don’t write about ______ in their diaries according to this passage.
A. what they did B. who they saw and meet
C. how they feel that day D. what they will do
57. Most people keep their diaries in a safe place because ______.
A. they don’t want others to read their diaries B. others may laugh at them
C. their diaries are not interesting D. they don’t have any friends
58. The writer thinks ______ is good for Chinese students to study English.
A. making English friends B. keeping diaries in English
C. reading English books D. asking the teacher for help
59. We can learn about the life long ago by reading ______.
A. some magazines B. some newspapers
C. some famous diaries D. some novels
60. We should learn from Lei Feng because _______.
A. he was always ready to give, but never asked for anything
B. he kept diaries every day
C. he was a soldier
D. he was very famous
第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中，选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项，并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上，
We all want to be happy. But few people know how to find happiness. In fact, we make our own happiness. 61
The first way to be happy is enjoying simple things in life. Usually, we spend too much time thinking about the future. 62 “Will I get into a good college or get a good job?” We are so worried that we can’t enjoy our lives. 63 Such as reading a good book, listening to tour favorite music, or spending time with good friends. You will live a happier life if you have many good friends.
Another way to live a happy life is to be active. 64 People can forget about their problems while they are dancing or doing sports.
Finally, many people find happiness in helping others. Studies show that people feel good when they spend their time helping others. If you want to feel happier, 65 You can help a friend with his or her studies, go shopping to buy food for old people, or simply help do housework by washing the dishes at home.
A. Many people go dancing or play sports.
B. Here are a few ways to help you be happy.
C. Helping others makes us happy.
D. do good things for someone.
E. For example, we often ask ourselves such questions.
F. If you want to be happy, be a friendly person.
G. We should enjoy simple things in life.
第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
66. Laura got bad grades in the exam because she made some ______ mistakes. (care)
67. The Great Wall is one of the most famous ______ in Chinese culture. (symbol)
68. I wrote a letter to my friend and I’m looking forward to ______ from him. (hear)
69. It’s ______ for you to finish such difficult work in an hour, let me help you. (possible)
70. I bought something for my parents, but nothing for ______. (I)
第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。
71. We ______ we were birds when we tried paragliding. (感受到)
72. I don’t think it’s necessary of my friends to be ______ me. (和…相同)
73. People often make resolutions ______ of the year. (在…的开始)
74. Robots can do simple jobs ______ and they never get bored.(反复地)
75. Teenagers enjoy ______ like Spider-Man because they’re exciting. (动作片)
第三节 书面表达（满分10分）
同学们，期待已久的寒假即将到来，你做好准备迎接丰富多彩的寒假生活了吗？在学习之余，是外出增长见识？还是在家帮助父母？你们一定有自己的规划吧？请以My Winter Vacation Plan为题写一篇短文，叙述你寒假计划要做的事情。
要求：
1.语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁，词数不少于60个；
2.文中不得使用真实姓名和校名，校名统一用Guangming Middle School；
3.书面表达必须写在答题卡上，如在本卷上作答，一律不得分。
4.抄袭试卷中相关材料的，抄袭部分不给分。
2022-2023学年上学期期末检测
八年级英语参考答案及评分意见
第一部分 听力（满分15分，每题1分）
1-5: BCABC 6-10: ACBAA 11-15: BCAAC
第二部分 英语知识运用（满分30分，每题1分）
第一节 16-20: DCBAD 21-25: DABDA 26-30: DDABB 31-35: CCBDB
第二节 36-40: DABCD 41-45: ABDBA
第三部分 阅读理解（满分35分，46-50题、61-65题，每题1.5分；56-65题，每题2分）
第一节 46-50: FTFTT
第二节 51-55: BCADA 56-60: DABCA
第三节 61-65: BEGAD
第四部分 写作（满分20分，第一节每题1分，第二节每题1分，第三节10分）
第一节 66. careless 67. symbols 68. hearing 69. impossible 70. myself
第二节 71. felt like 72. the same as 73. at the beginning of
74. over and over again 75. action movies
第三节 书面表达（略）
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