河南省平顶山市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末调研考试英语试题(无答案)

这是一份河南省平顶山市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末调研考试英语试题(无答案)，共10页。试卷主要包含了15等内容，欢迎下载使用。

绝密★启用前
2022—2023学年第二学期高二期末调研考试
英语
考生注意：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does the woman ask the man to do?
A. Relax himself. B. Go shopping C. Do some exercise.
2. How is the man going to work?
A. By taxi. B. By car. C. By bus.
3. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. At school. B. In a park. C. At the airport.
4. What does the woman plan to do?
A. Go skiing. B. Plant trees. C. Address a meeting.
5. Why didn't the woman answer the call?
A. She was busy with her work.
B. She wasn't at home.
C. Her husband was ill.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What’s the man doing?
A. Seeing a doctor. B. Asking for leave. C. Repairing an alarm clock.
7. What can we know about the man?
A. He is dishonest. B. He has a headache. C. He is forgetful.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Whom does the man speaker have to see at 10：00?
A. Mr White. B. Mr Potter. C. Mrs Cathy.
9. Why doesn't the man speaker want to see Mrs Cathy?
A. He is tired of waiting. B. She isn't a kind person. C. She lives too far away.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. How does the woman feel at first?
A. Proud. B. Surprised. C. Sick.
11. What's wrong with the man?
A. He had a car accident.
B. He was knocked down by a bike.
C. He drove into the back of a truck.
12. What can be learnt from the conversation?
A. The road sign showed a wrong direction.
B. The other driver was driving very fast.
C. Something was wrong with the man speaker's driving mirror.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does the man think of their previous weekends?
A. Boring. B. Exciting. C. Interesting.
14. What does the man usually do on the weekend?
A. Go shopping. B. Have his hair done. C. Watch football games.
15. What's the relationship between the speakers?
A. Workmates. B. Brother and sister. C. Husband and wife.
16. What does the woman advise doing this weekend?
A. Going shopping. B. Going out for a picnic. C. Playing cards with friends.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What do we know about the speaker's father?
A. He worked as a doctor.
B. He stayed in the US all the time.
C. He enjoyed travelling in his spare time.
18. What's the speaker?
A. A doctor. B. A student. C. An engineer.
19. What will the speaker do if he does well in “A levels” exams?
A. Take computer science at university.
B. Take the test called GCSE.
C. Spend some time with his father.
20. Where does the speaker live now?
A. In Canada. B. In America. C. In England.
第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Music Competitions for Ambitious Musicians There are plenty of reputable music competitions that artists can enter to help give their career a jumpstart，
Unsigned Only
The goal of Unsigned Only is to find outstanding musicians who have yet to sign a record deal. They have a chance to get exposure and recognition from industry professionals. Moreover, the rules of this competition are very beneficial to these amateur musicians. For example, they can submit as many songs or pieces of music in any style as they like. The grand prizewinner receives $20, 000and a one-on-one interview with record company managers.
The Voice
What's great about this competition is that contestants can get the exposure and the chance to be coached by some most successful recording artists. A disadvantage for amateurs is that they do allow professional or previously signed musicians to enter. However, this provides a more competitive environment. The winner gets $100, 000 and a record deal with Universal Music Group. America's Got Talent
America's Got Talent is a television talent competition that accepts acts of all different types, which is great for exposure and networking. All that's required is to be a legal United States resident and either be eighteen years old or have a guardian's permission. The grand prizewinner receives $1, 000, 000 and the chance to perform in their own Las Vegas show.
International Songwriting Competition
The International Songwriting Competition is open to both amateur and professional musicians. The contest allows musicians to have their songs heard by industry leaders and opens doors for them in the industry. Participants are allowed to submit as many songs as they want. Seventy-one winners will be chosen to get cash, merchandise, and a chance of the musician international exposure.
21. Who is Unsigned Only intended for?
A. Adults. B. Amateur musicians.
C. Professional musicians. D. United States citizens.
22. What is the common benefit of the four competitions?
A. The exposure to more people. B. The access to the music industry.
C. The coaching from professionals. D. The opportunity of holding a concert.
23. Which competition involves all kinds of performances?
A. The Voice. B. Unsigned Only.
C. America's Got Talent. D. International Songwriting Competition.
B
Donatella Flick was the winner of the competition's17th part. She wanted to find young conductors at the beginning of their careers and make sure they had tools to enable them not to give up until they succeed.
“It's so important to train young talents and give them the opportunities to succeed,” she said, reflecting on founding the Donatella Flick Conducting Competition 33 years ago.
That was why, she emphasized, the prize went beyond the cash award—which was a healthy &15, 000—and offered the winner the opportunity to assist the London Symphony Orchestra(LSO)for a year. They could work with some of the world's finest conductors and lay foundations for a successful conducting career.
Flick was born Princess Donatella Missikoff. Since 1917, Flick has successfully built a career and reputation as an art it. She now organizes charitable foundations and project all over the world.
With the Competition, she was motivated by finding more talents in unexpected places-before diversity and inclusion spread through different industries as new “buzzwords”.
“One way to do this was to broaden the range for applications, so we opened up entries to conductors from Iceland， Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland in 2018.Since then, I've been very pleased to see conductors from those countries reach the list of competitors,” she said. “One of the major changes that I've been very happy to see is that more women are applying for the Competition now than when we started in 1990, and I hope this continues in future competitions. In view of the fact that only four of the 20 conductors—that was 20 percent—who qualified for the 2023 competition were women, it was clear that a gender imbalance persisted.
“I think we have a new generation of female conductors emerging, and I would deeply encourage them to apply to the Competition if they're at the start of their careers,” Flick said, still hopeful.
24. Why did Flick found the Conducting Competition?
A. To become famous. B. To continue her family tradition.
C. To train the future stars of conducting. D. To promote the finest conductors’ careers.
25. How did Flick help young conductors?
A. By introducing them to some world-class orchestras.
B. By supporting them financially.
C. By equipping them with conducting tools.
D. By providing more opportunities for them.
26. What major change does the Conducting Competition bring?
A. The range for applications is broadened every year.
B. More females intend to take part in it now.
C. Youths worldwide engage themselves in conducting.
D. Males account for 80%of the qualified conductors.
27. Which of the following can best describe Flick?
A. Kind and ambitious. B. Generous and brave.
C. Sensible and creative. D. Energetic and productive.
C
New scientific research has found that attending live sporting events improves levels of wellbeing and reduces feelings of loneliness.
Published in the journal Frontiers in Public Health, the research is the first large-scale study to examine the benefits of attending any type of live sporting event.
The study, carried out by academics from Anglia Ruskin University's School of Psychology and, Sport Science, used data from 7, 209 adults in England, aged 16—85, who participated in the Taking Part Survey, which was commissioned by the British Government's Department for Digital, Culture, Media and Sport.
It found that attending live sporting events results in higher scores of two major measurements of subjective wellbeing—life satisfaction and a sense of “life being worthwhile” —as well as lower levels of loneliness.
These results are meaningful as previous studies have shown that higher life satisfaction scores are associated with fewer life-limiting conditions and better physical health, successful ageing, and lower mortality rates.
The new study also found that attending live sporting events leads to an increase in people's sense that “life is worthwhile”, and the size of this increase is comparable to that of gaining employment.
Lead author Dr Helen Keyes, Head of the School of Psychology and Sport Science at Anglia Ruskin University (ARU), said, “Previous research has focused on specific sports or small populations, such as college students in the United States. Ours is the first study to look at the benefits of attending any s porn g event across an adult population, and therefore our f dings could be useful for adjusting coming pubic heath rules, such as of e rig reduced ticket prices for certain groups.”
“However, we do know that watching live sports of all types provides many opportunities for social interaction and thus helps to strengthen group identity and belonging, which in tum eases loneliness and boosts levels of wellbeing,” Dr Helen Keyes added.
28. What is the new scientific research about?
A. The approaches to reducing feelings of loneliness.
B. The reasons for taking part in any live sporting event.
C. The benefit of taking part in any kind of sporting events.
D. The relationship between attending live sports and wellbeing.
29. What can we learn about people attending live sporting events?
A. They are more satisfied with their life.
B. They meet if e-limiting conditions.
C. They are sports-lovers and energetic.
D. More of them will get employed.
30. What is the value of the findings according to Dr Helen Keyes?
A Providing chances for social interaction.
B. Shaping future public health strategies.
C. Increasing the sales of higher-priced sports tickets.
D. Promoting the sense of group identity and belonging.
31. What can be the best title for the text?
A. Higher Life Satisfaction Leads to Health
B. Attending Live Sports Improves Wellbeing
C. Watching Live Sports Strengthens Belonging
D. Closer Social Interaction Can Boost Wellbeing
D
Researchers from the University of Technology Sydney(UTS) have developed biosensor(生物传感器) technology that will allow you to operate devices, such as robots and machines, only through thought control. The advanced brain-computer interface was developed by distinguished Professor Chin-Teng Lin and Professor Francesca Iacopi, from the UTS Faculty of Engineering and IT, cooperating with the Australian Army and Defence Innovation Hub.
As well as defence applications, the technology has a conspicuous effect on fields such as advanced manufacturing, aerospace and healthcare—for example, allowing people with a disability to control a wheelchair or operate an artificial body part.
“The hands-free, voice-free technology works outside laboratory settings, anytime, anywhere. It makes interfaces such as electrical equipment, keyboards, touchscreens and hand-gesture recognition unnecessary,” said Professor Iacopi. “By using cutting-edge graphene material, combined with silicon(a chemical element), we were able to develop the wearable dry sensors.”
A new study outlining the technology has just been published in the peer-reviewed journal ACS Applied Nano Materials. It shows that the graphene sensors developed at the UTS are very conductive(导电的), easy to use and strong.
The operator wears a head-mounted augmented reality lens which displays white flashing squares.By concentrating on a particular square， the brainwaves of the operator are picked up by the biosensor， and a decoder（解码器） translates the signal into commands.
The technology was recently demonstrated by the Australian Army， where soldiers operated a Ghost Robotics four-legged robot using the brain-machine interface. The device allowed hands-free command of the robotic dog with up to 94% accuracy.
“Our technology can issue at least nine commands in two seconds. This means we have nine different kinds of commands and the operator can select one from those nine within that time period,” Professor Lin said. “We have also explored how to minimise noise from the body and environment to get a clearer signal from the operator's brain.
The researchers believe the technology will be of interest to the scientific community, industry and government, and they hope to continue making advances in brain-computer interface systems.
32. What can we learn from the first paragraph?
A. Research into human brains has made a great breakthrough.
B. Robots can operate devices smoothly.
C. Mind-control robots will be a reality.
D. Robots and machines will control themselves.
33. What does the underlined word “conspicuous” in paragraph 2 probably mean?
A. Significant. B. Worrisome. C. Controllable. D. Temporary·
34. What potential does the biosensor technology have?
A. It can extend the popularity of voice-control technology.
B. It can be used to produce goods of better quality.
C. It can remove noise from the body.
D. It can enable an artificial body part to function better.
35. What is Professor Lin's attitude towards the biosensor technology?
A. Tolerant. B. Doubtful. C. Unclear. D. Supportive.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Experts on child development agree that children learn and develop through everyday experiences. 36 That's why introducing cooking to children at a young age is essential to their experiential learning. Children like playing make-believe and enjoy inventing a variety of characters while immersed in（沉浸于） imaginative play. Cooking games area fantastic way to stimulate imaginative play.
Cooking games for kids train creativity. Free online cooking games encourage kids to try new things and think outside the box by letting them experiment with ingredients, recipes and preparation methods. 37
Online cooking games promote math and reading skills. 38 It promotes the development of fundamental mathematical abilities such as counting，adding, subtracting and working with fractions. Additionally, many free cooking games online, such as Cooking Mama, require kids to read the recipes or lists of ingredients and then follow the directions, teaching them to read and improving their vocabulary.
39 When kids take the initiative, finish a task or follow directions correctly, they feel good about themselves and proud of what they've done. When kids have trust in their own skills, they are more likely to grow up with a feeling of confidence, responsibility and independence.
Cooking games can improve social skills. 40 For example, playing multiplayer or two-player games allows children to interact with others, help each other, laugh together, solve problems in cooperation, and soon. This is especially convenient for kids who have difficulty reaching out to others in the real world. Online games can help these kids develop self-esteem and practice their communication skills, so they eventually feel more confident making friends in real life.
A. Why not try such cooking games?
B. Such games can help kids develop creativity.
C. Most cooking games offer an in-built social space.
D. Cooking games boost confidence and independence.
E. Online cooking games can help kids make use of the world.
F. Food and cooking are such fundamental parts of our day-to-day lives.
G. The act of cooking, whether virtual or real, requires much counting and measuring.
第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Growing up, I've always had a special fondness for my English teachers. Each new 41 , I was so excited to meet my new teachers, but never once did I 42 finding a teacher like Mr. Zelcer.
Before I entered my senior year, I heard stories about Mr. Zel cer and his class, where too many students crowded. I always wanted to know how 43 his class was. So of course, I went to class that first day with 44 .It was in that class that I felt my 45 about education became different. It was the guidance of Mr. Zelcer that allowed me to open my eyes.
The goal of his class wasn't 46 to teach us how to pass the exam. It didn't 47 the fact that promised us to get an A in the end. It was to teach us how to be human. We never 48 the process of learning and simply living in the moment because of the heavy school work. But he 49 that.
He 50 that each student needed different things to succeed, so he let each of us go on our own paths—something I'd never seen a teacher do before. It sounded 51 , but it did work miracles. Mr. Zelcer isn't just an English teacher to me, but a guide.
Senior year is a(n) 52 time for all students as it's one of the biggest parts of college admission. What surprised me was that even during the days I desperately wanted to go home, I always found 53 in his classroom. His passion for teaching was excellent, so he always 54 the room after a long day.
Learning under Mr. Zelcer is something I'll never forget. He deserves to be 55 for his work and the impact he has on his students.
41. A. month B. occasion C. term D. class
42. A. anticipate B. forget C. intend D. regret
43. A. formal B. serious C. amazing D. demanding
44. A. problems B. expectations C. challenges D. excuses
45. A. doubt B. opinion C. curiosity D. concern
46. A. just B. even C. ever D. still
47. A. test out B. depend on C. differ from D. lie in
48. A. compared B. knew C. enjoyed D. questioned
49. A. changed B. acknowledged C. shared D. confirmed
50. A. added B. suspected C. understood D. promised
51. A. unfair B. correct C. practical D. odd
52. A. awkward B. stressful C. common D. happy
53. A. information B. comfort C. opportunities D. weaknesses
54. A. left B. decorated C. swept D. brightened
55. A. recognized B. analyzed C. protected D. selected
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
A recently released 56 (nation)survey on reading among Chinese people, 57 was conducted by the Chinese Academy of Press and Publication(CAPP), has shown 58 steady rise in reading as a habit in the country.
Over 1.48 million 59 (sample) were collected for the survey from 165 cities nationwide, carried out via the forms of online and telephone surveys.
An average adult would spend 23.13 minutes on average per day 60 (read) printed books in 2022 the survey showed.
Moreover, listening to audiobooks was another rising habit among Chinese readers, 61 35.5 percent of adults saying they were used to listening 62 (main) to audiobooks，
Public reading services continued to meet the needs of Chinese readers, as 78.2 percent of the people 63 (survey) were satisfied with the services of public libraries, and 72.5 percent were pleased with their experience at community or self-service libraries.
“In Hangzhou, for instance, reading venues, including public libraries, self-service libraries and rural reading rooms， 64 (cover) the whole city in the past several years,” said Mayor of Hangzhou Yao Gao yuan on Sunday.
Reading on mobile phones also remained a habit among Chinese readers. According to the survey, 77.8 percent read on their phones last year, 0.4 percent 65 (high) than in 2021.
第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
昨天你校举办了英语才艺展示活动，请你为校英文报写一篇报道，内容包括：
1.活动目的；
2.活动内容；
3.你的感受。
注意：1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was still light out, and Dad wasn't home yet. He worked all day cleaning pools in South Port, Florida. Mom told us we needed to wait for dinner, so all of us could eat together. If Dad was late, it meant I could have more time outside to play basketball with my brother.
A few years ago, when life was normal, and some of Dad's customers who had lost their jobs told him they couldn't afford to pay Dad toe lean their pools anymore, Dad bought us a backboard and hoop(篮框) and paid someone to install a basketball court.
My brother and I would shoot baskets from morning tonight if Mom let us, but she said homework always came first. Still, during the summer months, we spent much of the day on the court. We practiced all sorts of shots-hook shots, fade-away jumpers, foul shots, layups(上篮), shots from the corner and tried to sharpen our dribbling(控球) skis. Holding a ball and sending it into the air and waiting for it to drop into the basket felt like magic-all the problems of the world seemed to fade away—and I felt like I was the magician making the magic happen each time I threw the ball toward the basket and watched it fly toward its destination.
Dad once told me he felt pretty much the same way about cleaning pools. It was one of the things Dad and I shared—the ability to see magic in things. Lately, though, it didn't seem like Dad saw a lot of magic anywhere. Yesterday he came home and told us he'd lost more customers.
I could tell he was worried when he came home each night. I squeezed past my brother to put in another layup when I heard Dad's old truck chugging around the corner.
“Hey, guys!” Dad said a she got out, with tiredness, and he couldn't hide the worry in his eyes. In that moment his face was caught in the fading rays of the sun, and the light revealed a lot more wrinkles than I remembered.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
I knew how much Dad loved basketball and thought maybe it might cheer him up.

As daylight faded, Mom switched the lights on to send usher signal that dinner was ready.